Fundamental Skills - Diagnostic Tests

  1. A client is being prepared for a thoracentesis. The nurse should assist the client to which position for the procedure? 
    1. Lying in bed on the affected side 
    2. Lying in bed on the unaffected side 
    3. Sims position with the head of the bed flat 
    4. Prone with the head turned to the side and supported by a pillow
    2. Lying in bed on the unaffected side
  2. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who has returned to the nursing unit following cardiac catheterization performed through the femoral artery. The nurse checks the health care provider's (HCP's) prescription and plans to allow which client position or activity following the procedure? 
    1. Bed rest in high Fowler's position 
    2. Bed rest with bathroom privileges only 
    3. Bed rest with head elevation at 60 degrees 
    4. Bed rest with head elevation no greater than 30 degrees
    4. Bed rest with head elevation no greater than 30 degrees
  3. A client is scheduled for a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear at the next scheduled clinic visit. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding preparation for this test. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? 
    1. The test is painless. 
    2. Fluids are restricted on the day of the test. 
    3. The test can be performed during menstruation. 
    4. Vaginal douching is required 2 hours before the test.
    1. The test is painless.
  4. The nurse is caring for a client after pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion via the left groin. Which assessment finding is related to an allergic reaction to the contrast medium? 
    1. Hypothermia 
    2. Decreased blood pressure 
    3. Hematoma in the left groin 
    4. Discomfort in the left groin
    2. Decreased blood pressure
  5. The nurse assists a health care provider in performing a liver biopsy. After the biopsy, the nurse should place the client in which position? 
    1. Prone 
    2. Supine 
    3. A left side-lying position with a small pillow or folded towel under the puncture site 
    4. A right side-lying position with a small pillow or folded towel under the puncture site
    4. A right side-lying position with a small pillow or folded towel under the puncture site
  6. A client is scheduled for a fiberoptic gastrointestinal (GI) procedure. The nurse instructs the client to remain on clear liquids the day before the test because a clear liquid diet supports which action? 
    1. Stimulating peristalsis 
    2. Promoting a laxative action 
    3. Providing little or no residue 
    4. Providing minimal calories and nutrients
    3. Providing little or no residue
  7. The nurse is preparing to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from the client. Which is an inaccurate action in collecting the specimen? 
    1. Placing the specimen on ice or refrigerating it 
    2. Discarding the urine specimen at the start time 
    3. Asking the client to void, saving the specimen, and noting the start time 
    4. Asking the client to void at the end of the collection and adding this specimen to the collection
    3. Asking the client to void, saving the specimen, and noting the start time
  8. The nurse instructs a female client to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. Which statement by the client indicates that she understands the procedure for collecting the specimen? 
    1. "A urine specimen will be obtained from a catheter." 
    2. "I need to clean the labia with toilet paper and void into the sterile specimen container." 
    3. "I should empty my bladder into a container so that the full amount of urine can be determined." 
    4. "I need to cleanse the labia using cleansing towels, void into the toilet, and then void into the sterile specimen container."
    4. "I need to cleanse the labia using cleansing towels, void into the toilet, and then void into the sterile specimen container."
  9. A client is scheduled for an excretory urogram. Which should the nurse expect to be prescribed as a component of preparation for this test? 
    1. NPO status after midnight 
    2. Administration of intravenous fluids 
    3. Administration of a sedative before the test 
    4. Bowel preparation to remove fecal contents
    4. Bowel preparation to remove fecal contents
  10. The nurse is explaining an upper gastrointestinal series to a client and provides the client with the preprocedure and postprocedure instructions. The nurse informs the client that after this procedure, the stools can be expected to remain white for what time period? 
    1. 1 week 
    2. 6 hours 
    3. 8 hours 
    4. 1 to 2 days
    4. 1 to 2 days
  11. The nurse is planning care for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit after an oral cholecystogram. The nurse should expect to be able to delete which prescription on the client's care plan? 
    1. Monitor hydration status. 
    2. Assess for nausea and vomiting. 
    3. Monitor for abdominal discomfort. 
    4. Maintain a clear liquid diet for 72 hours.
    4. Maintain a clear liquid diet for 72 hours.
  12. The nurse is scheduling diagnostic tests for a client. Which of the diagnostic tests prescribed should be performed last? 
    1. Barium enema 
    2. Barium swallow 
    3. Gallbladder series 
    4. Oral cholecystogram
    2. Barium swallow
  13. A client is scheduled for an oral cholecystogram. The nurse should plan to prescribe which type of diet for the evening meal before the test? 
    1. Liquid 
    2. Low-fat 
    3. Low-protein 
    4. High-carbohydrate
    2. Low-fat
  14. The nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled to undergo cerebral angiography. The nurse should assess the client for which finding? 
    1. Claustrophobia 
    2. Excessive weight 
    3. Allergy to salmon 
    4. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
    4. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
  15. The nurse is providing information to a client scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? 
    1. The test will probably take about 2 hours. 
    2. Food and fluids will be restricted after the test. 
    3. A signed informed consent form will be required. 
    4. Maintaining bed rest after the test will not be necessary.
    3. A signed informed consent form will be required.
  16. The nurse is assisting the health care provider in performing a lumbar puncture on a client. The nurse prepares the client for the procedure by placing the client in which position? 
    1. Fetal 
    2. Prone 
    3. Supine 
    4. Lateral
    1. Fetal
  17. A client requires a myelogram, and the ambulatory care nurse is providing instructions to the client regarding preparation for the procedure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 
    1. "My jewelry will need to be removed." 
    2. "An informed consent form will need to be signed." 
    3. "My procedure will take approximately 45 minutes." 
    4. "I need to be sure to eat a full meal before the procedure."
    4. "I need to be sure to eat a full meal before the procedure."
  18. A client is scheduled for a digital subtraction angiography study. In providing information and instructions to the client regarding the test, which statement by the client indicates the teaching has been effective? 
    1. "The purpose of the test is to detect lesions in the brain." 
    2. "The purpose of the test is to inject medication into the bone." 
    3. "The purpose of the test is to examine the cerebrospinal column." 
    4. "The purpose of the test is to provide information about the blood vessels."
    4. "The purpose of the test is to provide information about the blood vessels."
  19. The nurse is providing instructions to the client scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? 
    1. Injection of a dye is necessary. 
    2. Food and fluids are restricted for 12 to 24 hours before the test. 
    3. Lying still in a flat position for 45 to 60 minutes may be necessary. 
    4. The test may cause some pain, and pain medication will be prescribed if pain occurs.
    3. Lying still in a flat position for 45 to 60 minutes may be necessary.
  20. The nurse provides instructions to a client who is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 
    1. "The test will take between 45 minutes and 2 hours." 
    2. "My hair should be washed the evening before the test." 
    3. "Cola, tea, and coffee are restricted on the day of the test." 
    4. "All medications need to be withheld on the day of the test."
    4. "All medications need to be withheld on the day of the test."
  21. The nurse is providing information to a client who is scheduled for an electromyogram (EMG). Which statement by the client indicates the teaching has been effective? 
    1. "An informed consent form is not required." 
    2. "Needles will be inserted into the skeletal muscles." 
    3. "Medication is injected into the nerve for stimulation." 
    4. "Nothing by mouth status must be maintained for 12 hours before the test."
    2. "Needles will be inserted into the skeletal muscles."
  22. The ambulatory care nurse is providing home care instructions to the client after an arthroscopy of the knee. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 
    1. "I should elevate my knee while sitting." 
    2. "I can apply heat to the site if it becomes uncomfortable." 
    3. "I should avoid excessive use of the joint for several days." 
    4. "I should return to the health care provider for suture removal in about 7 days."
    2. "I can apply heat to the site if it becomes uncomfortable."
  23. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for a gallium scan. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of the instructions? 
    1. "The procedure will take all day." 
    2. "I need to have an injection 2 to 3 hours before the procedure." 
    3. "I will need to avoid food and fluids and remain on bed rest for 2 days after the procedure." 
    4. "I need to get a good night's rest because I will have to stand for several hours for this test."
    2. "I need to have an injection 2 to 3 hours before the procedure."
  24. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is suspected of having cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. The nurse should prepare the client for which test to confirm the presence of this type of sarcoma? 
    1. Liver biopsy 
    2. Sputum culture 
    3. White blood cell count 
    4. Punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions
    4. Punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions
  25. The nurse notes that the health care provider (HCP) has documented a suspected diagnosis of herpes zoster in the client's chart. The nurse should prepare the client for which diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis? 
    1. Patch test 
    2. Skin biopsy 
    3. Culture of the lesion 
    4. Wood's lamp examination
    3. Culture of the lesion
  26. A client with urolithiasis is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. The nurse should tell the client that which will be necessary before the procedure is performed? 
    1. Insertion of a Foley catheter 
    2. A signed informed consent form 
    3. Clear liquids only on the day of the procedure 
    4. Administration of antihypertensive medication
    2. A signed informed consent form
  27. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who has had a bone scan. The nurse should instruct the client to take which measure? 
    1. Avoid eating or drinking for 24 hours. 
    2. Take a liquid laxative daily for the next 3 days. 
    3. Increase fluid intake for the next 24 to 48 hours. 
    4. Ambulate vigorously several times for the next 2 days.
    3. Increase fluid intake for the next 24 to 48 hours.
  28. The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed as having a kidney mass and is scheduled for a renal biopsy. The client asks the nurse the reason for this procedure when other tests such as an ultrasound exam are available. In formulating a response, which knowledge about renal biopsy should the nurse incorporate? 
    1. Provides an outline of the renal vascular system 
    2. Determines if the mass is growing rapidly or slowly 
    3. Helps differentiate between a solid mass and a fluid-filled cyst 
    4. Provides a tissue specimen to examine for specific cytological information about the lesion
    4. Provides a tissue specimen to examine for specific cytological information about the lesion
  29. A clinic nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a suspected diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse anticipates that which diagnostic test will be prescribed by the client's health care provider? 
    1. Schilling test 
    2. Clotting time 
    3. Bone marrow biopsy 
    4. White blood cell differential
    1. Schilling test
  30. A clinic nurse is providing instructions to a female client regarding the procedure for collecting a midstream (clean-catch) urine specimen. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? 
    1. Begin the flow of urine and then collect the specimen. 
    2. Cleanse the perineum from back to front before collecting the specimen. 
    3. Collect the specimen in the evening before going to bed and deliver it to the laboratory immediately the next morning. 
    4. Scrub the perineum with povidone-iodine solution in the evening and again in the morning before collecting the specimen.
    1. Begin the flow of urine and then collect the specimen.
  31. A nursing student is assigned to an adult client who is scheduled for bone marrow aspiration. The coassigned nurse asks the nursing student about the possible sites that could be used for obtaining the bone marrow. The student demonstrates understanding of the procedure by identifying what as the correct aspiration site? 
    1. Ribs 
    2. Femur 
    3. Scapula 
    4. Iliac crest
    4. Iliac crest
  32. The clinic nurse has provided instructions to a client who will be reporting to the laboratory the next morning to have blood drawn for a complete blood cell (CBC) count. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of the preparation for this laboratory test? 
    1. "There is no special preparation for this test." 
    2. "I cannot eat or drink anything after midnight." 
    3. "I need to avoid any cold cuts and luncheon meats for the rest of the day." 
    4. "I can drink coffee or tea in the morning before the test but cannot eat anything."
    1. "There is no special preparation for this test."
  33. The nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant. A urinalysis has been prescribed, and the nurse plans to collect the specimen. Which method is most appropriate in urine collection in an infant? 
    1. Catheterizing the infant using a Foley catheter 
    2. Attaching a urine collection device to the infant's perineum 
    3. Obtaining the specimen from the diaper, using a syringe, after the infant voids 
    4. Monitoring the urinary patterns and preparing to collect the specimen into a cup when the infant voids
    2. Attaching a urine collection device to the infant's perineum
  34. A client is admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of suspected myocardial infarction. The unit nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for this client. Which finding would most specifically indicate the presence of a myocardial infarction (MI)? 
    1. Increased troponin I 
    2. Increased myoglobin 
    3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 
    4. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
    1. Increased troponin I
  35. The emergency department nurse is caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse should prepare the client for which test to confirm the diagnosis? 
    1. Blood culture 
    2. Lumbar puncture 
    3. Serum electrolyte panel 
    4. White blood cell (WBC) count
    2. Lumbar puncture
  36. The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a suspected diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis. The nurse anticipates that which diagnostic test will be prescribed to confirm this diagnosis? 
    1. Lumbar puncture 
    2. Electroencephalogram (EEG) 
    3. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 
    4. Computed tomography (CT) scan
    3. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  37. A pulmonary angiography is scheduled to be performed in a client suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. In planning the preprocedure care for this client, which nursing action is unnecessary? 
    1. Shave the anticipated entry site. 
    2. Obtain a signed informed consent. 
    3. Ask the client about allergies to shellfish or contrast media. 
    4. Contact the operating room regarding the need for the procedure.
    4. Contact the operating room regarding the need for the procedure.
  38. A client asks the nurse to explain what is involved in an intravenous fluorescein angiography study of the eye. The nurse should incorporate which statement in the reply? 
    1. "No contrast dye is used." 
    2. "Food is restricted for 4 hours before the procedure." 
    3. "Dilating drops will be instilled before the procedure." 
    4. "The study predicts the success of radial keratotomy."
    3. "Dilating drops will be instilled before the procedure."
  39. The clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for a barium enema. What should the nurse instruct the client to do in preparation for this procedure? 
    1. Liquids are restricted for 24 hours after the test. 
    2. A clear liquid diet is required for 4 days before the test. 
    3. Laxatives should not be taken for at least 1 week before the test. 
    4. A low-fiber diet needs to be maintained for 1 to 3 days before the test.
    4. A low-fiber diet needs to be maintained for 1 to 3 days before the test.
  40. A client recovering from cardiac surgery has a left pleural effusion and is about to undergo a thoracentesis. What is the best position for the nurse to place the client in for the procedure? 
    1. Dorsal recumbent 
    2. Left lateral, with the right arm supported by a pillow 
    3. Right side-lying, with the legs curled up into a fetal position 
    4. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on an over-the-bed table
    4. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on an over-the-bed table
  41. The ambulatory care nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy to remove a polyp. Which instructions are appropriate for client preparation for this procedure? 
    1. Clear liquids may be consumed starting 24 hours after the procedure. 
    2. A bowel preparation will be required in preparation for the procedure. 
    3. Clear liquids only are allowed on the day of the scheduled procedure. 
    4. If blood-tinged stools are noted after the procedure, the health care provider (HCP) should be notified.
    2. A bowel preparation will be required in preparation for the procedure.
  42. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who will collect a stool specimen for an occult blood test. The nurse instructs the client that it is best to avoid which food for 3 days before collection of the stool specimen? 
    1. Turnips 
    2. Hard cheese 
    3. Milk products 
    4. Cottage cheese
    1. Turnips
  43. A quantitative 72-hour fecal fat collection is prescribed by the health care provider. How should the nurse instruct the client to prepare for the specimen collection? 
    1. Use a wax container for the collection. 
    2. Consume a high-fat diet for 3 days before the test. 
    3. Avoid refrigeration of the specimen during the collection. 
    4. Take laxatives starting 2 days before the test for collection of an adequate specimen.
    2. Consume a high-fat diet for 3 days before the test.
  44. The ambulatory care nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled for a liver biopsy. The nurse reviews the client's record and expects to note which laboratory results documented in the client's chart? 
    1. Uric acid level 
    2. Prothrombin time 
    3. White blood cell count 
    4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
    2. Prothrombin time
  45. The ambulatory care nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider in performing a liver biopsy on a client. The client is receiving a local anesthetic for the procedure. The nurse should assist the client into which position for this test to be performed? 
    1. Right lateral side-lying 
    2. Flat with the head elevated 
    3. Supine with the right hand under the head 
    4. Prone with the hands crossed under the head
    3. Supine with the right hand under the head
  46. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled to return to the nursing unit after a liver biopsy. What is the most appropriate position for the client? 
    1. Prone 
    2. Supine 
    3. On the left side 
    4. On the right side
    4. On the right side
  47. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for an oral cholecystogram. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? 
    1. Eat a high-fat meal on the evening before the procedure. 
    2. Eat a high-fat meal for breakfast on the day of the procedure. 
    3. Avoid oral intake except for water on the day of the procedure. 
    4. Maintain strict nothing-by-mouth status on the day of the procedure.
    3. Avoid oral intake except for water on the day of the procedure.
  48. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be returning to the nursing unit after a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram. The nurse should include which intervention in the postprocedure plan of care? 
    1. Encourage fluid and food intake. 
    2. Allow the client bathroom privileges only. 
    3. Allow the client to sit in a chair for meals. 
    4. Place a sandbag or other approved device over the insertion site.
    4. Place a sandbag or other approved device over the insertion site.
  49. A clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client in preparation for the test? 
    1. Eat a normal breakfast on the day of the test. 
    2. Take insulin as scheduled on the day of the test 
    3. Eat a low-carbohydrate diet for at least 3 days before the test. 
    4. Avoid alcohol, coffee, and tea for 36 hours before and during the test.
    4. Avoid alcohol, coffee, and tea for 36 hours before and during the test.
  50. The nurse is teaching a client about an upcoming colonoscopy procedure. The nurse would include in the instructions the fact that the client will be placed in which position for the procedure? 
    1. Left Sims 
    2. Right Sims 
    3. Knee-chest 
    4. Lithotomy
    1. Left Sims
  51. An ultrasound examination of the gallbladder is scheduled for a client with a suspected diagnosis of cholecystitis. Correct instructions about the procedure should include which statement? 
    1. "This procedure may cause discomfort." 
    2. "This test requires that you lie still for short intervals." 
    3. "This procedure is preceded by the administration of oral tablets." 
    4. "This procedure requires that you not eat or drink anything for 24 hours before the test."
    2. "This test requires that you lie still for short intervals."
  52. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has undergone an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) procedure. The nurse should include which intervention in the nursing care plan? 
    1. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour for 4 hours. 
    2. Place the client in a prone position to provide comfort. 
    3. Check the gag reflex by using a tongue depressor to stroke the back of the client's throat. 
    4. Provide saline gargles immediately on the client's return to the nursing unit to aid in comfort.
    3. Check the gag reflex by using a tongue depressor to stroke the back of the client's throat.
  53. The nurse is teaching a client about what to expect during a gallium scan. The nurse should include which item as part of the instructions? 
    1. The procedure is noninvasive. 
    2. The client must stand erect during the filming. 
    3. The procedure takes about 30 to 60 minutes to perform. 
    4. The client should remain on bed rest for the remainder of the day after the scan.
    3. The procedure takes about 30 to 60 minutes to perform.
  54. The nurse is giving client instructions over the telephone about preparing for a mammography. The nurse should make which statement to the client? 
    1. "Wear metal jewelry as desired." 
    2. "Consume clear liquids only on the day of the test." 
    3. "Avoid using underarm deodorant on the day of the test." 
    4. "Use only lanolin-based skin lotions on the day of the test."
    3. "Avoid using underarm deodorant on the day of the test."
  55. A health care provider (HCP) is planning to perform a lumbar puncture on a client. The nurse knows that this procedure will allow access to which anatomical area for diagnostic testing? 
    1. Vertebrae 
    2. Spinal cord 
    3. Epidural space 
    4. Subarachnoid space
    4. Subarachnoid space
  56. A nurse is collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing from a client who has a productive cough. The nurse plans to implement which intervention to obtain the specimen? 
    1. Ask the client to obtain the specimen after breakfast. 
    2. Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen. 
    3. Provide tissues for expectoration and obtaining the specimen. 
    4. Ask the client to expectorate a small amount of sputum into the emesis basin.
    2. Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen.
  57. A nurse is told to draw an arterial blood gas sample with the client on ambient air. The nurse documents in the record that the client was receiving how much oxygen for this procedure? 
    1. 16% 
    2. 21% 
    3. 30% 
    4. 40%
    2. 21%
  58. A health care provider is about to perform a paracentesis for a client with abdominal ascites. The nurse assisting with the procedure should help the client into which position? 
    1. Supine 
    2. Upright 
    3. Right side-lying 
    4. Left side-lying
    2. Upright
  59. The nurse is planning care for a client returning to the nursing unit after a bone biopsy. Which nursing action would be contraindicated in the post-procedure care for this client? 
    1. Monitor vital signs. 
    2. Administer oral analgesics as needed. 
    3. Place the limb in a dependent position for 24 hours. 
    4. Monitor biopsy site for swelling, bleeding, or hematoma.
    3. Place the limb in a dependent position for 24 hours.
  60. The nurse is giving post-procedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. What is the priority instruction for this client? 
    1. "Do not eat or drink anything until tomorrow morning." 
    2. "Keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day." 
    3. "You need to refrain from strenuous activity for the next few weeks." 
    4. "Report any fever or redness and heat at the site to your health care provider (HCP)."
    4. "Report any fever or redness and heat at the site to your health care provider (HCP)."
  61. The nurse working in a same-day procedure unit is admitting a client scheduled for an arthrogram using a contrast medium. Which is the priority nursing assessment for this client? 
    1. Determine if the client understands the procedure. 
    2. Determine if the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish. 
    3. Determine if the client wishes to void before the procedure. 
    4. Determine if the client is able to remain still during the procedure.
    2. Determine if the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish.
  62. The nurse is providing information to a client about a computerized tomography (CT) scan of the head. Which statement should the nurse include when reviewing the CT with the client? 
    1. "You will need to stand up straight for the entire procedure." 
    2. "All scans require the injection of dye before the procedure." 
    3. "Each set of head scans takes less than 5 minutes to perform." 
    4. "You will need to remain on bedrest for 12 hours after the scan."
    3. "Each set of head scans takes less than 5 minutes to perform."
  63. The nurse working in the outpatient radiology department is giving discharge instructions to a client who has had a bone scan. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? 
    1. Report any feelings of nausea or flushing. 
    2. Avoid eating very much for the rest of the day. 
    3. Drink extra water for a day or so after the procedure. 
    4. Try to go up and down stairs at least twice before the end of the day.
    3. Drink extra water for a day or so after the procedure.
  64. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study is prescribed for a client with a suspected brain tumor. Which priority action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to ensure safety? 
    1. Shave the groin for insertion of a femoral catheter. 
    2. Remove all metal-containing objects from the client. 
    3. Inform the client to remain motionless throughout the procedure. 
    4. Instruct the client in inhalation techniques for the administration of the radioisotope.
    2. Remove all metal-containing objects from the client.
  65. A client is to undergo pleural biopsy at the bedside. When planning for any potential complications of the procedure, the nurse should have which item(s) available at the bedside? 
    1. Intubation tray 
    2. Morphine sulfate injection 
    3. Portable chest x-ray machine 
    4. Chest tube and drainage system
    4. Chest tube and drainage system
  66. A client is scheduled for elective cardioversion to treat chronic high-rate atrial fibrillation. Which finding indicates that further preparation is needed for the procedure? 
    1. The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. 
    2. The client's digoxin (Lanoxin) has been withheld for the last 48 hours. 
    3. The defibrillator has the synchronizer turned on and is set at 50 joules (J). 
    4. The client has received an intravenous dose of a conscious sedation medication.
    1. The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min.
  67. The nurse has a prescription to obtain a 24-hour urine collection in a client with a renal disorder. Which actions should the nurse take when collecting this specimen? Select all that apply. 
    1. Explain the procedure to the client. 
    2. Save all subsequent voidings after the first void during the 24-hour period. 
    3. During the collection period, place the main container on ice or in a refrigerator. 
    4. Have the client void at the end time, and place this specimen in the main container. 
    5. Have the client void at the start time, and place this specimen in the main container.
    • 1. Explain the procedure to the client. 
    • 2. Save all subsequent voidings after the first void during the 24-hour period. 
    • 3. During the collection period, place the main container on ice or in a refrigerator. 
    • 4. Have the client void at the end time, and place this specimen in the main container.
  68. How should the nurse position the client for pericardiocentesis to treat cardiac tamponade? 
    1. Supine with slight Trendelenburg's position 
    2. Lying on the right side with a pillow under the head 
    3. Lying on the left side with a pillow under the chest wall 
    4. Supine with the head of bed elevated at a 45- to 60-degree angle
    4. Supine with the head of bed elevated at a 45- to 60-degree angle
  69. A stool smear for culture needs to be obtained from a client. What steps should the nurse plan on implementing when obtaining the specimen? Select all that apply. 
    1 .Wearing sterile gloves 
    2. Using a sterile container 
    3. Refrigerating the specimen 
    4. Sending the specimen directly to the laboratory 
    5. Positioning the client in a dorsal recumbent position
    • 1. Wearing sterile gloves 
    • 2. Using a sterile container 
    • 4. Sending the specimen directly to the laboratory
  70. The nurse is caring for a client with possible cholelithiasis who is being prepared for intravenous cholangiography and is teaching the client about the procedure. Which statement indicates that the client understands the purpose of this test? 
    1. "My gallbladder will be irrigated." 
    2. "This procedure will drain my gallbladder." 
    3. "They will put medication in my gallbladder." 
    4. "They are going to look at my gallbladder and ducts."
    4. "They are going to look at my gallbladder and ducts."
  71. A client is about to undergo a lumbar puncture (LP). The nurse should tell the client that which position will be used during the procedure? 
    1. Prone in slight Trendelenburg 
    2. Side-lying with a pillow under the hip 
    3. Prone with a pillow under the abdomen 
    4. Side-lying with the legs pulled up and the head bent down onto the chest
    4. Side-lying with the legs pulled up and the head bent down onto the chest
  72. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who has undergone myelography using an oil-based contrast agent. How long and in what position should the nurse plan to position the client on bed rest? 
    1. 2 hours, with the head of bed flat 
    2. 8 hours, with the head of bed flat 
    3. 4 hours, with head of bed elevated 15 to 30 degrees 
    4. 8 hours, with head of bed elevated 15 to 30 degrees
    2. 8 hours, with the head of bed flat
  73. The nurse is admitting a client to the short-stay unit after a myelogram. A water-based contrast agent was used. Which activity restrictions should the nurse should plan for the client? 
    1. Bed rest for 2 to 4 hours, with the head of bed flat 
    2. Bed rest for 6 to 8 hours, with the head of bed flat 
    3. Bed rest for 2 to 4 hours, with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees 
    4. Bed rest for 6 to 8 hours, with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees
    4. Bed rest for 6 to 8 hours, with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees
  74. A fasting blood glucose screening test is performed on a pregnant client. The results indicate that the blood glucose level is 140 mg/dL. The nurse should anticipate that which treatment measure would be prescribed next for the mother? 
    1. An oral hypoglycemic agent 
    2. A 3-hour glucose tolerance test 
    3. A sliding-scale regular insulin dose 
    4. Humulin N insulin on a daily basis
    2. A 3-hour glucose tolerance test
  75. The nurse is caring for a client who is going to have arthrography with a contrast medium. Which assessment by the nurse would be of highest priority? 
    1. Allergy to iodine or shellfish 
    2. Whether the client wishes to void before the procedure 
    3. Ability of the client to remain still during the procedure 
    4. Whether the client has any remaining questions about the procedure
    1. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
  76. A client suspected of having an abdominal tumor is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with dye injection. How should the nurse describe this test to the client? 
    1. The test may be painful. 
    2. The test will take approximately 2 hours. 
    3. Fluids will be restricted following the test. 
    4. The dye injected may cause a warm flushing sensation.
    4. The dye injected may cause a warm flushing sensation.
  77. A nurse is preparing to care for a client following a gastroscopy procedure. Which priority component should the nurse include in the nursing care plan? 
    1. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour for 4 hours. 
    2. Place the client in a supine position to provide comfort. 
    3. Provide saline gargles immediately on return to the unit to aid in comfort. 
    4. Check the gag reflex by using a tongue depressor to stroke the back of the client's throat.
    4. Check the gag reflex by using a tongue depressor to stroke the back of the client's throat.
  78. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Before the test, which is the priority nursing action? 
    1. Restrict fluids. 
    2. Administer a sedative. 
    3. Determine a history of iodine or seafood allergies. 
    4. Administer an oral preparation of radiopaque dye.
    3. Determine a history of iodine or seafood allergies.
  79. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone renal angiography using the left femoral artery for access. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure if which finding is observed? 
    1. Urine output, 50 mL/hr 
    2. Blood pressure, 110/74 mm Hg 
    3. Pallor and coolness of the left leg 
    4. Absence of hematoma in the left groin
    3. Pallor and coolness of the left leg
  80. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is prescribed for a client. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for performance of this diagnostic study? 
    1. The client has a pacemaker. 
    2. The client is allergic to iodine. 
    3. The client has diabetes mellitus. 
    4. The client has a biological porcine valve.
    1. The client has a pacemaker.
  81. A nurse notices frequent artifact on the electrocardiographic monitor for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause. Which are likely causes of the artifact? Select all that apply. 
    1. Leads applied to the limbs 
    2. Leads applied over hairy areas 
    3. Frequent movement of the client 
    4. Tightly secured cable connections 
    5. Electrode placement over bony prominences
    • 1. Leads applied to the limbs 
    • 2. Leads applied over hairy areas 
    • 3. Frequent movement of the client
    • 5. Electrode placement over bony prominences
  82. A nurse is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a client. Which nursing action will facilitate obtaining the specimen? 
    1. Limiting fluids 
    2. Having the client take three deep breaths 
    3. Asking the client to spit into the collection container 
    4. Asking the client to obtain the specimen after eating
    2. Having the client take three deep breaths
  83. A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which question is most importantwhen assessing this client? 
    1. "Can you hold your breath easily?" 
    2. "Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?" 
    3. "Are you able to hold your arms above your head?" 
    4. "Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?"
    4. "Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?"
  84. A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement? 
    1. Administering atropine intravenously 
    2. Administering small doses of a sedative 
    3. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours 
    4. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering food or fluids
    4. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering food or fluids
  85. A nurse collects urine specimens for catecholamine testing from a client with suspected pheochromocytoma. The results of the catecholamine test are reported as 20 mcg/100 mL urine. The nurse should make which interpretation about this result? 
    1. Insignificant and unrelated to pheochromocytoma 
    2. Lower than normal, ruling out pheochromocytoma 
    3. Higher than normal, indicating pheochromocytoma 
    4. Normal results for a client with pheochromocytoma
    3. Higher than normal, indicating pheochromocytoma
  86. With a finger sensor the nurse is measuring a client's oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter machine and obtains a reading of 78% while the client is on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The client is showing no signs of restlessness or dyspnea. What is the first nursing action? 
    1. Increase the client's oxygen to 4 L/min. 
    2. Check the finger sensor's position and repeat the test. 
    3. Notify the client's health care provider about the low reading. 
    4. Go check the client's chart to find out what the previous readings have been.
    2. Check the finger sensor's position and repeat the test.
  87. The clinic nurse notes that, after several eye examinations, the health care provider has documented a diagnosis of legal blindness in a client's chart. The nurse reviews the results of the Snellen chart test, expecting to note which finding? 
    1. 20/20 vision 
    2. 20/40 vision 
    3. 20/60 vision 
    4. 20/200 vision
    4. 20/200 vision
  88. A client is scheduled to have a needle liver biopsy. During the procedure, the nurse should instruct the client to take which action? 
    1. Lie on the right side. 
    2. Assume a lithotomy position. 
    3. Breathe deeply as the needle is inserted. 
    4. Lie supine with the right arm over the head.
    4. Lie supine with the right arm over the head.
  89. A client returns to the nursing unit after undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? 
    1. Allow the client to have bathroom privileges. 
    2. Keep the client lying flat in bed in the supine position. 
    3. Withhold oral fluids until the client's gag reflex has returned. 
    4. Tell the client to report a sore throat immediately, because it is a serious complication.
    3. Withhold oral fluids until the client's gag reflex has returned.
  90. A nurse is assisting the health care provider during a colonoscopy procedure. The nurse helps the client to assume which position for the procedure? 
    1. Left Sims 
    2. Lithotomy 
    3. Knee chest 
    4. Right Sims
    1. Left Sims
  91. A client is scheduled for oral cholecystography. For the evening meal prior to the test, the nurse should provide a list of foods from which diet type? 
    1. Liquid 
    2. Fat-free 
    3. Low-protein 
    4. High-carbohydrate
    2. Fat-free
  92. A nurse has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. The nurse is demonstrating correct procedure when which technique is performed? 
    1. Ask the client to void, save the specimen, and note the start time. 
    2. Place the specimen in various containers as necessary for the test. 
    3. Ask the client to save a sample voided at the end of the collection time. 
    4. Remove urine from the collection container for other prescribed specimens.
    3. Ask the client to save a sample voided at the end of the collection time.
  93. A client is being scheduled for a positron emission tomography (PET) scan of the brain. The nurse should provide which explanation to the client? 
    1. "The test uses magnetic fields to produce images." 
    2. "The test provides cross-sectional views of the brain." 
    3. "The test detects abnormal glucose metabolism in the brain." 
    4. "The test views bones of the skull, nasal sinuses, and vertebrae."
    3. "The test detects abnormal glucose metabolism in the brain."
  94. A nurse explaining the procedure of indium imaging to a client with a bone infection should include which information? 
    1. Indium is injected into the bloodstream and collects in normal bone but not in infected areas. 
    2. Indium is injected into the bloodstream and outlines the extent of the blood supply to the bone. 
    3. Some of the client's red blood cells are tagged with indium, which will later accumulate in normal bone. 
    4. Some of the client's white blood cells are tagged with indium, which will later accumulate in infected bone.
    4. Some of the client's white blood cells are tagged with indium, which will later accumulate in infected bone.
  95. A sweat test is performed on an infant with a suspected diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF). The nurse reviews the results of the test and notes that the chloride level is 40 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret this finding? 
    1. A negative test 
    2. A positive test 
    3. Suggestive of CF 
    4. An unrelated finding
    3. Suggestive of CF
  96. The nurse reviews the health care provider's prescriptions for a child with a streptococcal infection. The health care provider prescribes an antistreptolysin O titer. Based on this prescription, which diagnosis should the nurse suspect in the child? 
    1. Heart failure (CHF) 
    2. Rheumatic fever (RF) 
    3. Aortic valve disease (AVD) 
    4. Pulmonic valve disease (PVD)
    2. Rheumatic fever (RF)
  97. A client has just returned from the cardiac catheterization laboratory. The left-sided femoral vessel was used as the access site. How should the nurse position the client? 
    1. Knee-chest, with the foot of the bed elevated 
    2. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees 
    3. Semi-Fowler's, with the knees placed on top of one pillow 
    4. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated at about 15 degrees
    4. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated at about 15 degrees
  98. The nurse is assisting the health care provider with a bedside liver biopsy. When the procedure is complete, the nurse assists the client into which position? 
    1. Left side-lying, with the right-sided arm elevated above the head 
    2. Right side-lying, with the left-sided arm elevated above the head 
    3. Left side-lying, with a small pillow or towel under the puncture site 
    4. Right side-lying, with a small pillow or towel under the puncture site
    4. Right side-lying, with a small pillow or towel under the puncture site
  99. The client with right-sided pleural effusion by chest x-ray is being prepared for a thoracentesis. The nurse should assist the client to which position for the procedure? 
    1. Sims position, with the head of the bed flat 
    2. Prone, with the head turned to the side supported by a pillow 
    3. Left side-lying position, with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees 
    4. Right side-lying position, with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
    3. Left side-lying position, with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
  100. A client is about to undergo a lumbar puncture (LP). Which position should the nurse tell the client will be used during the procedure? 
    1. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen 
    2. Prone, in a slight Trendelenburg's position 
    3. Side-lying position, with a pillow under the lower back, hip and knees 
    4. Side-lying position, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest
    4. Side-lying position, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest
  101. A nurse is providing directions to a client about how to test a stool for occult blood. The nurse cautions the client that which could cause a false-negative result? 
    1. Iodine 
    2. Colchicine 
    3. Ascorbic acid 
    4. Acetylsalicylic acid
    3. Ascorbic acid
  102. A nurse is caring for a client with a peptic ulcer who has just had an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which client problem should be the priority? 
    1. Risk for dehydration caused by bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract 
    2. Risk for choking and aspiration related to a poor gag reflex post-procedure 
    3. Lack of knowledge of post-procedure care related to not having had an EGD before 
    4. Sore throat related to passage of the endoscope through the pharyngeal region during EGD
    2. Risk for choking and aspiration related to a poor gag reflex post-procedure
  103. A nurse is evaluating the licensed practical nurse's ability to collect a specimen. The nurse would use this specimen collection container to collect which type of specimen?
    Image Upload 2
    1. Urine 
    2. Stool 
    3. Gastric secretions 
    4. Respiratory secretions
    4. Respiratory secretions
Author
nursedaisy98
ID
256717
Card Set
Fundamental Skills - Diagnostic Tests
Description
Diagnostic Tests
Updated