nasm

  1. Approximately, what percentage of adults are estimated to be obese, and what percentage of teenagers are considered to be overweight?
    • one-third or 33.4% of adults.
    • 16% of teenagers
  2. How many anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries occur annually in the u.s.?
    80,000 - 100,000
  3. Most ACL injuries occur between which years of age?
    15-25 years of age
  4. What percentage of people 65 and older have at least one chronic condition? What percentage have two?
    • 80%
    • 50%
  5. What is one major form of musculoskeletal degeneration seen in the adult population, afecting nearly 80% of all adults?
    Low back pain
  6. Which are the fastest growing age groups among health club members?
    • 55 and older
    • 18 and under
  7. Define deconditioned
    A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.
  8. The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement is the definition of what?
    Proprioception
  9. Proprioceptively enriched enironment is_________.
    An unstable (yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.
  10. Define phases of training:
    Smaller divisions of training progressions that fall within the three building blocks of training.
  11. Muscular endurance is a muscles ability to ________for and extended period of time.
    contract
  12. The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion is an explanation of what?
    Neuromuscular efficiency
  13. The muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power is?
    The prime mover
  14. What is a superset?
    Set of two exercises that are performed back to back without any rest time between them
  15. What are the 3 building blocks of training within the OPT model?
    • Stabilization
    • Strength
    • Power
  16. What are the different phases of training within the OPT building blocks?
    • Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance Training
    • Phase 2: Strength Endurance Trainiing
    • Phase 3: Hypertrophy Training
    • Phase 4: Maximum strength training
    • Phase 5: Power training
  17. What do you call how quickly a muscle can generate force?
    Rate of force production
  18. Define kinetic chain
    The combination and interrelation of the nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems.
  19. What is the communication network within the body known as?
    Nervous system
  20. Matching:

    1.The ability of the nervous systme to sense changes in either the internal or external environment.
    2.The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces the appropriate response.
    3.The neuro muscular response to the sensory information.

    A.Integrative function
    B.Motor function
    C.Sensory function
    • 1.C
    • 2.A
    • 3.B
  21. Name the functional unit of the nervous system.
    Neuron
  22. What type of neurons transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord?
    Sensory (afferent) neurons
  23. What type of neurons transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites?
    Motor (efferent) neurons
  24. What type of neurons transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another?
    Interneurons
  25. What are the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system? What are they composed of?
    • Central Nervous System: composed of the brain and spinal cord.
    • Peripheral nervous system: Cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body.
  26. Which are the sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues?
    Mechanoreceptors
  27. Which are the receptors sensitive o change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change?
    Muscle spindles
  28. Which are the receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change
    Golgi tendon organs
  29. Which are the receptors that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint.
    Joint receptors
  30. The skeletal system is the bodys framework, composed of ____and____.
    bones and joints
  31. What do bones do?
    Provide a resting ground for muscles and protection of vital organs.
  32. Define joints
    The movable junction where two or more bones meet.
  33. Which portion of the skeletal systmem that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column?
    Axial skeleton
  34. Which portion of the skeletal system includes the upper and lower extremities?
    Appendicular skeleton
  35. A flattened or indented portion of bone, which can be a muscle attachment site is known as a?
    depression
  36. A projection protruding from the bone where muscles, tendons, and ligaments can attach is a?
    Process
  37. What is joint motion referred to as?
    Arthrokinematics
  38. Which type of joints are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are most associated with movement in the body?
    Synovial joints
  39. Which type of joints do not have a joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage?
    Nonsynovial joints
  40. What is the primary connective tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance, and the limitation of improper joint movement?
    Ligament
  41. What are the series of muscles that move the skeleton?
    muscular system
  42. What are connective tissues that attach muscle to bone and provide an anchor for muscles to produce force?
    tendons
  43. What is the functional unit of muscle that produces muscular contraction and consists of repeating sections of actin and myosin?
    sarcomere
  44. The contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation is?
    neural activation
  45. What is a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates?
    motor unit
  46. What are chemical messengers that cross synapses to transmit electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle?
    neurotransmitter
  47. Name the system that is composed of the cardiovascular and repiratory systems.
    cardiorespiratory system
  48. Name the system that is composed of the heart, blood, and blood vessels.
    cardiovascular system
  49. A hollow muscular organ that pumps a circulation of blood through the body by means of rhythmic contraction is the?
    heart
  50. What is the space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs of the ches, except the lungs?
    mediastinum
  51. Which is the superior chamber of the heart that receives blood from the veins and forces it into the ventricles?
    atrium
  52. Which is the inferior chamber of the heart that receives blood from its corresponding atrium and, in turn, forces blood into the arteries?
    ventricle
  53. What is the fluid that circulates in the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins, which carries nutrients and oxygen to all parts of the body and also rids the body of waste products?
    blood
  54. What are the network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout the body?
    blood vessels
  55. Which are the vessels that carry blood away from the heart?
    arteries
  56. Which are the vessels that carry blood from the capillaries toward the heart?
    veins
  57. What is the name of the small terminal branches of an artery, which end in capillaries?
    arterioles
  58. What are the name of the smallest blood vessels, which connect venules with arterioles?
    capillaries
  59. Which are the very small veins that connect capillaries to the larger veins?
    venules
  60. Which is the system of organs (the lungs and respiratory passageways) that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the blood stream?
    respiratory system
  61. What is the process of actively contracting inspiratory muscles to move air into the body?
    inspiration
  62. What is the process of actively or passively relaxing inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body?
    expiration
  63. define aerobic
    requires oxygen
  64. define anaerobic
    does not reqquire oxygen
  65. What is the biology of energy transformations and exchanges within the body, and between it and the environment?
    bioenergetics
  66. Which is the cellular structure that supplies energy for many biochemical cellular processess by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis?
    adenosine triphosphate (atp)
  67. What is the study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively strudy how force interact within a living body?
    biomechanics
  68. Define superior
    positioned above a point of reference
  69. define inferior
    positioned below a point of reference
  70. define proximal
    positioned nearest the center of the body, or point of reference
  71. define distal
    positioned farthest from the center of the body or point of reference
  72. define anterior (or ventral)
    on the front of the body
  73. define posterior (or dorsal)
    on the back of the body
  74. define medial
    positioned near the middle of the body
  75. define lateral
    toward the outside of the body
  76. define contralateral
    positioned on the opposite side of the body
  77. define ipsilateral
    positioned on the same side of the body
  78. What is the imaginaryy bisector that divides the body into left and right halves?
    sagittal plane
  79. What is the bending of a joint, causing the angle to the joint to decrease known as?
    flexion
  80. What is the straightening of a joint, causing the angel to the joint to increase is known as?
    extension
  81. What is the imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves?
    frontal plane
  82. What is the movement of a body part away from the middle of the body?
    abduction
  83. What is the movement of a body part toward the middle of the body
    adduction
  84. What is the imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves?
    transverse plane
  85. What is rotation of a joint toward the middle of the body known as?
    internal rotation
  86. What is rotation of a joint away from the middle of the body known as?
    external rotation
  87. What is a muscle maintaining a certain length known as?
    isometric contraction
  88. What is a concentric contraction?
    the shortening of a muscle
  89. An influence applied by one object to another whick results in an acceleration or deceleration of the second object is an explanation of what?
    force
  90. The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force is
    length tension relationship
  91. What are muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint?
    force couple
  92. What is rotary motion?
    movement of the bones around the joints
  93. A force that produce rotation is?
    torque
  94. What is the sudy of posture and movement and the involved structrues and mechansisms that the central nervous system uses to assimilate and integrate sensory info with previous experiences?
    motor control
  95. What are groups of muscles that are recruited by the central nervous system to provide movement?
    synergies
  96. What is the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sese position and limb movements?
    proprioception
  97. What is the cooperation of the nervous and muscular system in gathering information, interpreting, and executing movement known as ?
    sensorimotor integration
  98. What is the repeated practice of motor control processes, which lead to a change in the ability to produce complex movement?
    motor learning
  99. What is the use of sensory information and sensorimotor integration to help the kinetic chain in motor learning known as?
    feedback
  100. What is the process whereby sensory information is used by the body to reactively monitor movement and the environment?
    internal feedback
  101. What is information provided by some external source, such as a health and fitness professional, videotape, mirror, or heart rate montior to supplement the internal environment known as?
    external feedback
  102. What is measurable data about a clients physical state such as body composition, movement and caridovascular ability known as?
    objective information
  103. The alignement and fuction of all components of the kinetic chain at any given moment is referring to your?
    posture
  104. What is the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support known as?
    structural efficiency
  105. What the ability of the neuromuscular system to monitor and manipulate movement during functional tasks using the least amount of energy, creating the least amount of stress on the kinetic chain known as?
    functional efficiency
  106. Maintaining a state of ballance in the alignment of the kinetic chain is called?
    postural equilibrium
  107. The ability of the nervous system to communicate effectively with the muscular system is called?
    neuromuscular efficiency
  108. The ability of the neuromuscular system to contaract eccentrically, isometrically, and concentrically in all three planes of motion is known as?
    functional strength
  109. What are predictable occurrences of muscle imbalances caused by altered movement patterns?
    postural distortion patterns
  110. What is the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of ajoint called?
    flexibility
  111. What is the capability to be elongated or stretched called?
    extensibility
  112. The combination of flexibility and the nervous systems ability to control this range of motion efficiently in known as?
    dynamic range of motion
  113. What is the ability of the neuromuscluar system to allow agonists, antagonists, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion called?
    neuromuscular efficiency
  114. The multiplanar soft tissue extensibility with optiomal neuromuscular efficinecy throughout the full range of motion is known as?
    dynamic functional flexibility
  115. What are predictable patterns of muscle imbalances?
    postural distortion patterns
  116. The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is?
    relative flexibility
  117. What is alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint known as?
    muscle imbalance
  118. The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist is?
    altered reciprocal inhibition
  119. The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscle take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover is?
    synergistic dominance
  120. What are altered forces at the joint that result in abnormal muscular activity and impaired neuromuscular communication at the joint?
    arthrokinetic dysfunction
  121. What is a fitness assessment?
    A systematic problem solving method that helps the fitness professional make educated decisions about exercise and acute variable selection.
  122. A fitness assessment is not designed to diagnose any medical issues but rather to assess _____and _____status.
    • structural
    • functional
  123. What are the observation methods a fitness pro can use when conducting a fitness assessment to obtain a balanced overview of the client?
    • subjective information
    • objective information
  124. Gathering information on personal history, occupation, lifestyle, and medical background on prospective client would be gathering what sort of info?
    subjective
  125. What is the name of the questionnaire used to help gather subjective info for a prospective client and what is it designed for?
    • PAR-Q: Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
    • Designed to help qualify a person for low to moderate to high activity levels.
  126. What is objective info?
    forms of measurable data
  127. What are the categories of objective info?
    • Physiological assessments
    • Body composition assessments
    • Cardiorespiratory assessments
    • Movement assessments
    • Performance assessmetns
  128. How do you get the training heart rate zones of a client?
    • 1. Get the max heart rate zone by subtracting age from 220
    • 2. Multiply max heart zone by appropriate intensity level (65-90%)
  129. What training heart rate zone is 65-75% of max heart rate?
    zone 1
  130. What training heart rate zone is 80-85% of max heart rate?
    zone 2
  131. What training heart rate zone is 86-90% of max heart rate?
    zone 3
  132. What is a clients zone 1 training heart rate zone if the client is 31?
    • 220-31=189x.65=123
    • 189x.75=142
  133. When refering to blood pressure the systolic reading is what?
    • The pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body.
    • Normal systolic pressure ranges from 120-130 mmg
  134. What is diastolic pressure?
    • Signifies the min pressure within the arteries through a full cadiac cycle
    • Normal pressure ranges from 80-85 mmg
  135. What is blood pressure measured with?
    sphygmomanometer
  136. What is one of the most important pieces of info that can be obtained by a health and fitness pro?
    starting body fat percentage
  137. What does nasm use to measure body fat percentage?
    durnin formula
  138. Where are the durnin formulas four sight skin fold measurments taken?
    • bicep
    • tricep
    • subscapular
    • iliac crest
  139. When taking measurements for the durnin formula, they all should be taken on what side and why?
    • right
    • standardization
  140. After the four sights of skin fold measurements for the durnin formula have been taken, what should you do?
    • add the total in mm
    • find the appropriate age and gender category for body compostion on the durnin/wormersley body fat % calculation table
  141. How is a neck measurment taken?
    Align the tape directly across the adams apple
  142. How is a chest measurement taken?
    Tape across the nipple line or upper chest for women
  143. How is a waist measurment taken?
    • At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones
    • If there is no apparent narrowing of the waist, mesure at the naval.
  144. How is hips measurement taken?
    with feet together, at the widest portion of the buttocks
  145. How is a thigh measurement taken?
    postion tape 10in above the top of the patella
  146. How is a calf measurement taken?
    at the maximal circumference between the ankle and the knee
  147. How is and arm measurement taken?
    At the maximal circumference of the biceps, measure with arm extended, palm facing forward
  148. What are two common forms of assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency?
    • three-min step test
    • rock port walk test
  149. How is the 3 min step test performed?
    • 1.get training heart rate zones
    • 2.perform a 3min step test by having client do 24steps per min on an 18in step(may have to be lowered). rest 1 min then measure pules for 30sec and record # as recovery pulse. Take pulse and multiply by 5.6, take duration (180sec) multiply by 100, take that # and divide it by pulse x 5.6 result
    • 3. Find the result on the chart to see where the client ranks.
    • 4. Determine which zone client will start in.
  150. After performing a 3min step test your clients recovery pulse is 75, which zone should you start him in?
    • 75x5.6=420
    • 180x100=18000
    • 18000/420=43
    • Fair score
    • zone 1
  151. How do you perform the rockport test?
    • 1.training heart rate zones
    • 2.Record weight, walk 1mile as fast as he can control, record time, record heart rate, determine vo2 score
    • 3. Take that score and plug it into the chart to see fitness level then determine which zone to start.
  152. determine a vo2 score for a client that is 200lbs,male,45yrs old with a heart rate of 165 after rockport test which took 15 min to complete
    132.853-(0.0769x200)-(0.3877x45)+(6.315x1)-(3.2649x15)-(.1565x165)=33
  153. The alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain at any give moment is?
    posture
  154. What is the main purpose of proper posture?
    to maintain enough structural efficiency to overcome constant forces placed upon the body.
  155. what is often the quickest way to gain an overall impression of a cients functional status?
    dynamic postural observations
  156. Which movement observation assessment is designed to assess dynamic flexibbility on both sides of the body as well as integrated total body strength?
    overhead squat assessment
  157. During an overhead squat assessment what movement impairment would be indicative of muscle imbalances?
    • Anterior view: Feet-turn out, knees-move inward
    • Lateral view: LumboPelvicHip Complex-low back arches-excessive forward lean, Shoulder complex-arms fall forward
  158. During a single leg squat assessment what movement impairment would be indivative of muscle imbalances in the core and lower extremities?
    anterior view: knee-moves inward
  159. During a pushing assessment what movement impairments are you looking for?
    • lumbo pelvic hip comolex-low back arches
    • shoulder complex-shoulders elevate
    • head-head protrudes forward
  160. What does a performance assessment assess?
    • upper extremity stability
    • lower extremity agility
    • overall strength
  161. What are some basic performance assessment tests?
    • davies test
    • shark skill test
    • bench press strength
    • squat assessment
  162. What is a davies test designed to assess?
    upper extremity agility and stability
  163. What is the cardiovascular system comprised of?
    • heart
    • blood heart pumps
    • blood vessels
  164. What are the left and right atriums of the heart and what do they do?
    • smaller chambers, located superiorly on either side of the heart
    • gather blood coming to the heart
    • right atrim gathers deoxygeniated blood returning to the heart from the body
    • left atrium gathers reoxygeniated blood coming to the heart from the lungs
  165. What are the left and right ventricles of the heart and what do they do?
    • larger chambers of heart located inferioily on either side
    • main pumps of heart
    • right ventricle recieves deowxygenated blood from right atrium and then blood is pumped to the lungs to be saturated with incoming oxygen
    • left ventricle recieves oxygenated blood from left atium and the proceeds to pump it to body
  166. What is the amount of blood that is pumped out with each contraction of a ventricle known as?
    stroke volume
  167. What is the stroke volume of a typical adult?
    75-80ml per beat
  168. The heart rate and stroke volume make up the overall performance of the heart, what is it know as?
    caridac output
  169. What are the two respiratory passageways?
    • conduction passageway:nasal and oral cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi
    • respiratory passageway: recieves air from conduction passageway to the bronchiole to the alveoli which takes oxygen into body through diffusion
  170. oxygen is the necessary catalyst when substaing many bodily functions when activity is prolonged for periods greater than ________
    30secs
  171. When performing short bursts of excersise the body uses atp or creating phosphate as energy
    true
  172. structure allows for and provides the basis for _______
    function
  173. All movement is dictated by the _____
    nervous system
  174. the neuron is comprised of what three main parts?
    • The cell body: which houses the cell organelles(nucleus,mytochondria,golgi complex)
    • The axion which provides communication from the brain to other parts of the body
    • The dendrites which are responsible for gathering info from other parts of the body.
  175. the peripehral nervous system consists of ___cranial nerves, ___spinal nerves, and ___receptors
    • 12
    • 31
    • sensory
  176. What are the four major catergories that sensory receptors can be divided into?
    • mechanoreceptors: respond to mechanical forces
    • nociceptors: respond to pain
    • chemoreceptors: respond to chemical interactions
    • photoreceptors: respond to light
  177. What are the 3 major joint moition types?
    • roll
    • slide
    • spin
  178. what are some of the methods a muscle contracts and generates force?
    neural activation, sliding filiament theory,excitation contraction coupling
  179. What are the different types of mucscle fiber?
    • type I slow twitch
    • type II fast
  180. What are some charcteristics of type 1 sloww twitch muscle fibers?
    • increased oxygen delivery
    • smaller in size
    • produce less force
    • resistant to fatigue
    • important for long term contractions (stabilization/postural)
  181. What are some characteristics of type 2 fast twitch muscle fibers?
    • decreased oxygen delivery
    • larger in size
    • produce more force
    • quick to fatigue
    • shrt term contractions
    • power force
  182. What are agonist mucles?
    • prime movers
    • most responsible for a particular movement
    • ex.glutes are a agonist for hip ext
  183. What are synergist muscles?
    • assist prime movers during movement
    • ex. erector spinae and hamstring are synergistic with glutes for hip ext
  184. What stabilizer muscles?
    support while rime and synergists perform movement
  185. What are antagonist muscles?
    • opposite action of prime mover
    • ex. psoas is antagonistic to the glutes during hip ext
  186. What is the process when neural impulses that sense tension is greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
    autogenic inhibition
  187. Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body is called?
    pattern overload
  188. What is the law that states that soft tissue models along the lines of stress?
    davies law
  189. What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a min of 20secs called?
    static stretching
  190. What is the process of using agonists and synergist to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion called?
    active isolated stretch
  191. What is the active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion called?
    dynamic stretch
  192. What is training that involves and places a stress on the cardiorepiratory system called?
    integrated cardiorespiratory training
  193. What is low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily rlate to the more intense exercise that is to follow called?
    general warm up
  194. What is low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow called?
    specific warm up
  195. What is the number of training sessions in a given timeframe known as?
    frequency
  196. What the level of demand that given activity place on the body known as?
    intensity
  197. What is the length of time and individual is engaged in given activity known as?
    time
  198. What is EPOC?
    Exess postexercise oxygen: elavaton of the bodys metabolism after exercise
  199. The lumbo pelvic hip complex and the thoracic and cervical spine, where the bodys center of gravity is located is the?
    core
  200. What is the action of pulling the belly button in toward the spine called?
    drawing in maneuver
  201. What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchornization withing a muscle called?
    intramuscular coordination
  202. What the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them called?
    intermuscular coordination
  203. What is the ability of the kinetic chain to stabilize a joint during movement called?
    dynamic joint stabilization
  204. What is a training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechanoreceptors called?
    multisensory condition
  205. What is a training environment that is as unstable as can safely be controlled by and individual called?
    controlled instability
  206. Which are exercises that use quick, powerful movement involving and eccentric contaction immediately followed by and expolsive concentric contration called?
    reactive training
  207. What is the paradigm that states, to move with efficiency, forces must be reduces 8eccentreically), stabiized (isometrically), and then produced (concentreically) known as?
    integrated performance paradigm
  208. What is the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible called?
    speed
  209. What is the ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture called?
    agility
  210. What the ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production, in a planes of motion, from all body positions, during functional activities called?
    quickness
  211. What is the kinetic chains ability to adpat to stresses placed on it called?
    general adaptation syndrome
  212. The initial reaction to a stressor i's
    the alarm reaction
  213. The body increasing its functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is known as?
    resistance development
  214. What is prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system is known as?
    exhaustion
  215. What is the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages called?
    periodization
  216. What is the principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it called?
    principle of specificity or specific adaptation to imposed demands (said principle)
  217. What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
    mechanical specificity
  218. What refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection?
    neromuscular specificity
  219. What refers to the enrgy demand placed on the body?
    metabolic specificity
  220. What is the ability of the neromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome and external force known as?
    strength
  221. What is the ability of the body to produce low levels of force and maintain them for extended periods called?
    muscular endurance
  222. What is the ability of the body to maintain postual equiliibrium and support joints during movement known as?
    stability
  223. What is the ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods calle?
    strength endurance
  224. What is the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension known as?
    hypertrophy
  225. What the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, volumtary effort, regardless of velocity called?
    maximal strength
  226. What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortes time known as?
    power
  227. What resistance traininig system alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity?
    vertical loading
  228. What resistance training system performs all sets on an exercise or body part befor moving on to the next exercse or body part?
    horizontal loading
  229. What is one complete movement of a single exercise called?
    rep, repetition
  230. What is a group of consecurtive repetitions called?
    set
  231. What is an individuals level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usally expressed as a percentage known as?
    training intensity
  232. What is the amount of physical training performed within a specidfied period known as?
    training volume
  233. What is the condition of subcutaneous fat exceeding the amount of lean body mass known as?
    obesity
  234. What is the chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insuling deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhaces usage of fat and protein?
    diabetes
  235. What condition is it when raised sytemic arerial blood pressure, which if sustained at a high enough level, is likely to induce cardiovascular or end organ damge?
    hypertension
  236. What is a decrease in the calcification or density of bone as well as reduced bone mass nown as?
    osteopenia
  237. Whats the condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the spece beween bones, reluting in porosity and fragility?
    osteoporosis
  238. What is chronic inflammatin of the joints known as?
    arthritis
  239. What is arthritis in which carilage becomes soft, frayed, or thins out, as a result of trauma or other conditions known as?
    osteoarthritis
  240. What arthritis primarily affects connective tissues, in which there is a thickening of articlular soft tissue, and extension of synovial tissue over articular carilages that have become eroded?
    rheumatoid arthritis
  241. What is the condition of a fibrous lung tissue, which resllts in decreased ability to expand the lungs called?
    restrictive lung disease
  242. What is the condition of altered air flow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucs production called?
    obstructive lung disease
  243. What is the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease?
    intermittent claudication
  244. What is the condition characterized by narrowing of the major areries that are reponsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities called?
    peripheral arterial disease
  245. What is the sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substance calleds?
    nutrition
  246. What are amino acids linked by peptide bonds?
    protein
  247. What are the neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen such as sugars, starched, and celluloses, which make up a large portion of animal foods?
    carbs
  248. What is a grop of compounds that includes triglycerides (fats, and oils), phospholipids and sterols?
    lipids
  249. What is a substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake?
    dietary supplement
  250. What is a method of asking questions on a step by step basis to discover the initail cause of a fault?
    root cause analysis
  251. What is the aspect of a relationship characterized by similarity, agreement, or congruity?
    rapport
  252. What is the action of awareness, understanding and sensitivity of the thoughts, emotions, and experience of another without personally having gone through the same?
    empathy
  253. What is the process of determining the importance, size, or value of smoething?
    assessment
Author
apeezy
ID
98736
Card Set
nasm
Description
ch.1
Updated