Misc NBDE Test.txt

Arthus Reaction

Which of the following drugs is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?A) StilbamidineB) AcyclovirC) AmantadineD) Amphotericin BE) Griseofulvin

Which of the following positions would yield the smallest measurement of vertical dimension?
A) Edge-to-edge
B) Reverse overlap
C) Maximum intercuspation
D) Retruded contact

Fordyce's granules/spots in mucous membrane of cheek

Moving the mandible from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact position usually results in

A) decreased vertical overlap.
B) increased occlusal vertical dimension.
C) increased horizontal overlap.
D) all of these.

Which of the following characterizes the alveolar bone proper of a tooth socket?
A) It serves to attach free gingival periodontal ligament fibers, and is a part of the total tooth attachment apparatus.
B) It consists of compact bone, shows dark on a radiograph, and contains Sharpey's fibers.
C) It resorbs when subjected to pressure, and contains numerous openings through which vessels pass.
D) It contains haversian systems, has collagen fibers in its matrix, and is about 96 per cent inorganic salts.

A broad, flat facet existing on the outer aspect of the mesiolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar, and running in a mesiolingual to distofacial direction, was probably caused by which of the following contacting movements?


A) Protrusive
B) Lateral protrusive
C) Non-working
D) Working

Which of the following premolars has a mesial marginal ridge that is more cervically located than its distal marginal ridge?
A) Mandibular second
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Maxillary first

During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce

A) histamine.
B) antibodies.
C) none of these.
D) lymphokines.
E) leukotrienes.

Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of
A) Bacteroides species
B) Entamoeba gingivalis.
C) Leptothrix buccalis.
D) Streptococcus faecalis.
E) Veillonella alcalescens.

The spacing between anterior teeth in the primary dentition is most frequently caused by
A) the pressure from succedaneous teeth.
B) thumb-sucking.
C) tongue thrusting.
D) the growth of the dental arches.

The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is the
A) permanent mandibular first molar.
B) maxillary central incisor.
C) primary mandibular first molar.
D) primary mandibular central incisor.
E) permanent mandibular central incisor.

The cervical line on adult teeth has the greatest depth of curvature toward the incisal on the
A) facial aspect.
B) distal aspect.
C) mesial aspect.
D) dentinoenamel junction.
E) lingual aspect.

Behcet's Syndrome

Which of the following enteric microorganisms is NOT typically found in normal human intestinal flora?A) Salmonella typhi
B) Bacteroides fragilis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Proteus vulgaris

In a longitudinal section of a premolar crown, the enamel is thickest in the

A) occlusal third.
B) middle third.
C) cervical third.
D) junction of the cervical and middle thirds.

The type of infection most commonly transmitted by transfusion of properly screened blood is
A) type A hepatitis.
B) non-A non-B hepatitis.
C) type B hepatitis.
D) cytomegalovirus.

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle as a whole and is synonymous with the gross anatomic deep fascia is the

A) periosteum.B) perimysium.C) perichondrium.D) endomysium.E) epimysium.

Salivary, sweat, sebaceous, and von Ebner's glands all have in common the characteristic of being

A) exocrine.B) simple.C) holocrine.D) merocrine.E) compound.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the cusp tip of a permanent maxillary canine should contact
A) the mandibular lateral incisor only.
B) no other tooth.
C) the mandibular canine only.
D) the mandibular first premolar only.
E) both mandibular canine and first premolar.

Which of the following primary teeth has the smallest faciolingual dimension of its crown?
A) Maxillary canine
B) Mandibular lateral incisor
C) Maxillary lateral incisor
D) Mandibular central incisor

The lingual height of contour on a permanent mandibular second molar is located

A) in the middle third.
B) in the cervical third.
C) at the junction of the middle and occlusal thirds.
D) in the occlusal third.
E) at the junction of the cervical and middle thirds.

Connective tissue proper is characterized as having
A) more intercellular material than cells.
B) little tissue fluid.
C) sensitivity as its main function.
D) poor reparative ability.

Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to which of the following nerves?

A) FacialB) TrigeminalC) OpticD) Auditory

The non-working pathway of the maxillary cusps on the mandibular posterior teeth is toward the


A) mesiofacial.
B) distofacial.
C) mesiolingual.
D) distolingual.

Properdin

Proprioceptors are found in each of the following EXCEPT
A) the periodontal ligament
B) gingiva.
C) the temporomandibular joint.
D) the pulp of a tooth.
E) skeletal muscle.

Which of the following permanent incisors most frequently have concave areas on both mesial and distal root surfaces?

(a) Maxillary central; (b) Mandibular central; (c) Maxillary lateral; (d) Mandibular lateral

In a patient with a left canine protection, the mesiolingual surface of the maxillary right first molar contacts the distofacial surface of the mandibular right first molar during a left lateral excursion. This contact is
A) evidence of group function.
B) a non-working side interference.
C) a working side interference.
D) normal.
E) normal, and a non-working side interference.

In an ideal permanent tooth relationship, the tip of a mandibular canine in lateral excursion passes
A) through the embrasure between the maxillary canine and first premolar.
B) directly in line with the maxillary canine cusp tip.
C) distal to the tip of the maxillary canine cusp.
D) mesial to the tip of the maxillary canine cusp.

Salivary gland striated ducts are composed of which of the following types of epithelium?

A) Psuedostratified ciliated columnar
B) Simple cuboidal
C) Simple low columnar
D) Stratified squamous
E) Simple squamous

It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of
A) muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
B) smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
C) mucosal glands in the stomach only.
D) submucosal glands in the duodenum only.
E) simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only.

In a dry-heat oven, which of the following temperatures is aufficient for achieving sterilization in 1-2 hours?

A) 160oC
B) 121oC
C) 100oC
D) 81oC

The MOST important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 old is
A) coxsackievirus.
B) cytomegalovirus.
C) echovirus.
D) rotavirus.
E) rhinovirus.

Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that both

A) are prevented by vaccinations.
B) are potentially teratogenic.
C) can not be treated with antibiotics.
D) primarily affect the elderly.
E) have non-human animal reservoirs

The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which of the following?

A) Abundance of zymogen granules
B) Abundance of mitochondria
C) Large amount of DNA
D) Abundance of lipid droplets
E) Abundance of ribosomes

What is the composition of saliva?

Which of the following BEST characterizes the alveolar mucous membrane?

A) Separated from the gingiva by the free gingival groove
B) Firmly bound to underlying bone
C) Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium
D) Has no melanocytes
E) Well developed epithelial ridges

The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by
A) hemophilus influenzae.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
D) herpes simplex virus.
E) a variety of viruses.

A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of tuberculate chlamydospores in culture is
A) Actinomyces israelii.
B) Mycoplasma hominis.
C) Leptospira pomona.
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Microsponum cants.

Each of the following is a risk factor in atherosclerosis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hyperlipoproteinemia
C) Heredity
D) Alcoholism
E) Hypertension

Cementum differs from dentin in that cementum

A) can contain cells, whereas dentin contains cells as well as cell processes.
B) is not formed following eruption of the tooth.
C) contains more inorganic material than dentin.
D) contains some elastic fibers, whereas dentin contains only collagenous fibers.
E) is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells

Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells, degenerative changes in the brain, and a greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the cornea characterize which of the following?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Wilson's disease
E) Galactosemia

Which of the following represents the major pathway for metabolism of excessive intraneuronal free norepinephrine?

A) Hydroxylation by dopamine beta hydroxylase
B) Hydrolysis by cholinesterase
C) Hydroxylation by monoamine oxidase
D) Deamination by monoamine oxidase
E) Methylation by catechol-0-methyl transferase

A subject consumes 250 ml of oxygen per minute with a tidal volume of 400 ml and a respiratory rate of 18 per minute. Which of the following represents this subject's respiratory minute volume in liters?
A) 5.4
B) 7.2
C) 10.0
D) 1.8
E) 4.5

Which of the following types of tissues can be demonstrated on the posterior slope of the articular eminence?A) Fibrocartilage
B) Fibrous connective tissue
C) Elastic cartilage
D) Hyaline cartilage
E) Articular cartilage

MOST fluid reabsorption by the kidney occurs in which of the following?
A) Descending loop of Henle
B) Collecting duct
C) Proximal tubule
D) Ascending loop of Henle
E) Distal tubule

A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Hepatic insufficiency
B) Secondary thrombocytopenia
C) Acute leukemia
D) Renal insufficiency
E) Scurvy

The finding of yeast cells and chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggest which of the following?

A) Blastomyces denmatitidis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
E) Candida albicans

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in its

A) streptolysin S.
B) M protein.
C) streptolysin 0.
D) C polysaccharide.
E) hyaluronic acid capsule.

Which of the following are MOST antigenic?
A) Haptens
B) Proteins
C) Lipids
D) Carbohydrates
E) Nucleic acids

Which of the following represents a DNA gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of activity?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Polymyxin
C) Rifampicin
D) Cycloserine
E) Ethambutol

A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He appears to have a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This child has which of the following?


A) Chickenpox
B) Eczema
C) Scarlet fever
D) Measles

What condylar movement is performed as the mandible moves from a pure protrusive movement from maximum intercuspal position to a maximum protruded position?
A) Rotation
B) Hinge
C) Translation
D) Medial and forward

The absolute refractory period of a nerve action potential is determined by the duration of which of the following?
A) Potassium inactivation gate closure
B) Sodium inactivation gate closure
C) Sodium activation gate opening
D) Potassium activation gate opening

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the oblique ridge of the maxillary first molar opposes which structure of the mandibular molar?
A) The developmental groove between the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of the first
B) The developmental groove between the mesiofacial and distofacial cusps of the first
C) The interproximal area between first and second
D) The developmental groove between the distofacial and distal cusps of the first

In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone marrow suppression, the peripheral blood smear shows erythrocytes to be
A) hypochromic - normocytic.
B) normochromic- microcytic.
C) hyperchromic - macrocytic.
D) normochromic- normocytic.
E) hypochromic - microcytic.

In protrusive movement, the mandibular canines in a Class II occlusal relationship articulate with which of the following maxillary teeth?

A) Canines and lateral incisors
B) Canines and first premolars
C) Lateral incisors only
D) Canines only

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial cusps of the mandibular second molars contact the maxillary molars in (on) the
A) central fossae of the second.
B) lingual embrasures between the first and second.
C) distal fossae of the second.
D) mesial marginal ridges of the second.
E) facial embrasures between the first and second.

The growth rate in the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate of a long bone is markedly retarded when there is a lack of hormone from which of the following?

A) Parathyroids
B) Hypophysis
C) Islets of Langerhans
D) Testes
E) Adrenals

Regulation of each of the following mechanisms is associated with the hypothalamus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A) Sleep
B) Water balance
C) Carbohydrate metabolism
D) Pupillary diameter
E) Body temperature

Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA
A) Alkaline glutaraldehyde
B) Chlorhexidine
C) Ethylene oxide
D) 70 percent isopropyl alcohol
E) Phenols

Which of the following BEST describes the Curve of Spee?
A) The composite arrangement of the facial crown surface heights of contour of all the teeth in any quadrant
B) The anterior-posterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth, as seen in a facial view
C) The inclination of the teeth in relation to the vertical long axis of the body
D) The spherical configuration of the composite arrangement of the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the teeth of both dental arches
E) The facial-lingual curvature resulting from the facial cusps being the longest in the mandibular arch, and the lingual cusps being the longest in the maxillary arch

Which of the following has a high affinity for binding calcium and collagen in the calcifying matrix?
A) Osteogenin
B) Calcitonin
C) Fibronectin
D) Osteonectin
E) Amelogenin

In a Class II occlusal relationship, the tip of the facial cusp of a mandibular first premolar lies directly below the contacting area between which maxillary teeth?
A) Canine and first premolar
B) Second premolar and first molar
C) First and second premolars
D) Canine and lateral incisor

Which of the following represents a striated muscle that contains transverse tubules, a slow rate of calcium sequestration, and is inhibited by acetylcholine?
A) Skeletal
B) Multi-unit smooth
C) Single unit smooth
D) Cardiac

Which of the following causes activation of the pyloric pump, relaxation of the pylorus, and contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter?

A) Secretin
B) Pepsinogen
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Acetylcholine
E) Gastrin

Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?
A) Spreading of the initial focus
B) Exudation
C) Langhans' giant cells
D) Epithelioid cells
E) Necrosis

Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the
A) calcification pattern of maturing dentin.
B) epithelial diaphragm.
C) incremental pattern.
D) formation of peritubular dentin.
E) crowding of odontoblasts.

Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction?
A) Oblique
B) Apical
C) lnterradicular
D) Alveolar crest
E) Horizontal

In a newly erupted tooth, the junction between tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium consists of which of the following?
A) Keratin fibers, running from the epithelium deeply into the enamel
B) Basal lamina-like structure between enamel and epithelium
C) Interstitial crevicular fluid
D) Basal lamina-like structure between dentin and epithelium
E) Basal lamina-like structure between cementum and epithelium

Which of the following is a function of the enterogastric reflex?
A) Decreases the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter
B) Increases gallbladder emptying
C) Increases motility of the ileum
D) Increases motility of the esophagus
E) Decreases motility of the stomach

Vascular smooth muscle relaxes in response to
A) adenosine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) hyperoxia.
D) vasopressin.
E) angiotensin

Buerger's Disease

A 53-year-oid patient has an indurated, chronic ulcer near the inner canthus. The MOST likely diagnosis is
A) adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct.
B) verruca vulgaris.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) malignant melanoma.
E) basal cell carcinoma.

The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand-foot-and-mouth disease by which of the following?
A) Their density and number
B) Their intraoral locations
C) Their physical appearance
D) Their gradual confluence

The submucosa is present in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Jejunum
B) Colon
C) Duodenum
D) Stomach
E) Gallbladder

Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacteria?
A) Ribosome
B) Mitochondrion
C) Nucleus
D) Cytoplasm
E) Cell membrane

Each of the following develops as an outpocketing of the gut tube EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Lung
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Spleen
E) Gallbladder

Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?
A) Coagulase
B) Plasmalysin
C) Hyaluronidase
D) Streptokinase
E) M-protein

Which of the following conditions predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium?
A) Bronchiectasis
B) Pulmonary emphysema
C) Bronchial carcinoid
D) Bronchial asthma
E) Chronic bronchitis

Which of the following represents the MOST frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman?
A) Fibrocystic disease
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Fibroadenoma
E) Intraductal papilloma

Which of the following conditions increase the risk of developing osteosarcoma?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteoblastoma
E) Osteomalacia

Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?
A) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
B) Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
C) Development of visceral carcinoma
D) Multiple mucosal neuromas
E) Perioral melanotic freckles

Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults?
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Angiosarcoma
D) Multiple myeloma
E) Ewing's sarcoma

Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand outMOST prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar?
A) Second molar, Distolingual surface
B) First molar, Distofacial surface
C) Second molar, Mesiolingual surface
D) Second molar, Distofacial surface
E) First molar, Mesiofacial surface

Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root?

A) Acellular cementum
B) Reparative dentin
C) Cellular cementum
D) Secondary dentin
E) Primary dentin

Which of the following teeth is the LEAST likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?
A) Maxillary central incisor
B) Maxillary second premolar
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular lateral incisor
E) Mandibular central incisor

Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients.
B) Unilateral
C) Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection.
D) Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes.
E) More common in individuals who are immunocompromised.

Which of the following is the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere that lies in the middle cranial fossa?
A) Parietal
B) Temporal
C) Frontal
D) Occipital

MOST cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following?
A) Acid phosphatase
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin
D) Carcinoembryonic antigen
E) Alpha-fetoprotein

The apex of the horizontal plane Gothic-arch tracing represents which of the following positions?
A) Centric relation
B) Rest position
C) Maximum opening
D) Lateral protrusive

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to mastication of food?
A) An ideal occlusion is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
B) Proper incisor contact is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
C) Food is masticated primarily in a border movement.
D) Indigestion is generally related to inadequate mastication of food.
E) Food is masticated primarily in lateral contacting movement.

A mature ovum is expelled from which of the following?
A) Graafian follicles
B) Corpus albicans
C) Corpus luteum
D) Corpus hemorrhagicum

TNF-Beta

Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in
A) f1agella.
B) spores.
C) mesosomes.
D) mitochondria.
E) ribosomes.

Each of the following statements describes a contributor to the initiation of mineralization of bone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae
B) Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate to release an inorganic phosphate group
C) Holes or pores in collagen fibers
D) Release of matrix vesicles by osteoblasts
E) Alkaline phosphatase activity in osteoblasts and matrix vesicles

Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent information must be received

A) from muscle spindles, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
B) from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
C) from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
D) in a lesser amount form nociceptors, indicating a soft bolus of food.

Glucose can be made from each of the following substancesEXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Fructose
B) Glycerol
C) Pyruvate
D) Lactate
E) Acetyl CoA

The movement in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint is rotation and translation. The movement in the lower compartment is translation.
A) Both statements are FALSE.
B) The first statement is FALSE, and the second isTRUE.
C) The first statement is TRUE, and the second isFALSE.
D) Both statements are TRUE.

Juxtamedullary nephron vs. cortical nephron

Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani because it
A) prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
B) prevents release of acetylcholine in autonomic ganglia.
C) prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells.
D) denatures the salivary gland proteins.

If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
A) 5' UAG 3
'B) 5' CGT 3'
C) 5' CGU 3'
D) 5' UGC 3'
E) 5' TGC 3'

Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Esophagus
B) Urinary bladder
C) Oral cavity
D) Colon
E) Lung

In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists?
A) Maxillary canine
B) Mandibular canine
C) Maxillary lateral incisor
D) Mandibular lateral incisor

On the crown of the primary maxillary first molar, the mesial surface normally
A) is wider buccolingually at the occlusal table than at the cervical third.
B) exhibits a concave lingual outline.
C) is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth.
D) is wider occlusocervically than buccolingually.
E) exhibits a straight cervical line.

Which of the following factors MOST influences the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?
A) Angle of the eminence
B) Curve of the occlusion
C) Anterior guidance
D) Direction of movement of the rotating condyle
E) Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)

Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Hypoalbuminemia
B) Mallory bodies
C) Tremor
D) Spider telangiectasia
E) Gynecomastia

Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine?
A) Ammonia
B) Creatine
C) Creatinine
D) Urea
E) Uric acid

During the life span of a multi rooted tooth, dentin continues to form MOSTrapidly at which of the following locations?
A) Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chamber
B) Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
C) At the dentinoenamel junction
D) Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber
E) Within the root canals

A patient reports breaking a lower right central incisor while eating a cookie. Which of the following mandibular movements was the patient MOST likely making when this occurred?
A) Protrusive
B) Retrusive
C) Straight closure
D) Left working
E) Right working

Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Large cell carcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint consists of
A) hyaline cartilage.
B) an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner core of hyaline cartilage.
C) loose fibrous connective tissue.
D) dense fibrous connective tissue.
E) an outer synovial layer and an inner fibrous layer.

In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is MOST likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
A) First premolar and second premolar
B) Lateral incisor
C) Lateral incisor and canine
D) Canine and first premolar
E) First premolar

The OLDEST enamel in a fully erupted first molar is located at the cervix of the tooth.
A) mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth.
B) oral surface of a cusp.
C) dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp.
D) dentinoenamel junction underlying a fissure.

Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate?
A) Frontal sinus
B) Nasal septum
C) Antrum
D) Mandibular fossa
E) Zygomatic arch

Which of the following is MOST likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction?A) Myocardial infarction
B) Ruptured berry aneurysm
C) Pulmonary embolus
D) Transient ischemic attacks
E) Angina pectoris

The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires
A) the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits.
B) the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
C) the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets
.D) the alpha-subunit to bind GDP.

Which of the following organs secretes insulinlike growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and what stimulates this secretion?A) Kidney, increasing growth hormone in the blood
B) Liver, increasing growth hormone in the blood
C) Liver, increasing TSH in the blood
D) Anterior pituitary, increasing IGF-RH in the blood
E) Anterior pituitary, increasing GRH in the blood

In which of the following structures are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Nucleolemma
E) Polyribosomes

Ingestion of which of the following MOST markedly DECREASES gastric emptying?
A) Fats
B) Minerals
C) Carbohydrates
D) Proteins
E) Water

A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of

A) muscle spindles.
B) nociceptors in the dental pulp.
C) periodontal mechanoreceptors.
D) mucosal mechanoreceptors.

Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Brain
B) Subcutaneous tissues
C) Pancreas
D) Lungs
E) Peritoneal cavity

Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in which of the following?
A) Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails
B) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery
C) Periphery of the bodies of the rods only
D) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers
E) Centers of the bodies of the rods only

Which of the following temporomandibular joint ligaments restricts the movement of the disc away from the condyle during function?
A) Sphenomandibular
B) Stylomandibular
C) Temporomandibular
D) Discal

THe condyle on the laterotrusive side generally rotates about a
A) vertical axis and translates laterally.
B) horizontal axis and translates laterally.
C) horizontal axis only.
D) sagittal axis only.

Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
A) Mandibular first premolar
B) Maxillary first molar
C) Maxillary first premolar
D) Primary mandibular first molar
E) Mandibular second molar

The main route of calcium excretion from a normal human adult is
A) feces.
B) tears.
C) sweat.
D) urine.
E) saliva.

The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following?A) Brain
B) Testes
C) Bone
D) Liver
E) Adrenal gland

In the sulcular epithelium, small spaces between cells in the stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally filled by
A) none of the above.
B) capillaries that course between cells to approach the free surface.
C) keratin.
D) a small amount of tissue fluid.

Excluding the effect of drugs, apnea occurring after hyperventilation of an anesthetized patient results from
A) increased hydrogen ion concentration.
B) decreased demand for oxygen.
C) increased cerebral blood flow.
D) decreased oxygenation of carotid bodies.
E) decreased carbon dioxide tension.

Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?
(a) Vascularity; (b) Size of the pulp chamber; (c) Number of collagen fibers; (d) Calcification within the pulp

Sounds heard during systole in the antecubital space are produced by

A) closure of the aortic valve.
B) closure of AV valves.
C) laminar blood flow through the occluded artery
D) turbulent blood flow through the artery.

Normal hemoglobin concentration is about 15 gm./dl. blood and normal arterial oxygen content is about 20 ml. 02/dl. blood. An anemic individual breathing room air with a hemoglobin concentration of 10 gm./dl. blood is expected to have
A) reduced arterial oxygen tension and normal arterial oxygen content.
B) normal arterial oxygen tension and normal arterial oxygen content.
C) reduced arterial oxygen tension and reduced arterial oxygen content.
D) normal arterial oxygen tension and reduced arterial oxygen content.

It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of
A) mucosal glands in the stomach only.
B) smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
C) muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
D) simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only.
E) submucosal glands in the duodenum only.

Tropocollagen is a protein molecule found in
A) collagen and reticular fibers only.
B) elastic and reticular fibers only.
C) collagen, elastic and reticular fibers.
D) collagen and elastic fibers only

Cells of the stratum granulosum of thick stratified squamous epithelium characteristically contain

A) melanin granules.
B) granules that are organelles.
C) keratohyalin granules.
D) keratin granules.

At a muscle-tendon junction, the union is made by
A) an abundance of reticular fibers in the area of the junction.
B) myofibrils connecting with collagenous fibrils of the tendon.
C) a continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon.
D) a special thickening of sarcoplasm that unites with collagenous fibrils of the tendon.

The number of roots that are formed is determined by the
A) number of root sheaths developed by the enamel organ.
B) number of discontinuities developed in the root sheath.
C) thickness of the cervical loop.
D) number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop.

Which of the following are mobilized when a cell produces an excessive amount of protein?

A) All of the above
B) Lipofuscin granules
C) Lysosomes
D) Mitochondria
E) Rough endoplasmic reticula

The alveolar bone proper (cribriform plate) usually consists of

A) woven bone.
B) lamellar bone only.
C) bundle bone only.
D) bundle bone and lamellar bone.

Enamel spindles are formed by

A) cracks.
B) hypocalcified rods.
C) odontoblasts.
D) ameloblasts.
E) hypoplastic rods.

Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
A) Elevated serum lipase
B) Decreased serum amylase
C) Elevated alkaline phosphatase.
D) Decreased albumin

A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is
A) obstruction from edema or scarring.
B) perforation.
C) malignant transformation.
D) bleeding.
E) surgical complication.

A cross section at midroot of a permanent mandibular central incisor is likely to show that the pulp cavity is
A) divided into two canals.
B) flattened mesiodistally.
C) almost round.
D) flattened faciolingually.
E) shaped much the same as that of a maxillary central incisor.

Which of the following permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
A) Mandibular first molar
B) Mandibular second premolar
C) Maxillary second premolar
D) Mandibular first premolar
E) Maxillary first molar
F) Mandibular second molar

In a normal, healthy mouth, the interdental papilla that is the shortest cervicoincisally (cervico-occlusally) is between mandibular
A) central and lateral incisors.
B) second premolar and first molar.
C) lateral incisor and canine.
D) canine and first premolar.
E) first and second premolars.
F) central incisors.

A patient with which of the following diseases is least likely to show "clubbing" of fingers and cyanotic nail beds?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Chronic pulmonary disease
C) Polycythemia
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus.
E) Congenital heart disease

In the intercuspal position, the cusp tip of the permanent maxillary canine is in direct alignment with which anatomic feature of the mandibular teeth?
A) Interproximal space
B) Facial embrasure
C) Distal ridge of the cusp of the mandibular canine
D) Mesial ridge of the facial cusp of the mandibular first premolar
E) Incisal embrasure

Pronounced developmental grooves are usually associated with embrasures between permanent:
(a) maxillary central and lateral incisors; (b) maxillary lateral incisors and canines; (c) maxillary canines and first premolars; (d) maxillary first and second premolars; (e) mandibular canines and first premolars; (f) mandibular first and second premolars; (g) mandibular second premolars and first molars; (h) mandibular first and second molars.
A) (c) onlyB) (d) onlyC) (g) onlyD) (b) onlyE) (d) and (f)F) (a) onlyG) (c) and (e)

The drawing is a cross section at the cervical line of what permanent tooth?
A) Maxillary lateral incisor
B) Mandibular canine
C) Mandibular first premolar
D) Mandibular central incisor

A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in that a primary mandibular second molar
A) is darker in color.
B) is larger in size.
C) has a form peculiar to itself.
D) has roots that are more divergent.
E) has a larger occlusal surface.

The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is
A) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
B) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
C) peptic ulcer.
D) acute gastritis.
E) esophageal varices.

Viewed anteriorly, which diagram represents a chewing stroke?

The sketch represents the
A) distal view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
B) mesial view of a permanent mandibular third molar.
C) distal view of a permanent mandibular second molar
.D) mesial view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
E) mesial view of a permanent mandibular second molar.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the distolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar opposes the
A) central fossa of the mandibular first molar.
B) lingual sulcus of the mandibular first molar.
C) mesial marginal ridge area of the mandibular second molar.
D) mesial fossa of the mandibular second molar.
E) facial embrasure between mandibular first and second molars.

Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity ?
(a) Treponema; (b) Bacteroides; (c) Actinomyces (d) Streptococcus

Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include
A) an envelope synthesized de novo.
B) none of the above.
C) an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane.
D) no envelope.
E) an envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane.

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrows on the sketch represent the path taken by the
A) cusp of canine and facial cusp of first premolar.
B) lingual cusp of second premolar and the mesiolingual cusp of first molar.
C) facial cusps of premolars.
D) facial cusp of second premolar and the mesiofacial cusp of first molar.
E) lingual cusps of premolars.

In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
A) Facial to the mandibular central incisors
B) Facial to the maxillary second molars
C) Lingual to the maxillary central incisors
D) Lingual to the maxillary canines
E) Lingual to the mandibular first molars
F) Lingual to the maxillary second molars

The protrusive pathway of mandibular cusps on maxillary posterior teeth is toward the
A) lingual.B) None of the above C) mesial.D) distal.E) facial.

In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential to contact both anterior and posterior antagonists?
A) Mandibular canine
B) Mandibular lateral incisor
C) Maxillary canine
D) Maxillary lateral incisor

Phage conversion is responsible for
A) ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen.
B) antigenic phase variation.
C) production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) transduction of bacteria.
E) production of B-galactosidase

Calcification of the roots of the primary dentition is normally completed at what age?
A) 7-8 years
B) 5-6 years
C) None of the above
D) 3-4 years
E) 1-2 years

Which of the following permanent teeth is least likely to have a divided pulp canal?
A) Mandibular lateral incisor
B) Maxillary central incisor
C) Mandibular central incisor
D) Maxillary first premolar
E) Mandibular first premolar

Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic to penicillin
is

A) ampicillin.
B) erythromycin.
C) streptomycin.
D) tetracycline.
E) lincomycin.

Most rickettsial diseases produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae
A) are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues.
B) are destructive for endothelial cells.
C) are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers.
D) produce potent exotoxins.

In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual inclination of the crown from its root is seen in a permanent

A) canine.
B) third molar.
C) central incisor.
D) first premolar.
E) lateral incisor.

The most acceptable conditions for complete sterilization by autoclaving are
A) 15 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
B) 20 minutes at 250° F. (121° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
C) 5 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 15 lbs. of pressure.
D) 20 minutes at 250° F (121° C) and 15 lbs. of pressure.

In an ideal intercuspal position, a permanent mandibular lateral incisor opposes the:
(a) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary central incisor;
(b) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
(c) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
(d) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary canine;
(e) maxillary lateral incisor 2-3 mm. cervically to the incisal edge;
(f) maxillary lateral incisor at the incisal edge.
A) (c), (d) and (e) B) (a), (b) and (f)C) (a) and (b) onlyD) (a), (b) and (e)E) (b) only

The lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar contacts the
A) mesial incline plane of the lingual cusp of a first premolar
.B) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar.
C) cingulum of a maxillary canine.
D) None of the above
E) lingual embrasures of a maxillary canine and a maxillary first premolar.

Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?

A) Emphysema
B) Bronchiectasis.
C) Pneumonia
D) Empyema
E) Atelectasis

Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by:
(a) Brucella abortus; (b) Bordetella pertussis; (c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae; (d) Clostridium tetani; (e) Hemophilus influenzae.

A) (b), (c) and (d)B) (b), (d) and (e)C) (c), (d) and (e).D) (a), (b) and (c)E) (a), (c) and (e)

The primary function of the dental pulp is to
A) protect the periodontium.
B) provide sensation.
C) assure root-end closure.
D) form dentin.
E) provide nutrition.

Hepatitis B

1. Anti-HBs and HBs-antigen
2. Anti-HBc and Anti-HBs
3. Anti-HBs no Anti-HBc

window period- have Anti-HBc but not Anti-HBs

In cases of delayed resorption of primary incisors, the permanent incisors may be expected to erupt
A) distal to the normal arch position.
B) lingual to the normal arch form.
C) mesial to the normal arch position.
D) facial to the normal arch form

Which of the following teeth is most likely to resist caries?
A) Maxillary lateral incisor
B) Maxillary central incisor
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular first premolar

Based upon morphology, a mesio-occlusal (Class II) cavity preparation would be most difficult in which of the following teeth?
A) Permanent mandibular first molar
B) Primary mandibular first molar
C) Permanent maxillary second molar
D) Primary mandibular second molar

The roots of mandibular first premolars are :
(a) flattened faciolingually;
(b) broader facially than lingually;
(c) frequently sharply curved distally;
(d) usually free of marked distal curvature;
(e) frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.

In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bone ? (a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis;
(b) Functional remodeling of the procallus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts;
(c) Formation of new bone at the site of fracture;
(d) Presence of sequestrum;
(e) Organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture

In a cervical cross section, which premolar(s) sometimes exhibit a root outline and a pulp chamber floor outline that are both kidney-shaped?
A) All premolars
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular second
D) Maxillaryfirst
E) Mandibular first

Ketone Bodies

In cervical cross-section, the root of a mandibular canine is described as
A) triangular.
B) roughly conical.
C) flattened in a mesiodistal direction.
D) broader mesiodistally on the lingual than on the facial.

Which of the following is characteristic of primary maxillary canines?
A) Cusp is low and rounded.
B) The mesioincisal cusp ridge is shorter than the distoincisal cusp ridge.
C) The mesioincisal cusp ridge is longer than the distoincisal cusp ridge.
D) Crown height < mesiodistal width.

Frequency of impulse activity in the afferent nerve from a muscle spindle (Group a afferent fibers) is increased by a (an)
(a) relaxation of intrafusal muscle fibers;
(b) increased activity in gammaefferent fibers;
(c) passive stretch of the muscle.

A) (c) onlyB) (b) onlyC) (b) and (c)D) (a) and (c)E) (a) onlyF) (a) and (b)

Which of the following substances represents an unsaturated fatty acid?
A) Cholesterol
B) Oleate
C) Palmitate
D) Choline
E) Stearate

Each of the following is involved in gene cloning EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?


A) DNA polymerase I
B) Restriction nucleases
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) RNA polymerase
E) DNA ligase

From the incisal aspect, the crown of a maxillary canine normally exhibits which of the following?
A) Symmetry between its mesial and distal portions
B) Less faciolingual thickness than the crown of a mandibular canine
C) A trapezoidal outline
D) A distal portion that displays some concavity in its facial outline
E) A mesial portion that is thinner faciolingually than the distal portion

During swallowing, muscular contraction results in movements that seal off the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Which of the following muscles cause movements that result in a fold in the posterior wall of the pharynx?
A) Levator veli palatini
B) Tensor veli palatini
C) Palatoglossus
D) Musculus Uvulae
E) Palatopharyngeus

Which of the following primary teeth would exhibit a prominent cervical ridge on both the facial and lingual surfaces?

A) L
B) A
C) J
D) T
E) F

Which of the following explains why enamel is harder than bone?
A) Enamel crystals have more surface area.
B) Enamel contains more collagen.
C) Enamel contains amelogenins in its organic matrix.
D) Enamel contains more magnesium and carbonate.
E) Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed.

in an aqueous solution at pH 7, a peptide containing 1 amino group side chain and 2 carboxyl group side chains would have which of the following net charges?

A) 2-
B) 1+
C) 1-
D) 2+
E) 0

In which of the following teeth is the mesial portion MOST distinctly separated from the remainder of the occlusal table by a transverse ridge?
A) Mandibular first molar
B) Primary mandibular second molar
C) Mandibular second premolar
D) Primary mandibular first molar
E) Primary maxillary first molar

On permanent teeth, the greatest incisal curvature of a cervical line is on which surface of which incisor? (surface --> incisor)
A) Mesial surface --> Maxillary central
B) Mesial surface --> Mandibular central
C) Distal surface --> Mandibular central
D) Mesial surface --> Mandibular lateral
E) Distal surface --> Maxillary lateral

Which of the following enzymes converts trypsinogen to trypsin?


A) Secretin
B) Peptidase
C) Enterokinase
D) Pepsin

From the facial view, the maxillary first molar has its lingual root apex in line with which of the following?A) Mesiofacial cusp tip
B) Mesiodistal diameter midpoint
C) Distofacial line angle
D) Distofacial cusp tip
E) Facial groove

Peripheral (lower motor neuron) lesions of cranial nerve VII will cause which of the following?
A) An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature
B) A contralateral paralysis of the facial musculature
C) A contralateral paralysis of only the lower facial muscles
D) An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of only the lower facial muscles
E) A contralateral paralysis of only the upper facial muscles

Which of the following represents the location of the cell bodies of pain fibers in the glossopharyngeal nerve?A) Trigeminal (semilunar) ganglion
B) Superior ganglion of cranial nerve IX
C) Spinal nucleus of cranial nerve V
D) Nucleus ambiguous
E) Otic ganglion

Which of the following maxillary teeth has the largest cervico-occlusal crown height?
A) First molar
B) First premolar
C) Second premolar
D) Second molar

The midroot cross-sectional diagram illustrates the root of which maxillary molar?
A) Left third
B) Right first
C) Left first
D) Right third

Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to have a distal coronal concavity that can pose special problems in matrix placement?
A) Maxillary first molar
B) Mandibular first premolar
C) Maxillary first premolar
D) Mandibular first molar

Calcification of the mandibular third molars generally begins at
A) 8-10 years.
B) 14-16 years.
C) 5-7 years.
D) 11-13 years.
E) 3-4 years.

Which of the following nerves is the MOST likely to become injured in fractures of the mid-humeral shaft?A) Radial
B) Musculocutaneous
C) Ulnar
D) Median
E) Axillary

The lymph vessels that drain both dental arches connect directly with which of the following nodes?


A) Deep cervical
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Superficial cervical
E) Retropharyngeal

From a proximal view, which of the following describes the crown outline on a mandibular posterior tooth?A) It is designed to allow for a minimum amount of chewing effficiency on the coronal surface of the tooth.
B) It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.
C) It is usually trapezoidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.
D) It is designed to protect against root fracture by having the crown structure serve as root support

Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are essential for which of the following processes?
A) Hydroxylation of proline
B) Activation of procollagen peptidase
C) Oxidative deamination of lysine
D) Gamma-Carboxylation of proline
E) Incorporation of proline

Which of the following teeth have long axes positioned with their root apices facial and their crowns lingual?

A) Mandibular molars
B) Mandibular incisors
C) Maxillary premolars
D) Maxillary incisors
E) Maxillary molars

A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for which of the following?
A) Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
B) Production of menadiol
C) Carboxylation of glutamate side chains
D) Cross-linking of fibrinogen
E) Esterification of retinol

Antidiuretic hormone is PRODUCED by cells that reside in which of the following structures, cells or areas?A) Pars intermedia
B) Acidophils of the pars distalis
C) Pars nervosa
D) Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
E) Basophils of the pars distalis

The pyramids contain
A) upper and lower motor neuron fibers.
B) pain fibers.
C) sensor fibers.
D) upper motor neuron fibers only.
E) lower motor neuron fibers only.

Which of the following anterior primary rami form the medial cordof the brachial plexus?
A) C-8 and T-1
B) C-4 and C-5
C) C-5, C-6, and C-7
D) C-6 and C-7
E) T-2 and T-3

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head have their cell bodies in the
A) superior cervical ganglia.
B) intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.
C) cervicothoracic ganglia.
D) gray rami communicantes of the thoracic region.
E) paravertebral ganglia.

In the photomicrograph below of a ground section of a tooth viewed by transmitted light, some dentinal tubules appear black because they

A) are filled with bacteria.
B) are filled with minerals.
C) are filled with blood.
D) contain deeply stained odontoblastic processes.
E) have become filled with air during sectioning.

Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the cortex are found in which of the following?
A) Medial lemniscus
B) Internal capsule
C) Anterior commissure
D) Lateral lemniscus
E) Corpus callosum

Which of the following is the MOST numerous cell type in the normal dental pulp?
A) Odontoblast
B) Adipocyte
C) Macrophage
D) Mast cell
E) Fibroblast

Which of the following represents the MOST vascular portion of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Anterior thick zone (band)
B) Posterior thick zone (band)
C) Intermediate thin zone (band)
D) Bilaminar zone

Which of the following organs is the NEAREST to the right kidney?
A) Duodenum
B) Colon
C) Stomach
D) Spleen
E) Pancreas

The prochordal plate consists of
A) the cardiogenic mesoderm and the neurectoderm.
B) the cloacal membrane and the overlying amnion.
C) endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm
.D) embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.
E) a circular area anterior to the notochord in which the endoderm is fused to the embryonic mesoderm.

Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament offer the MOSTresistance to movement of the tooth in an apical direction?
A) Alveolar crest
B) Oblique
C) Apical
D) Interradicular
E) Horizontal

On a comparative basis, bone and cellular cementum are similar in that both
A) contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source.
B) are deposited throughout life, acquire blood vessels during aging, and contain similar collagenous fibers.
C) are difficult to resorb, heal well, and contain cement lines.
D) contain concentric patterns, have Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous.

The core of a microvillus consists of which of the following?
A) 9 triplets of microtubules
B) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Microfilaments
E) Vimentin filaments

The blood-testis barrier is maintained by
A) myoepithelial cells.
B) Leydig cells.
C) spermatogonia.
D) spermatocytes.
E) Sertoli cells.

Oxyphil cells are present in which of the following?
A) Parathyroid gland
B) Spleen
C) Fundic stomach
D) Neurohypophysis
E) Thymus

Which of the following is the nerve that supplies the mimetic muscles?
A) Spinal accessory
B) Vagus
C) Hypoglossal
D) Trigeminal
E) Facial

Which of the following is the posterior limit of the vestibular side of the cheek?
A) Sphenomandibular ligament
B) Stylomandibular ligament
C) Pterygomandibular raphe
D) Sulcus terminalis
E) Retromolar pad

Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on which of the following?
A) Ventral surface of the tongue
B) Floor of the mouth
C) Attached gingiva
D) Oral surface of the soft palate
E) Skin surface of the lips

Which of the following represents a popular theory for the force that is considered to be the MOST responsible for active tooth eruption?
A) Dentin formation in the root pushes the tooth into the oral cavity.
B) Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity.
C) Apical fundal bone formation pushes the tooth.
D) Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes the tooth intraorally.
E) Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth.

Which of the following ligaments helps resist posterior movement of the mandibular condyles?A) Temporomandibular
B) Anterior cruciate
C) Sphenomandibular
D) Stylomandibular
E) Pterygomandibular raphe

Which of the following structures runs directly adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve in the arm?A) Brachial artery
B) Ulnar artery
C) Radial artery
D) Medial brachial cutaneous nerve
E) Cephalic vein

Structure of Thymus

Which of the following represents the normal substrate of thrombin?
A) Thrombospondin
B) Prothrombin
C) Thromboplastin
D) Fibrin
E) Fibrinogen

Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in muscle cells which in turn activate
A) glycogen synthetase.
B) glycogen phosphorylase.
C) adenyl cyclase.
D) ATPase.
E) glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase.

Which of the following noncollagenous protein components BESTcharacterizes dentin matrix?
A) Laminin
B) Vimentin
C) Phosphophoryn
D) Osteonectin
E) Fibronectin

Intravenous injections of KCl solution would increase the secretion of which of the following?
A) Insulin
B) Aldosterone
C) Cortisol
D) Parathyroid hormone
E) Calcitonin

The movement of Ca++ across a membrane is characterized by which of the following?
A) An example of a cotransport system
B) Maintains Ca++ concentration very much higher in the cell than in the extracellular fluid
C) A facilitated diffusion
D) In many cell membranes involves a Ca++–Na+countertransport system

Which of the following is necessary for de novo synthesis of cholesterol?
A) FADH2
B) NADH
C) NADPH
D) NA+
E) NADP+

The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling step in the de novosynthesis of fatty acids is regulated allosterically by the positive modulator

A) cyclic AMP.
B) ATP.
C) oxaloacetate
.D) citrate.
E) NADPH.

Which of the following controls the excitability of the muscle spindle?
A) Gamma efferent system
B) Length of the extrafusal fibers
C) Alpha efferent discharge
D) Load on the muscle

Under strict anaerobic conditions, the catabolism of one glucose molecule would yield a net of
A) 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.
B) 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
C) 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.
D) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.

Which of the following represents a polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly found in animal cell membranes?

A) Stearic
B) Linoleic
C) Lactic
D) Oleic
E) Sialic

GABA increases the permeability of postsynaptic membranes to which of the following ions?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Magnesium
D) Sodium
E) Chloride

Formation of Microfilaments

Which of the following sweeteners is non-nutritive as well as non-cariogenic?
A) Saccharin
B) Galactose
C) Sorbitol
D) D-fructose
E) Maltose

If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric point of a protein, then how will the protein respond in an electrophoretic system? It will
A) migrate to the positive pole
.B) separate into its different monomeric forms.
C) remain stationary and unchanged.
D) migrate to the negative pole.
E) become denatured.

Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting which of the following?
A) Enolase
B) Phosphatase
C) Amylase
D) Phosphorylase

Insulin INCREASES the activity of which of the following?
A) Fructose 1-6 diphosphatase
B) Enolase
C) Phosphofructokinase
D) Phosphorylase a
E) Glucose-6-phosphatase

When arterial pressure increases, pressoreceptors discharge and
A) increase cardiac rate and strength of contraction.
B) excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit parasympathetic nerves.
C) cause vasoconstriction throughout the peripheral circulatory system.
D) inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.

The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due principally to the level of which of the following?A) Arginine
B) Creatine
C) Uric acid
D) Ammonia
E) Urea

After prolonged acidosis, which of the following represents the nitrogenous product that is excreted in high amounts in the urine?
A) Creatinine
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Aspartic acid
E) Ammonia

Which of the following are the immediate effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium and phosphate?A) Serum calcium decreases, Serum phosphate has no change
B) Serum calcium has no change, Serum phosphate increases
C) Serum calcium increases, Serum phosphate increases
D) Serum calcium decreases, Serum phosphate decreases
E) Serum calcium increases, Serum phosphate decreases

Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually converted into which of the following?
A) Ketone bodies
B) Steroids
C) Cholic acid
D) Glucose
E) Oxaloacetate

The ability to concentrate urine varies among animal species. The maximum urine concentration that can be produced by an animal isMOST closely related to which of the following?
A) Diameter of the distal tubule
B) Glomerular filtration rate
C) Total number of nephrons
D) Length of the loop of Henle
E) Renal blood flow

In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is usually channeled into
A) fatty-acid synthesis.
B) ketone-body formation.
C) the Krebs cycle.
D) gluconeogenesis.
E) cholesterol synthesis.

The capsule of Streptococcus mutans is an important virulence factor that
A) is necessary to cause bacteremia.
B) has proteolytic activity.
C) prevents phagocytic digestion.
D) enhances oral accumulation.
E) causes circulatory collapse.

Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with acute appendicitis?

A) Duodenal peptic ulcer
B) Meckel's diverticulitis
C) Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
E) Crohn's disease

Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary intention, observed microscopically at three days, is MOST likely to show evidence of which of the following?

A) Lack of acute inflammation
B) Granulomatous inflammation
C) Keloid formation
D) Ulceration of the epithelial surface
E) Mature cicatrix

Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis?
A) Lung cancer
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Squamous carcinoma of the tongue
D) Carcinoma of the colon
E) Pancreatic carcinoma

Which of the following is the MOST important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease?A) Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
B) Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils
C) Making the bacteria motile
D) Transfering DNA from one bacterium to another

A patient with rheumatic heart disease is MOST likely to develop congestive heart failure due which of the following?
A) Cor pulmonale
B) Heart murmur
C) Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries
D) Valvular insufficiency
E) Digitalis toxicity

Which of the following are directly associated with destruction of glomerular basement membranes in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
A) IgE antibodies
B) Lymphokines
C) Eosinophils
D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic reaction would be the result of which of the following?
A) IgA against the A antigen
B) IgG against the B antigen
C) Sensitization to antigens other than A or B
D) T cytotoxic cell activation
E) IgM against the A antigen

A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of the following?

A) Carbon monoxide
B) Mercury
C) Carbon tetrachloride
D) Lead
E) Bismuth

Which of the following is the major VIRAL cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries?A) Varicella-zoster
B) Rubella
C) Measles
D) Herpes simplex
E) Cytomegalovirus

Phage conversion is responsible for which o'f the following?
A) Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
B) Transformation of bacteria
C) Production of pyrogenic toxin
D) Production of beta-galactose

MOST rickettsial diseases can produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae

A) produce potent exotoxins.
B) are destructive for epithelial cells.
C) are destructive for endothelial cells.
D) cause extensive CNS damage.

Hereditary angioedema is the result of which the following?
A) Developmental arrest of Iymphocytes
B) Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
C) Bare Iymphocytes (no Class I/II antigens)
D) Defective VH gene recombination to DJH
E) Lack of a thymus

Which of the following viral diseases has the LONGESTincubation period?
A) Measles
B) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C) Influenza
D) Rabies
E) Common cold

Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Heroin overdose
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Viral pneumonia
D) Breathing 100 percent O2
E) Shock

Normal clotting time and normal platelet count accompanied by prolonged bleeding time suggest which of the following?
A) Polycythemia vera
B) Hemophilia
C) Steatorrhea
D) Thrombocytopenic purpura
E) Excessive aspirin ingestion

Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the U.S.A.?
A) Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus
B) Cholera
C) Polyvalent pneumococcus
D) Measles, mumps, rubella
E) BCG

Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells?
A) Protooncogenes
B) Analogous chromosomes
C) Homologous chromosomes
D) Viral oncogenes
E) Retroviral genes

If a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which of the following portions of the lymphoid system is the antigen MOSTlikely to reach FIRST?
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
D) Thymus
E) Lymph nodes

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding glioblastoma multiforme?
A) The tumor is most common before puberty.
B) It is derived from the epithelial lining of the ventricles.
C) It is classified as a type of meningioma.
D) It is the most common type of astrocytoma.
E) Its prognosis is generally more favorable than Grade I astrocytoma.

The appearance of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of
A) natural selection.
B) errors in translation.
C) errors in transcription.
D) genomic recombination

Each of the following is commonly associated with congestive heart failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Passive congestion of the liver
B) Ankle edema
C) Cyanosis
D) Anasarca
E) Dyspnea

Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating active tuberculosis because it targets which of the following pathways?
A) Transcription
B) Mitosis
C) Translation
D) mRNA splicing
E) Replication

A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of

A) periodontal mechanoreceptors.
B) muscle spindles.
C) mucosal mechanoreceptors.
D) nociceptors in the dental pulp.

In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following?
A) Subarachnoid space
B) Ventricle
C) Subdural space
D) Cisterna magna
E) Superior sagittal sinus

Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar?
A) Distolingual
B) Distal portion of the central
C) Distal marginal
D) DL triangular
E) DF triangular

Which of the following conditions represents an intoxication rather than an infection?
A) Chancroid
B) Anthrax
C) Salmonellosis septicemia
D) Botulism
E) Bacteroidosis

Which of the following best describes the cervical margin on the facial crown surface of the maxillary first molar?
A) Irregularly convex toward the apex
B) Evenly convex toward the apexE) Straight
C) Evenly convex toward the occlusal
D) Irregularly convex toward the occlusal

Which of the following teeth represents the one most likely to present with three roots?
A) Maxillary first premolar
B) Mandibular second premolar
C) Mandibular central incisor
D) Maxillary second premolar
E) Mandibular canine

A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditions exists?
A) Concrescence
B) Gemination
C) Dilaceration
D) Dens in dente
E) Fusion

Steroid-induced osteoporosis mechanisms of action:

Most common location for atherosclerotic aneurysm?

Initially, the developing heart is
A) positioned potsterior to the notochord.
B) between the prochordal plate and the notochord.
C) positioned anterior to the prochordal plate.
D) induced by the notochord.

Cells that will form the vertebrae have their origin in which of the following?
A) Neural arch
B) Intermediate mesodermal plate
C) Two pairs of somites
D) Dermamyotome
E) Notochord

A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions limited to the palate and the posterior oropharyngeal mucosa has an oral temperature of 101°F (38°C). The most probable diagnosis is
A) herpangina.
B) hand-foot-and-mouth disease.
C) chickenpox
D) recurrent oral herpes.
.E) herpetic gingivostomatitis.

When the mandible performs a laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-side condyle moves primarily about which of the following axes?
A) Sagittal
B) Horizontal
C) Transverse
D) Vertical

When viewed from the sagittal plane, the axial inclination of the anterior teeth
A) remains vertical.
B) inclines distally.
C) inclines lingually.
D) inclines facially.
E) inclines mesially.

Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Mallory bodies
B) Spider telangectasia
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Tremor
E) Gynecomastia

Between which of the following permanent teeth is the lingual embrasure smaller than the facial embrasure?

A) Maxillary second molar and maxillary third molar
B) Maxillary first premolar and maxillary second premolar
C) Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar
D) Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar

Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) M
E) S

A patient presents with symptoms of an acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration. Radiographically, which of the following will most likely be shown as the cause of the abscess?
A) Dilaceration
B) Enamel pearls
C) Dens in dente
D) Concrescence
E) Agenesis

In general, enzyme-deficiency diseases are inherited by which of the following modes?

A) Polygenic
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Autosomal dominant

The bulk of a tooth consists of

A) crown.
B) pulp.
C) dentin.
D) enamel.
E) cementum.

Nongonococcal urethritis is often caused by microorganisms of which of the following genera?
A) Neisseria
B) Chlamydia
C) Treponema
D) Hemophilus

Which of the following is least likely to contribute to or affect stability of the dental arch form?
A) Plane of occlusion
B) Forces exerted by the lips and tongue
C) Occlusal contact forces
D) Periodontal health
E) Interproximal contact form

Each of the following grooves originates in the central pit of the maxillary second molar (four cusp type) EXCEPTION one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Transverse grooves of the oblique ridge.
B) Buccal
C) Distolingual
D) Central

Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from
A) Rathke's pouch.
B) hypobranchial eminence.
C) foregut endoderm.
D) tuberculum impar.
E) lateral lingual swellings.

Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints?A) Brachialis
B) Triceps brachii
C) Deltoid
D) Coracobrachialis
E) Biceps brachii

When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth
A) inclines lingually.
B) inclines buccally.
C) inclines distally.
D) inclines mesially.
E) remains vertical.

Submucosal glands are usually located in the
A) appendix.
B) colon.
C) duodenum.
D) fundus of stomach.
E) jejunum.

Which of the following terms refers to the presence of digested blood in the stool?
A) Hematoma
B) Melena
C) Icterus
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Hemosiderosis

Soft and hard tissue necrosis characterizes which of the following fungal diseases?
A) Cryptococcosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Mucormycosis
E) Coccidioidomycosis

When in its normal position relative to the arch form, the crown of a mandibular first molar inclines
A) distally and facially.
B) mesially and facially.
C) mesially and lingually.
D) distally and lingually.

Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is correct?
A) Causes vasodilation in vessels of the skin
B) Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart
C) Causes general vasodilation
D) Causes cardiac acceleration
E) Is the preganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitter

The characteristic of the aorta that is most responsible for the maintenance of diastolic blood pressure is its
A) proximity to the heart.
B) elastic distensibility.
C) wide lumen.
D) great peripheral resistance.
E) active contraction

In the upper limb, which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels?
A) Always travel in pairs
B) Follow the veins
C) Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into the interstitium
D) Only found on the anterior surface of the limb
E) Contain valves

Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion?
A) Transport bidirectional
B) Hydrolysis of ATP
C) Transport against a concentration gradient
D) Competitive inhibition

Red hepatization refers to which of the following?
A) Late stage of acute hepatitis
B) Early stage of acute hepatitis
C) Stage of lobar pneumonia
D) Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis
E) Congestion of the liver caused by chronic right sided heart failure

Which groove of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass through in a lateral excursive movement on the working side?
A) Lingual
B) Distobuccal
C) Buccal
D) Central

Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments?

A) Northern
B) Western
C) Eastern
D) Southern

Fibrocartilage normally occurs in
A) external ear.
B) intervertebral discs.
C) epiphyseal plate.
D) C-shaped rings in the wall of the trachea.
E) epiglottis.

The neurons of the central nervous system that innervate muscles derived from branchial arches are found in which of the following nuclei?
A) Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal
B) Nucleus ambiguus
C) Hypoglossal nucleus
D) Superior salivatory nucleus
E) Dorsal motor nucleus of X

Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Metastatic carcinoma
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Hyperparathyroidism
E) Langerhans (eosinophilic) granulomatosis

The human immunodeficiency virus preferentially infects which of the following cells?
A) Helper T
B) NK
C) Suppressor T
D) Cytotoxic T

Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Breast milk
B) Saliva
C) Amniotic fluid
D) Semen
E) Serum

If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
A) 5' UGC 3'
B) 5' CGT 3'
C) 5' TGC 3'
D) 5' UAG 3'
E) 5' CGU 3'

Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine?
A) Uric acid
B) Urea
C) Ammonia
D) Creatinine
E) Creatine

Which of the following represents the location of the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular second premolar?

A) Middle third
B) Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the maxillary premolars
C) Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular first premolar
D) Same third as that tooth's buccal height of contour
E) Occlusal third

Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Chondrocytes
C) Fibroblasts
D) Neurons
E) Epithelial cells

Each of the following statements about poliovirus infections is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Some damaged neurons may be repaired, restoring lost functions.
B) Paralysis is an uncommon outcome of infection.
C) There are 3 types of poliovirus, making 3 infections possible.
D) Virus is predominantly shed from the body and transmitted in respiratory secretions.
E) Most infections are subclinical.

In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense collection of organized elastic fibers is found in which of the following areas of the articular disc?
A) Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar zone
B) Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar zone
C) Anterior band
D) Posterior band
E) Intermediate band

Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?

A) Causes cytolysis
B) Inhibits DNA replication
C) Inhibits translation
D) Inhibits transcription
E) Activates cAMP

A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following?
A) The left lung and pericardial sac
B) The rib cage on the left side
C) The left lung only
D) The right lung only
E) Both lungs

Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance has been observed in diseases caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis?
A) Physical trauma
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Viral infection
D) Diabetes mellitus
E) Chronic alcohol abuse

Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they
A) contact stellate reticulum
B) contact neural crest mesoderm
C) contact dentin
D) are touched by stratum intermedium
E) are touched by odontoblast processes

Tonsils

Describe the following:

1. Pharyngeal Tonsils

2. Palatine tonsils

3. Lingual tonsils

What is the source of NADPH?

What biological processes is it needed for?

The secretion of which of the following endocrine glands is NOT essential to life?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Parathyroids
C) Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)
D) Adrenal cortex
E) Adrenal medulla

What is a striated duct?

The alternate loosening and tightening of a primary tooth that is about to be shed results from
A) alternate softening and hardening of alveolar bone proper.
B) lack of a developing permanent successor.
C) alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone.
D) labial movement of the developing permanent tooth.

A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely affects the
A) dentin.
B) cementum.
C) enamel.
D) pulp.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of uric acid from purines?
A) Aspartate transcarbamylase
B) Urease
C) Uricase
D) Carbamyl phosphate synthetase
E) Xanthine oxidase

Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of

A) interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
.B) resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts.
C) mitotic division of osteocytes.
D) mitotic division of osteoblasts.
E) appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate

Lactose, Maltose, glucose, galactose and fructose are these kinds of sugars because

GAG found in synovial fluid, vitreous humor, ECM of LCT

GAG found in cartilage, bone and heart valves

GAG found in basement membrane, components of cell surfaces

GAG found in intracellular granules of mast cells lining the arteries of teh lungs, liver and skin

GAG found in skin, blood vessels and heart valves

GAG found in cornea, bone, cartilage aggragated with chondroitin sulfates

glucose + glucose

glucose + galactose

glucose + fructose

This type of cell absorbs monosaccharides

large insoluble carbohydrate thats an important plant energy source comprised of amylose(unbranched) and amylopectin(branched)

Highly branched polymer of glucose that is especially abundant in the liver

common organic earth compound that is not digestible by humans and is often referred to as dietary fiber

This is a polysaccharide of glucose produced extracellularly bacteria and yeast.

This is stored intracellularly as reserve nutrients, and increases the adhesion of bacteria to surfaces of teeth and promote the formation of dental plaque

structure that covers the from of the eye, bends light, and does not change shape

crystalline lens that focuses light, "fine-tunes" vision, this can become cloudy=cataract

opening in the middle of the iris

functions as the shutter of the eye allowing light in and contains the color

thin layer of nerve tissue that senses light, made of rods and cones

densely packed nerve cells where focus of object or regard

Constriction of the pupil of the eye

prolonged abnormal dilation of the pupil induced by drug or disease

far objects are focuses at a point in front of the retina, cornea is steeper or eye is longer

treatment for myopia

light focuses behind the retina, flatter cornea or shorter eye

How do you treat farsightedness?

curvature of lens is not uniform

inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects because of loss of elasticity of lents with advancing age

Abnormal type of hemoglobin, lysine is replaced with glutamic acid causing reduced plasticity of RBCs

Abnormal hemoglobin with four beta chains, usually associated with a defect in three of four alpha chain genes resulting in alpha-thalassemia

Abnormal hemoglobin where valine has replaced glutamic acid in beta chain, sickle shape

abnormal hemoglobin with single AA substitution favors formation methemoglobin and is associated with methemoglobinemia

Hormones activated by foodstuffs entering the duodenum

Reflex of the enteric nervous system?

most common lipid storage disease caused by a deficiency of enzyme glucocerebrosidase. Fatty material will collect and cause the spleen and liver to enlarge, liver malfunction, skeletal disorders, bone lesion that may cause pain, severe neurological comp, lymph node swelling, anemia, yellow spots in eyes. Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry

autosomal recessive disorder caused by accumulation of fat and cholesterol in liver, spleen, bone marrow, lungs, and brain. Ataxia, eye paralysis, brain degeneration, learning problems, spasticity, feeding and swallowing difficulties. Deficiency of sphingomyelinase and ashkenazi jewish ancestry.

rare inherited disease, progressive destruction of brain and spinal cord nerve cells. Deficiency in beta-hexosaminidase A and accumulation of GM2 gangliosides. jewish ancestry, CNS degeneration, die by 5

autosomal recessive disorder caused by the deficiency of galactosylceramidase

alpha-galactosidase A deficiency disease, build up of fatty material in ANS, eyes, kidneys, and cardiovascular system

Symptoms:
Goiter, thickened nails that lift off the nail beds, myxedema, clubbing, exophthalmos

autoimmune reaction to the adrenal cortex with weight loss, muscle weakness, fatigue, Low BP, darkening of skin.

Disorder failure to produce ADH or in rare cases for the kidney to respond to ADH. Increased urination and thirst and pale urine

This molecule unwinds the helix

this molecule is responsible for unwinding supercoiled DNA to allow DNA polymerase access to replicate the genetic code

this enzyme re-forms the supercoiled structure once the replication fork has passed

Pyrimidine bases

Purine bases

Glycolysis rate-limiting step?

Aldolytic reaction of glycolysis

Where does glycolysis occur and what are the major points?

Which amino acids are not transaminated?

Arrange the three furcations of a maxillary first molar from closest to farthest from the cervical line.
(a) Facial (b) Mesial (c) Distal

Which of the following teeth have sharp demarcations between pulp chambers and pulp canals?
A) Maxillary lateral incisors B) Mandibular second premolars C) Mandibular canines D) Maxillary first premolars

The contact area, a self-protective feature of the dentition, functions to:
(A) prevent food impaction;
(B) distribute occlusal forces;
(C) protect mucosal tissues;
(d) form embrasures;
(e) stabilize the dental arch.

A) (a), (d) and (e)
B) (c) and (d)
C) (e) only
D) (b) and
(d)E)
(a),
(b) and
(c)

Which of the following primary teeth has a distinctly prominent facial cervical ridge that makes it uniquely different from other teeth?

A) Mandibular first molar
B) Maxillary central incisor
C) Maxillary second molar
D) Mandibular canine
E) Maxillary canine

Identify the permanent anterior tooth that most frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and identify the positions of the roots

When an adult with normal occlusion moves his mandible from right lateral relation to centric occlusion, which cusp moves between facial cusps of the maxillary right second molar?

A) Distofacial cusp of the mandibular second molar
B) Distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar
C) Distal cusp of the mandibular first molar
D) Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular third molar
E) Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular second molar

In an adult, which of the following occur normally while swallowing?

(a) Masseter muscles contract;
(b) The suprahyoid group of muscles relaxes;
(c) Teeth come into occlusal contact;
(d) The tip of the tongue touches the roof of the mouth.

In an otherwise normal arrangement, which of the following teeth are most often in abnormal relation and contact with adjacent teeth in the same arch?

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch represents the path taken by the

A) lingual cusp of a first premolar.
B) facial cusp of a first premolar
C) mesiolingual cusp of a first molar.
D) lingual cusp of a second premolar.
E) facial cusp of a second premolar.

Which of the following permanent teeth have mesial concavities that require special attention when removing calculus deposits?: (a) Maxillary central incisors; (b) Maxillary first premolars; (c) Maxillary first molars; (d) Mandibular second premolars

The facial masticatory mucosa (attached gingiva) is narrowest on which mandibular tooth?

The mandibular movement indicated isA) left lateral, working side.B) protrusive.C) left lateral, non-working side.D) right lateral, working side.E) right lateral, non-working side.

In which of the following molars is the mesial fossa most distinctly separated from the remainder of the occlusal table by a transverse ridge?


A) Maxillary second
B) Maxillary first
C) Mandibular second
D) Mandibular first

In a normal occlusion, mandibular central incisors contact maxillary incisors in which of the following movements?:

(a) Protrusive; (b) Lateral (working); (c) Lateral (non-working); (d) Lateral protrusive

A lingual pit is most common on which of the following teeth?

A) Right lateral, working side
B) Right lateral, non-working side
C) Left lateral, non-working side
D) Protrusive
E) Left lateral, working side

From a proximal view, which of the following permanent teeth tends to be positioned in the arch with its axis most nearly vertical?

The lingual surface of the crown of a mandibular canine is smooth and: (a) relatively flat in the fossa area; (b) poorly developed in the marginal ridge area; (c) poorly developed in the cingulum area.

A) (a) and (b)B) (c) only C) All of the aboveD) (a) onlyE) (b) onlyF) (b) and (c)

How soon after eruption of a permanent tooth is the apex usually fully developed?

The design of a restored occlusal surface is dependent upon the:
(a) contour of the articular eminence;
(b) position of the tooth in the arch;
(c) amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle;
(d) amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth.

The oblique ridge on a permanent maxillary first molar is reduced in height in the center of the occlusal surface and is nearly level with the

A) triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp.B) marginal ridge.C) None of the aboveD) cusp tip of the distofacial cusp.

A) distolingual cusp of a second molar.
B) mesiolingual cusp of a second molar.
C) distofacial cusp of a second molar.
D) mesiofacial cusp of a second molar.
E) mesiofacial cusp of a third molar.

During nonmasticatory swallowing, teeth are usually

A) in contact in intercuspal position.
B) protruded.
C) None of the above. This is a nonexistent act.
D) in a working arrangement.

The tooth most likely to exhibit a lingual groove that extends from the enamel onto the cemental area of the root is a permanent

When viewed from the mesial or the distal, the overall facial outline from cusp tip to root apex of a mandibular canine is:
(a) made up of two arcs;
(b) made up of one continuous arc;
(c) different from the outline of a maxillary canine;
(d) very similar to the outline of a maxillary canine.

A) (b) and (c)B) (a) and (c)C) (d) onlyD) (a) and (d)E) (b) and (d)

The ideal position and height of lingual cusps of a mandibular first molar accommodate which of the following?
A) Non-working movement
B) Centric relation
C) Working movement
D) Maximum intercuspation
E) Protrusive position

Which of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?

A) Pedunculated adenoma
B) Meckel's diverticulum
C) Duodenal peptic ulcer
D) Diverticulosis
E) Villous adenoma

Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in.
A) increased susceptibility to mutation.
B) loss of viability.
C) increased susceptibility to phagocytosis
D) failure of the cell to gram stain.
.E) decreased generation time.

The alum adjuvant employed in many vaccines acts biologically in tissues to

A) prolong antigen release to immunocompetent cells in the region.
B) Both (1) and (2) above
C) Neither (1) nor (2) above
D) serve as a local inflammatory stimulus.

The most reliable gaseous sterilizing agent available for dental instruments is
A) carbon dioxide.B) hydrogen sulfide.C) ethylene oxide.D) formaldehyde.

What is a hemangioma?

Most common tumor of salivary glands?
Where?

Most common malignancy of salivary glands?

Ludwig's angina

Amyloidosis

1. Primary

2. Secondary

3. Hereditary

Down Syndrome

Cri Du Chat Syndrome

Edward's Syndrome