-
Radiographic findings include infiltrates in mid or lower lung fields, hilar adenopathy, cavitation
tuberculosis
-
Cough, weight loss, fever, night sweats, hemoptysis, fatigue, decreased appetite, chest pain can be the clinical presentation of _____
reactivated tuberculosis
-
CXR with upper lobe infiltrates, particularly the apical and posterior segments, cavitation common
reactivated tuberculosis
-
PCO2
partial pressure of CO2
-
percent of CO2 carried in the plasma
10%
-
the faster and more deeply the patient breaths the
more CO2 is blown off
-
as CO2 levels increase
blood pH decreases
-
as CO2 levels increase
blood PCO2 increases
-
a rise in PCO2 stimulates a rise in
respiratory rate
-
in metabolic acidosis the lungs attempt to compensate by
blowing off CO2
-
in metabolic alkalosis the lungs attempt to compensate by
retaining CO2
-
Most of the CO2 content in the blood is
HCO3-
-
-
CO2 content is an indirect measurement of
HCO3-
-
_____ is a measurement of the metabolic (renal) component of the acid-base equilibrium
HCO3-
-
in respiratory alkalosis the _____ excrete HCO3 in an attempt to lower pH
kidneys
-
the measure of the tension of O2 dissolved in the plasma
PO2
-
patients in whom venous blood mixes prematurely with arterial blood have a decrease in ____
PO2
-
the indication of the percentage of hemoglobin filled with O2
O2 saturation
-
when ___% to 100% of the hemoglobin carries O2 the tissues are adequately provided with O2
92
-
non-invasive method of determining O2 saturation
pulse oximetry
-
a negative base excess indicates
metabolic acidosis
-
a positive base excess indicates
metabolic alkalosis or compensation to prolonged respiratory acidosis
-
acidosis is present if the pH is less than
7.4
-
alkalosis is present if the pH is greater than
7.4
-
if the PCO2 is low in a patient who has been said to have acidosis the patient has
metabolic acidosis
-
if the PCO2 is high in a patient who has been said to have acidosis the patient has
respiratory acidosis
-
if the PCO2 is low in a patient who has been said to have alkalosis the patient has
respiratory alkalosis
-
if the PCO2 is high in a patient who has been said to have alkalosis the patient has
metabolic alkalosis
-
O2 saturation can be falsely increased by the inhalation of
carbon monoxide
-
In patients with COPD the stimulus to breathe is not triggered by CO2 levels but by
O2
-
Perform which test before performing an arterial puncture in the radial artery
Allen test
-
low pH, low HCO3-, low CO2
metabolic acidosis
-
low pH, high HCO3-, high CO2
respiratory acidosis
-
high pH, high HCO3-, high CO2
metabolic alkalosis
-
high pH, low HCO3-, low CO2
respiratory alkalosis
-
-
-
-
-
__|__|__/ (bottom) | |X \ chem 7
creatinine
-
X |__|__/ | | \ chem 7
Na
-
__|X |__/ | | \ chem 7
Cl
-
__|__|X / | | \ chem 7
BUN
-
__|__|__/ (bottom) X | | \ chem 7
K
-
__|__|__/ (bottom) |X | \ chem 7
HCO3-
-
__|__|__/ | | \ X chem 7
glucose
-
if bicarb is low you expect pCO2 to be
low
-
if pCO2 is high you expect bicarb to be
high
-
example of cause of non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
diarrhea
-
example of cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis
excessive alcohol consumption
-
non-anion gap metabolic acidosis is characterized by
loss of bicarb
-
anion gap metabolic acidosis is characterized by
gain of acid
-
-
-
-
normal creatinine
0.6-1.2
-
-
-
-
normal osmolality
275-295
-
primary etiology of respiratory acidosis
lungs fail to eliminate CO2
-
example of a cause of metabolic alkalosis
protracted vomiting
-
example of a cause of metabolic alkalosis
ingestion of a large quantity of base
-
in a metabolic alkalotic state will you have hypokalemia or hyperkalemia
hypokalemia
-
in a metabolic acidotic state will you have hypokalemia or hyperkalemia
hyperkalemia
-
primary etiology of respiratory alkalosis
lungs are eliminating too much CO2
-
in acute respiratory acidosis for every increase of pCO2 of 10mm pH decreases by
0.08
-
in chronic respiratory acidosis for every increase of pCO@ of 10mm, ph decreases by
0.03
-
in acute respiratory alkalosis for every decrease of pCO2 of 10mm pH increases by
0.08
-
in chronic respiratory alkalosis for every decrease of pCO2 of 10mm pH increases by
0.03
-
a pH which is too acid for the PCO2
metabolic acidosis
-
the only acid which can be exhaled via the lungs
carbon dioxide
-
includes all of the body's acids except carbon dioxide
metabolic acids
-
difference between the sum of the major anions and the major cations
anion gap
-
_____ is the same as Respiratory Acidosis
high pCO2
-
The normal value of pCO2 in arterial blood is __mmHg
40
-
implies a raised [H+] level with a normal PCO2
pure metabolic acidosis
-
high PCO2 causes molecules of CO2 and water to form carbonic acid which ionizes to increase both [HCO3-] and [H+]
pure respiratory acidosis
-
hematocrit >60
polycythemia
-
increases blood viscosity
polycythemia
-
idiopathic recurrent alveolar hemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
good pasture syndrome
-
disease of children or young adults characterized by recurrent pulmonary hemorrhage
idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
-
pulmonary hypertension is characterized by elevated mean pulmonary pressure of greater than __mmHg at rest
25
-
patients with pulmonary hypertension also have
low cardiac output
-
the most common secondary cause of pulmonary hypertension
connective tissue disease (scleroderma)
-
this should be performed in all patients suspected of pulmonary hypertension
right ventricular catheterization
-
median survival after diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension ____ years
3
-
a proximal DVT is above the _____
knee
-
stasis, hypercoagulability, venous injury
Virchow's triad
-
a break down product of a thrombus
d-dimer
-
characteristic of d-dimer
sensitive, but not specific
-
d-dimer is best for _______ DVT, or PE
ruling out
-
gold standard for suspected DVT, however it is rarely done
contrast venography
-
most common and practical means of detecting DVT
ultrasound
-
for a patient with DVT treat with ____ for about 5 days
UFH or LMWH
-
for a patient with DVT treat with ____ for at least 3 months
warfarin
-
Increased bioavailability, Once or twice daily subcutaneous delivery, Monitoring not generally required, Outpatient therapy facilitated, Lower rate of HIT
advantages of LMWH over UFH
-
Dyspnea 73%,Pleuritic CP 66%, Cough 37%, Leg swelling 28%,Leg pain 26%, Hemoptysis 13%
history of PE
-
Tachycardia 70%, Tachypnea 30%, Crackles 51%, Loud P2 23%, Diaphoresis 11%, Hypotension 8%
physical exam of PE
-
most common test for PE
spiral CT
-
gold standard for PE but rarely done
pulmonary arteriogram
-
noninvasive method of monitoring SaO2
oximetry
-
Fetal oxygen saturation monitoring
FSpO2
-
Normal oxygen saturation for baby in the womb is between 30% and ___%
70
-
the amount of light absorbed by oxygen-saturated hemoglobin is measured by the sensor to determine saturation levels
oximetry
-
a machine that can measure air volumes
spirometer
-
in spirometry values greater than __% of predicted values are considered normal
80
-
most labs use _____ to measure diffusing capacity because of its great affinity for hemoglobin
carbon monoxide
-
amount of air that can be forcefully expelled from a maximally inflated lung position
FVC
-
volume of air expelled during the first second of FVC
FEV1
-
in restrictive lung disease ______ should be measured
FEV1/FVC ratio
-
maximal rate of air flow through the pulmonary tree during forced expiration
MMEF (maximal midexpiratory flow)
-
MMEF volumes are lower than expected in
obstructive pulmonary disease
-
MMEF volumes are normal in
restrictive pulmonary disease
-
maximal volume of air a patient can breath in and out during 1 minute
MVV (maximal volume ventilation)
-
MVV is less than the predicted value in
both obstructive pulmonary disease and restrictive pulmonary disease
-
volume of air inspired and expired with each normal respiration
TV (tidal volume)
-
maximal volume of air that can be inspired from end of normal inspiration
IRV (inspiratory reserve volume)
-
maximal volume of air that can be exhaled after normal exhalation
ERV (expiratory reserve volume)
-
volume of air remaining in the lungs following forced expiration
RV (residual volume)
-
maximal volume of air that can be inspired after normal expiration
IC (inspiratory capacity)
-
amount of air left in lungs after normal expiration
FRC (functional residual capacity)
-
maximal amount of air that can be expired after maximal inspiration
VC (vital capacity)
-
volume to which lungs can be expanded with greatest inspiratory effort
TLC (total lung capacity)
-
volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a minute
MV (minute volume)
-
Part of VT that does not participate in alveolar gas exchange
dead space
-
Portion of air flow curve most affected by airway obstruction
FEF (forced expiratory flow)
-
flow rate of inspired air during maximum inspiration. indicates large airway disease
PIFR (peak inspiratory flow rate)
-
maximum airflow rate during forced expiration
PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate)
-
typically used to detect the presence of hyperactive airway disease
methacholine or histamine challenge
-
highlighted by perialveolar inflammation followed by fibrosis
interstitial lung disease
-
Patients with COPD can be expected to have increased ______
RV and ERV
-
these patients have reduced lung volumes, impaired diffusing capacity, and exercise-induced hypoxemia
inhalant pneumonitis (farmer's lung, miner's lung)
-
post-pneumonectomy no changes in ______ would be expected
air flow rates
-
What studies are indicated in any person who snore's excessively; experiences narcolepsy, excessive daytime sleeping, or insomnia
sleep studies
-
includes insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy and RLS
dyssomnia
-
includes sleep walking, sleep talking, sleep terrors, REM disorders
parasomnia
-
the most common type of sleep apnea
obstructive
-
obstructive sleep apnea is caused by relaxation of the
posterior pharyngeal muscles
-
____ sleep apnea is characterized by a simple cessation of breathing
central
-
frequent and irreversible need for sleep during daytime hours
narcolepsy
-
acute sensation of discomfort during periods of inactivity making sleep difficult
restless leg syndrome
-
causes patients to act out their dreams, these patients can vividly recall dreams
REM disorders
-
inability to sleep
insomnia
-
most common form of sleep disorder
insomnia
-
in spirometry ____ impairments are defined by a low FEV1 and a low FEV1/FVC%
obstructive
-
in spirometry _____ impairments are characterized by a proportional decrease in FEV1 and FVC, leading to a preserved FEV1/FVC%
restrictive
-
_____ impairments will have a flattened flow-volume loop
obstructive
-
disease associated with increased elastic recoil
lung fibrosis
-
diseases associated with increased elastic recoil are associated with _____ FRC
decreased
-
disease associated with decreased elastic recoil
emphysema
-
diseases associated with decreased elastic recoil are associated with _____ FRC
increased
-
extrinsic cause of restrictive lung disorder
obesity, pleural effusion
-
Pulse oximetry is not accurate in using to titrate O2 therapy in
advanced COPD
-
pulse oximetry of <___% at rest required for O2 therapy
88
-
low DLCO with restriction can be seen in
interstitial lung disease, pneumonitis
-
low DLCO with obstruction can be seen in
emphysema, cystic fibrosis, bronchiolitis
-
low DLCO with normal spirometry can be seen in
anemia, pulmonary vasculitis, early interstitial lung disease
-
This test records several body functions during sleep
polysomnography
-
Used for quick relief of asthma symptoms no matter the classification
short acting beta2 agonist
-
used daily for long term control of asthma in all classifications except mild intermittent
inhaled corticosteroids
-
potent bronchodilators that are the drug of choice for mild intermittent asthma
short acting beta2 agonist
-
onset of action 5-30 minutes, with relief for 4-6 hours
short acting beta2 agonist
-
drug of choice for acute anaphylaxis
epinephrine
-
Beta 2 agonists have no anti-inflammatory effects and therefore
should not be use as the sole therapeutic agent for management of persistent asthma
-
albuterol
short acting beta2 agonist
-
terbutaline
short acting beta2 agonist
-
all patients with asthma should be prescribed a
quick-relief inhaler
-
salmeterol
long acting beta2 agonist (LABA)
-
xinafoate
long acting beta2 agonist (LABA)
-
formoterol
long acting beta2 agonist (LABA)
-
have slower onset of action and should not be used for quick relief of asthma symptoms
long acting beta2 agonist (LABA)
-
considered to be useful adjunctive therapy for attaining asthma control
long acting beta2 agonist (LABA)
-
drug of first choice for any degree of persistent asthma
inhaled corticosteroids
-
patients achieving ____ consecutive months of improved asthma control may be considered for a reduction in inhaled corticosteroid dosing
6-Mar
-
targets underlying airway inflammation
inhaled corticosteroids
-
patients with severe exacerbation of asthma may require
intravenous injection of methylprednisolone or oral prednisone
-
severe exacerbation of asthma
status asthmaticus
-
____ decrease the deposition of drug in the mouth caused by improper inhaler technique
spacers
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