Nutrition Midterm

When people eat foods of their family's geographical location, their eating patterns are being influenced by

a. habit.
b. personal preference.
c. ethnic heritage or tradition.
d. physical appearance.
e. nutrition.

People who eat foods to relieve boredom or calm anxiety are eating for reasons of

a. nutrition.
b. values.
c. economy.
d. emotional comfort.
e. availability.

The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey for 2001-2002 describes several additional reasons that may affect our food choices. Which of the following reasons would you expect to be covered?

a. Pregnancy status
b. Gender
c. Marital Status
d. Poverty Income Ratio
e. All of the above

Rhonda's desire for apple pie and ice cream reflects which of the following reasons for eating?

a. Availability
b. Nutritional value
c. Ethnic heritage
d. Gender
e. Emotional comfort

Immediate changes that Rhonda should make in her life to combat her sedentary lifestyle and obesity include

a. getting more exercise and reducing fat and sugar in her diet.
b. staying at work longer so she will not eat ice cream before bed.
c. switching to beef frozen dinners from chicken, to reduce calories.
d. giving up walking from the train and getting a car so she would get home more quickly.

All of the following are classified as macronutrients except

a. fat.
b. protein.
c. calcium.
d. carbohydrate.

By chemical analysis, which nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?

a. Fat
b. Water
c. Carbohydrate
d. Protein

Which of the following is an organic nutrient?

a. Fat
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Calcium

Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy to do work in our bodies?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Alcohol
c. Proteins
d. Fat

What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?

a. 160
b. 345
c. 560
d. 755

The muscular contractions that propel food through the digestive tract are called

A. defecation.
B. hydrolysis.
C. peristalsis.
D. denaturation.

Which sphincter muscle is situated between the stomach and the small intestine?

a. Cardiac sphincter
b. Pyloric sphincter
c. Ileocecal valve
d. Rectal sphincter

The partially digested food that enters the small intestine from the stomach is called

a. micelle.
b. bile.
c. chime.
d. feces.

A periodic squeezing of the intestines is

a. peristalsis.
b. diverticulosis.
c. segmentation.
d. defecation.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of organs in the digestive system?

a. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
b. Anus, mouth, small intestine, stomach, large intestine
c. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, anus, large intestine
d. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

The main function of bile is to

a. emulsify fats.
b. stimulate the activity of protein digestive enzymes.
c. neutralize the contents of the intestine.
d. increase peristalsis.

Which of the following organs does NOT secrete digestive enzymes?

a. Liver
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Salivary glands

What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices?

a. Water
b. Mucus
c. Pepsinogen
d. Dietary fats

Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach?

a. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown.
b. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional.
c. Starch should not be eaten with protein.
d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment.

The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to

a. raise the pH of chime.
b. lower the pH of chime.
c. hydrolyze large protein molecules.
d. provide a little fizz in your life.

1. Absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells occurs by all of the following mechanisms except

a. diffusion.
b. transmigration.
c. active transport.
d. facilitated diffusion.

To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to

a. take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate.
b. eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed all at once.
c. avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition.
d. combine different food types to enhance the absorption process.

When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested and absorbed into the blood stream, where do they go first?
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Spleen
d. Kidneys

If you were tracing the various products of digestion to absorption and transport in the body, and you focused on the fat soluble vitamins and large fats, which circulatory system would you be monitoring?
a. Vascular (blood) system
b. Mesenteric system
c. Lymphatic system
d. Enterohepatic system

The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release
a. lipase.
b. gastrin.
c. secretin.
d. cholecystokinin.

What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestines?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Gastric-inhibitory peptide

In which of the following would you almost always find sufficient amounts of carbohydrates?
a. Protein-rich foods
b. Health foods
c. Animal products
d. Plant foods

Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate?
a. White sugar
b. Disaccharides
c. Monosaccharides
d. Starches

Which of the following is NOT a true characteristic of glucose?
a. It is a monosaccharide.
b. It is soluble in water.
c. Glucose is sweeter tasting than sucrose.
d. It is part of a sucrose molecule.

Which of the following is a part of maltose, sucrose and lactose?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Sucrose

What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?
a. Absorption
b. Condensation
c. Hydrolysis
d. Mediation

What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose subunits?
a. Fibrinogen
b. Glucogon
c. Dextrin
d. Glycogen

What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose and lignin?
a. Fibers
b. Starches
c. Sugar alcohols
d. Artificial sweeteners

Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestines?
a. Pancreatic juice
b. Colonic cells
c. Villi membrane solvents
d. Bacteria

Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?
a. Muscle and liver
b. Pancreas and kidneys
c. Stomach and intestine
d. Brain and red blood cells

Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fiber?
a. Causes diverticulosis
b. Usually found in high fat foods
c. Raises blood cholesterol levels
d. Classified according to solubility in water

Which of the following enzymes does NOT act on simple sugars?
a. Lactase
b. Sucrase
c. Amylase
d. Maltase

The role of the liver in monosaccharide absorption is to convert
a. glucose to fructose.
b. fructose to glucose.
c. sucrose to glycogen.
d. maltose to fructose.

All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except
a. nausea.
b. diarrhea.
c. cramping.
d. constipation.

Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet?
a. Whey
b. Casein
c. Dextrins
d. Milk solids

Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt?
a. Bacteria in the product produce lactase.
b. It is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people.
c. There are only trace amounts of lactose present.
d. The lactose content is about one-half that of milk.

What is the primary function of insulin?
a. Raises blood glucose levels
b. Lowers blood glucose levels
c. Stimulates glycogen breakdown
d. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption

Which is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?
a. Brain
b. Liver
c. Muscle
d. Pancreas

When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration?
a. Insulin
b. Secretin
c. Glucosine
d. Epinephrine

Type 2 diabetes is also known as
a. prediabetes.
b. adult-onset diabetes.
c. anti-glycemic intolerance.
d. insulin-dependent diabetes.

Which of the following is best known to result from (not caused by) the regular ingestion of sugar?
a. Ulcers
b. Diabetes
c. Dental caries
d. Cardiovascular disease

What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages?
a. High-fructose corn syrup
b. Invert sugar
c. Sucrose
d. Glucose

1. Which of the following is among food intake recommendations for reducing the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods?

a. Eat sugary foods separate from meals.
b. Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits.
c. Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly.
d. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day.

What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose?
a. Molassas
b. Invert sugar
c. Turbinado sugar
d. High-fructose syrup

What is stevia?
a. An herb-derived sweetener
b. An FDA-approved sugar alcohol
c. A poorly digested polysaccharide
d. An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity

What is the chemical composition of fats?
a. Hexose polymers
b. Glycogen granules
c. Fatty acids and glycerol
d. Combinations of long chain fatty acids

Most fats are a mixture of monounsaturated, saturated, and polyunsaturated fats. Given each of the following choices, pick the one that would give you the least amount of saturated fat.

Butter	or	Cottonseed oil
Peanut oil	or	Safflower oil
Canola oil	or	Olive oil
Corn oil	or	Cottonseed oil

Which of the following would you choose to give you the most healthful polyunsaturated omega-3 fats?
a. Sunflower oil
b. Canola oil
c. Corn oil
d. Butter

Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
a. amino acids.
b. double bonds.
c. saccharide units.
d. peptide linkages.

Of the following foods, which has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
a. Butter
b. Soybean
c. Coconut
d. Beef tallow

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis?
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small Intestine
d. Large Intestine

d. Large IntestinWhat is the storage site of bile?
a. Liver
b. Pancreas
c. Gallbladder
d. Intestinal epithelial cells

In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as
a. detergents.
b. hormones.
c. enzymes.
d. chylomicrons.

Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzyme?

a. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids.
b. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays a significant role in fat digestion in infants.
c. Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults.
d. Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion.

In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains
a. less lipid.
b. less protein.
c. more cholesterol.
d. more carbohydrate.

Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?
a. Lecithin
b. Cholesterol
c. Stearic acid
d. Linoleic acid

A deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids may be associated with
a. stroke.
b. depression.
c. pancreatic cancer.
d. intestinal villi blockage.

What parts of the body will be the first to show the negative effects of fasting?
a. Kidneys and Spleen
b. Brain and red blood cells
c. Liver and small intestine
d. Stomach and heart tissue

Approximately what percentage of the body's energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?
a. 5
b. 25
c. 40
d. 60

Which of the following presents the greatest danger to rising blood cholesterol?
a. The amount of cholesterol in food
b. The amount of saturated fat in food
c. The amount of water consumed each day
d. The amount of exercise performed each day

The results of blood tests that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a
a. lipid profile.
b. circulating fat count.
c. personal lipids count.
d. degenerative disease assessment.

Approximately how many kcalories are contained in a pound of body fat?
a. 1,000
b. 2,500
c. 3,500
d. 4,500

As a percentage of daily energy intake, what is the recommended range for the essential fatty acids?
a. 2.5 - 5.5
b. 5.6 - 11.2
c. 12 - 19
d. 20 - 35

A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal amounts of
a. eggs.
b. olive oil.
c. lean meat.
d. fortified butter.

For most adults, what is the recommended minimum amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intake?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 20
d. 35

Which of the following is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes?
a. A minimum of 75% fat energy in the diet is needed by athletes.
b. Greater endurance is found on a 50% fat diet than on a 10% fat diet.
c. Optimal performance is found with a high carbohydrate, 15% total fat kcalories diet.
d. Diets with at least 10% total kcalories from fat are able to provide the recommended amounts of micronutrients.

What element is found in proteins but NOT in carbohydrates and fats?
a. Carbon
b. Oxygen
c. Calcium
d. Nitrogen

What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?
a. Number of side chains in the protein
b. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein
c. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
d. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain

What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?
a. Denaturation
b. Digestion
c. Condensation
d. Hydrogenation

Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 35

What is the process that results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat?
a. Solidification
b. Condensation
c. Protein interaction
d. Denaturation

Upon eating a hamburger, in what organ is the hydrolysis of protein begun?
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid?
a. Pepsin
b. Transaminase
c. Pancreatic protease
d. Intestinal peptidase

In which organ is pepsin active?
a. Stomach
b. Pancreas
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?
a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Nucleic acid
d. Carbohydrate

In relation to protein synthesis, the role of DNA in the nucleus is to
a. assemble amino acids into the right order directly.
b. make messenger RNA as a translation of the DNA code.
c. make transfer RNA which carries the DNA code into the cytoplasm.
d. make the amino acids necessary for synthesizing a protein.

The physical site where amino acids are sequenced in the cell is
a. nuclear membrane.
b. single strand of DNA in the nucleus.
c. ribosome in the cytoplasm.
d. mitochondria membranes in the cytoplasm.

Which of the following is a condition resulting from an incorrect amino acid sequence in hemoglobin?
a. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Down's syndrome
c. Turner's syndrome
d. Fragile-X syndrome

Which of the following best describes the structure of messenger RNA?
a. It is a complex protein.
b. It is a complete carbohydrate chain.
c. It is an essential nutrient in all cells.
d. It is a nucleic acid copy of nuclear DNA.

The carrier molecules of amino acids found in the cytoplasm are
a. tRNA molecules.
b. mRNA molecules.
c. DNA from the nucleus.
d. amino acids from the cytoplasm.

Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones?
a. Inactivate bacteria
b. Act as messenger molecules
c. Coordinate visual response
d. Act as buffers in the bloodstream

What help does a buffer perform?
a. Helps emulsify fats
b. Helps maintain a constant pH
c. Facilitates chemical reactions
d. Helps protect against plaque buildup

Which of the following are proteins that inactivate foreign bacteria and viruses?
a. Enzymes
b. Collagen
c. Hormones
d. Antibodies

Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood?
a. Opsin
b. Fibrin
c. Collagen
d. Transferring

Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody?
a. Tripeptide
b. Small nucleic acid
c. Large protein molecule
d. Large carbohydrate chain

What is the fate of excess dietary protein?
a. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids.
b. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded.
c. Digestion will be decreased by 30 - 60%, resulting in less absorption.
d. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal.

If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?
a. Protein synthesis will be limited.
b. Body cells will synthesize it.
c. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate.
d. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid.

What is complementary protein nutrition?
a. A body process involving synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by breakdown of storage proteins.
b. A dietary program involving consumption of vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days.
c. A strategy of combining plant proteins in the same meal to improve the balance of essential amino acids.
d. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing protein intake and energy intake.

Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?
a. Corn
b. Rice
c. Egg
d. Gelatin

What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency?
a. Increased uptake of circulating fats
b. Increased absorption of dietary fats
c. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats
d. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export

All of the following are advantages of vegetarian diets EXCEPT
a. fat content is lower.
b. fiber content is higher.
c. vitamin B12 intake is higher.
d. vitamins A and C are found in generous quantities.

Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?
a. Plant foods only
b. Eggs and plant foods only
c. Meat, eggs, and plant foods only
d. Milk products and plant foods only

Which of the following ingredients found on a food label is a protein?
a. BHT
b. Tofu
c. Corn starch
d. Diglycerides

Textured vegetable protein is usually made of
a. soy protein.
b. fish protein.
c. bean plus rice proteins.
d. bean plus cheese proteins.

In general, a newborn infant is able to thrive during the early months by ingesting only breast milk and a source of
a. iron.
b. calcium.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.

Which of the following is a feature of catabolic reactions?
a. Involve the release of energy
b. Occur only in the mitochondria
c. Involve consumption of energy
d. Occur only during loss of body weight

What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells?
a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Pyruvate
d. A kcalorie

Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?
a. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP.
b. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP.
c. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP.
d. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP.

In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as
a. heat.
b. photons.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. electromagnetic radiation.

What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body?
a. 40
b. 60
c. 85
d. 99

Glycolysis is the conversion of
a. glycogen to fat.
b. glycogen to protein.
c. glucose to pyruvate.
d. glucose to glycogen.

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of glycolysis?
a. It is irreversible.
b. It generates ATP.
c. It occurs in the absence of oxygen.
d. It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose.

When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, it is most likely due to the muscles accumulation of
a. ammonia.
b. citric acid.
c. lactic acid.
d. pyruvic acid.

Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose?
a. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
b. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
c. Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
d. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, anaerobic respiration

Which of the following products is NOT generated via TCA cycle or electron transport chain?
a. Water
b. Energy
c. Ammonia
d. Carbon dioxide

Which of the following cannot be used to make body proteins?
a. Glucose
b. Glycerol
c. Fatty acids
d. Amino acids

If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
a. Fatty acids
b. Acetyl-CoA
c. Amino acids
d. Carbon dioxide

In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group?
a. Excreted as urea
b. Burned for energy
c. Stored in the liver
d. Converted to glucose

The body's need for water increases on a diet high in
a. protein.
b. carbohydrate.
c. saturated fat.
d. unsaturated fat.

Which of the following is not a possible fate of metabolized glucose?
a. Urea
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Amino acids
d. Muscle glycogen

Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?
a. Excess fat is almost all stored.
b. Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation.
c. Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
d. Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient.

After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following is most depleted in the body?
a. Glycogen
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. Triglycerides

During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?
a. Ketones
b. Glycogen
c. Triglycerides
d. Protein

Which of the following is a feature of ketosis?
a. Results from excess carbohydrate in the diet
b. Results from excess acetoacetate in the diet
c. Occurs when fats are partially oxidized
d. Occurs from lack of protein in the diet

A person with fruity odor on the breath demonstrates evidence of metabolic
a. ketosis.
b. alkalosis.
c. transamination.
d. anaerobic breakdown.

Which organ is first to absorb alcohol after taking a drink?
a. Colon
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol for fuel?
a. Brain
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Digestive tract

Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
a. It is increased about 20% on an empty stomach.
b. It is increased from the GI tract by high-fat snacks.
c. It is increased from the GI tract by carbohydrate snacks.
d. It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight.

What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?
a. Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
b. Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
c. Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
d. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis

Which of the following is/are best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?
a. Not eating
b. Protein snacks
c. Caffeine drinks
d. Carbohydrate snacks

What instrument is used to measure the energy content of foods?
a. Energy chamber
b. Exothermic meter
c. Bomb calorimeter
d. Combustion chamber

External cues that may cause an obese person to respond helplessly to food typically include all of the following except
a. TV commercials.
b. outdoor exercises.
c. availability of food.
d. "time of day" patterns.

Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?
a. Apples
b. Peanuts
c. Doughnuts
d. Potato chips

Which of the following may be used to calculate the amount of energy expended by the body?
a. Oxygen consumed
b. Total air exchanged
c. Intestinal gas expelled
d. Carbon dioxide consumed

If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has
a. more body fat.
b. stronger bones.
c. stronger muscles.
d. more muscle mass.

If a normal 60 kg person has a resting energy expenditure of 1300 kcal/day, about how many total kilocalories are needed to sustain four hours of studying?
a. 50
b. 120
c. 260
d. 350

An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called
a. body mass index.
b. height to weight index.
c. ideal body weight index.
d. desirable body weight index.

What is the weight classification assigned both to young women with 30% body fat and young men with 20% body fat?
a. Obese
b. Normal
c. Mildly overweight
d. Slightly underweight

Which of the following defines central obesity?
a. Accumulation of fat during the mid-years of life
b. Storage of excess fat around the central part of the body
c. Overfatness due to a large number of interacting behavioral problems
d. Overfatness due to reliance on high fat foods as a central part of the diet.

Research in obese people seems to show that there is no increase in the risks for strokes and hypertension provided that the excess body fat is distributed around the
a. stomach.
b. arms and chest.
c. hips and thighs.
d. neck and shoulders.

Current dietary trends in fat and/or energy intake for adult Americans include all of the following except
a. our actual fat intake has increased by 3 g per day.
b. our average daily energy intake has risen by 200 kcalories.
c. our fat intake has decreased from 35% to 33% of daily energy intake.
d. our higher prevalence of obesity is due primarily to excess carbohydrate intake.

All of the following are features of high-protein diets except
a. they have a high satiety index.
b. they advise dieters to not count kcalories.
c. they provide for long-term weight maintenance.
d. they typically recommend intakes of 800 to 1200 kcal/day.

What is the primary reason for the weight loss seen on common high-protein diets?
a. Low energy intake
b. A fall in the rate of de novo lipogenesis
c. Liberal intake of low glycemic index foods
d. Low blood insulin levels which favors fat oxidation

Which of the following is characteristic of dieting and ketosis?
a. Ketogenic diets typically reduce urine production.
b. There is a strong relationship between ketosis and weight loss.
c. Body fat losses on a ketogenic diet are initially high but then taper off after one week.
d. Body fat losses on a ketogenic diet are not higher than on other diets of equivalent kcalories.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of typical low-carbohydrate diets?
a. Fatigue
b. Nausea
c. Constipation
d. High blood pressure

Adverse effects on organs such as the liver from the presence of excess body fat is known as
a. lipotoxicity.
b. hyperplastic lipase.
c. set point susceptibility.
d. hyper-responsive ghrelin.

Which of the following is a feature of leptin?
a. It is an enzyme.
b. It acts primarily on the brain.
c. It is usually deficient in obese people.
d. It is secreted by the brain and acts on fat cells.

In comparison with non-obese people, obese people have a lower
a. basal metabolic rate.
b. thermic effect of food.
c. physical activity level.
d. metabolic response to exercise.

What is the most important single contributor to the obesity problem in the United States?
a. High-fat diets
b. Physical inactivity
c. Environmental factors
d. Overabundance of foods

What is the primary action of orlistat, a weight loss drug?
a. It reduces taste sensation.
b. It inhibits lipoprotein lipase.
c. It inhibits pancreatic lipase.
d. It alters circulating leptin concentrations.

All of the following are sensible guidelines for diet plans except
a. consume low-fat foods regularly.
b. eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food.
c. adjust energy intake downward as weight loss progresses.
d. include vegetables, fruits, and grains as the mainstay of the diet.

What is the best approach to weight loss?
a. Avoid foods containing carbohydrates
b. Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake
c. Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss
d. Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure

In a weight reduction regimen, the most realistic time frame for losing 10% of initial body weight is
a. 6 weeks.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 1 year.

The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best promoted by diets rich in
a. fat.
b. short-chain fats.
c. simple carbohydrates.
d. complex carbohydrates.

Which of the following is NOT an adaptive response to regular physical exercise?
a. It curbs appetite.
b. It stimulates digestive function in the postexercise period.
c. It increases energy expenditure in the postexercise period.
d. It triggers release of lipids from adipocytes from all over the body.

An important aid in any weight-loss diet program is to
a. decrease water intake.
b. increase physical activity.
c. speed up thyroid activity with metabolic enhancers.
d. develop ketosis by maintaining carbohydrate intake as low as possible.

Anorexia nervosa is most common in
a. male elderly.
b. male adolescents.
c. female executives.
d. female adolescents.

What term is given to a female athlete who has an eating disorder and develops amenorrhea and osteoporosis?
a. Female athlete triad
b. Triathlete medical disorder
c. High stress tertiary disorder
d. Nonadaptable training syndrome

Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?
a. Most are aware of their condition and seek treatment.
b. Fewer than 200 women die each year from the disease.
c. In those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns.
d. During initial treatment, metabolism slows and appetite increases but thereafter subsides.

Typical foods chosen by a person with bulimia nervosa during a binge include all of the following except
a. bread.
b. cookies.
c. ice cream.
d. vegetables.

Which of the following would NOT be a diet recommendation for a person with bulimia nervosa?
a. Avoid skipping meals
b. Eat cold foods to stimulate satiety
c. Include fiber-rich foods
d. Avoid "finger" foods to minimize overeating