Mod f

  1. The interstitial cells in the testicles begin to produce what sex hormone responsible for the growth and development of male sex characteristics?
  2. The formation of sperm is called what?
  3. The glas penis is surrounded by a fold of skin called what?
    prepuce (foreskin)
  4. A condition in which the testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth
  5. Inflammation of the testicles; may or may not be associated with the mumps virus?
  6. A multistage STD where a infectious chancre, a painless, red pustule, appears in the first stage, usually on the genitals.
  7. A blood test for prostatic hypertrophy. Very high levels may indicate prostate cancer.
    Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
  8. Removal of the prostate in section through a urethral approach.
    Transurethral resection of the prostate (TUR,TURP)
  9. Incision, ligation, and cauterization of both of the vas deferens for the purpose of male sterilization
  10. Hormone that causes the ovarian follicles to begin to mature and secrete estrogen
    Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  11. Released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, this hormone stimulates the follicle to mature and release its ovum (ovulation), and aids in the developement of the corpus luteum.
    luteinizing hormone (LH)
  12. preputi/0 is the combining form for?
  13. what is the pathway of sperm?
    Testes-epididymis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct-urethra
  14. A doctor who treats both urinary and reproductive disorders in men. (As well as urinary disorders in women)
  15. At ovulation, the egg travels from an ovary to the uterus through what?
    fallopian tubes
  16. A surgical incision that may be done to allow for easier passage of the infant during childbirth.
  17. A fungal (yeast) infection of the vaginal tissue that may result from antibiotic use, oral contraceptives, diabetes, or pregnancy
    Candidiasis, signs and symptoms are thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge
  18. growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus and pelvic cavity
  19. A Apgar total score of ___ is perfect and indicates the infant is in the best possible condition
  20. An apgar score lower than ____ indicates the newborn requires immediate attention and possible placement in a neonatal intensive care unit.
  21. A pregnancy disorder in which woman are unable to metabolize carbohydrates; develops during the latter part of pregnancy (24-28 weeks) and the risk factors are obesity and age over 30 years.
    Gestational diabetes
  22. An infection caused by protozoa and spread through sexual contact, symptoms include a yellowish green, frothy discharge; itching; and vaginal irritation with dysuria
  23. At what age should a BSE start?
  24. When is the best time to perform a BSE?
    at least 1 week after the menstrual cycle when breasts are less tender, and at about the same time each month
  25. True or false, at age 30, besides a monthly BSE, it is recommended to have a clinical breast examination performed by a physician or other health care professional.
  26. At what age, in addition to the BSE and clinical breast examination, should an annual mammogram by a licensed technician is recommended.
  27. In a pelvic examination, a pt is placed in this dorsal recumbent position first?
    lithotomy position
  28. True or false, an abnormal pap smear is a diagnosis
    false, it is a result that leads to diagnosis by further testing and tx if necessary
  29. Inflammation of the vaginal tissure caused by fungus, bacteria, protozoa, or irritation from chemicals or foreign objects.
  30. What must accompany all specimens to the laboratory for microscopic examination and evaluation.
    cytology laboratory requisition
  31. What are some equipment and supplies used in a gynecological exam?
    pt gown and drape, nonsterile disposable gloves, gauze squares, speculum, light source, lubricant, tissues, cytology requistion, transport media, urine specimen container, biohazardous waste container, pt medical record
  32. What class on a Bethesda System indicates a suspiciuos pap?
  33. True or false, an IUD is a barrier method?
  34. A test to determine the presence of absence of antibodies to rubella
    rubella titer
  35. What tests are performed in the early stages of pregnancy?
    cbc, blood chemistry, rubella titer, urinalysis to detect infection, glucose, or protein.
  36. What is the classification/indication of Copaxone?
    Tx: multiple sclerosis
  37. what is the generic name for Copaxone?
    glatiramer acetate
  38. What is Diabeta used for?
    antidiabetic, tx: type II diabetes
  39. What is the generic form of Diabeta?
  40. What is the classification of Insulin?
    antidiabetic, hypoglycemia
  41. What is the generic form of Insulin?
  42. Prevacid is used for what?
    anti acid tx:ulcers
  43. What is the generic form of Prevacid?
  44. Tri-leven is what type of medication?
    birth control
  45. what is the generic form of Tri-Levlen?
  46. What medication is used for birth control?
    B:Tri-Levlen g:levonorgestrel
  47. What medication is used to treat ulcers and is an anti acid?
    B:Prevacid g: lansoprazole
  48. What medication is an antidiabetic or hypoglycemic medication?
    B:Insulin g:insulin
  49. What medication is used to treat type II diabetes?
    B:Diabeta g:glyburide
  50. What medication is used to treat multiple sclerosis?
    B:Copaxone g:glatiramer acetate
Card Set
Mod f
ch. 3-6