Pathology I Block 1

  1. What type of necrosis is seen in the brain?
  2. What type of necrosis is seen in tuberculosis patients?
  3. What type of necrosis occurs everywhere in the body except in the brain?
  4. A type of necrosis where antigen:antibody complexes bind to fibrin in a Blood Vessel is called what?
  5. In a patient with acute pancreatitis what type of necrosis is seen?
    fat necrosis
  6. Necrosis due to bacterial or fungal infection is caused what?
    Liquefactive necrosis
  7. What type of necrosis is described as cheeselike?
  8. Coagulative necrosis superimposed with infection is said to be what?
    wet gangrene
  9. What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis in terms of the cell size?
    • Necrosis--swelled cell
    • Apoptosis--shrinked cell
  10. What are the nuclear changes seen in necrosis?
    • Pyknosis---> karyorrhexis---> karyolysis
    • decreased size of nucleus and increased basophilia---> fragmentation of nucleus--> diminished basophilia
  11. Myositis ossificans?
    Bone formation in muscle
  12. Gastric acid reflux is known to cause what type of metaplasia?
    Squamous to columnar metaplasia
  13. Barret's esophagus
    • Glandular metaplasia
    • squamous--->columnar
  14. Deficiency of what vitamin results in squamous metaplasia?
    Vitamin A
  15. What kind of metaplasia occurs in a chronic cigarette smoker?
    Columnar to squamous metaplasia
  16. What happens to the gyri and sulci in a patient with Alzeimer's?
    The gyri are narrowed and sulci are widened
  17. What is used to identify Glycogen?
    • Best carmine
    • PAS reaction
  18. In what age group are you going to encounter lipofuscin?
  19. What is ochronosis?
    tissues turning a dark color
  20. What stain is used for Iron?
    Prussian Blue
  21. Pallor, icterus, cyanosis, Clubbing, Lymphodenopathy, edema
  22. Werner's?
    premature aging
  23. What causes coagulative necrosis?
  24. History of stroke would produce what necrosis?
  25. Necrosis and infection produces what type of necrosis?
  26. In what ppl would you find fat necrosis?
  27. Depostition of immune complexes produces what type of necrosis?
  28. Hypesensitivity reactions Type III produces what type of necrosis?
    Fibrinoid necrosis
  29. Cyanine inhibits what enzyme?
    cytochrome oxidase
  30. What is worse, hypoxia or ischemia, why?
    ischemia because aerobic and anaerobic oxidation is halted
  31. How does protein malnutrition cause fatty change in the liver?
    no protein= no apolipoprotein= can't export FA out of the liver
  32. How does hypoxia cause fatty change in the liver/heart?
    Hypoxia= low oxygen= inhibits fatty acid oxidation
  33. How does starvation cause fatty acid liver change?
    starvation increases mobilization of fatty acids
  34. Two stains for fat?
    • Sudan black
    • Oil-Red-O
  35. What is used to stain for Glycogen?
    PAS- periodic acid shift
  36. How does anemia produce a tigered affect of affected myocardium with unaffected myocardium with fatty change?
    anemia=low oxygen=inhibition of FA oxidation= deposition of lipids in alternating myocardium
  37. What is cholesterolosis?
    cholesterol rich macrophages in the lamina propria of the gall bladder
  38. What is Atherosclerosis?
    smooth muscle cells and macrophages filled with oxidized cholesterol in the intima layer of the arterial wall
  39. What is a Xanthoma?
    cholesterol filled macrophages in the CT
  40. Where are Xanthomas found?
    • Skin
    • Tendon
  41. Nieman Pick C results in what?
    cholesterol accumulation in multiple organs
  42. What are Russell bodies?
    rER inclusions filled with proteins due to increased protein synthesis
  43. What is found in pink hyaline reabsorption droplets?
  44. Where are pink hyaline reabsorption droplets found in the kidney due to proteinuria?
    proximal renal tubules
  45. In alpha-1- antitrypsin deficiency where do misfolded proteins accumulate?
    ER of the liver
  46. In what cells are Russell bodies found?
    active plasma cells
  47. Vimentin is an intermediate filament characteristic of what ?
    CT cells
  48. Glial intermediate filaments are characteristic of what cells?
  49. Intracellular accumulations of proteins usually appear as what?
    rounded eosinophilic droplets
  50. Eosinophilic inclusion droplets of what intermediate protein are found in alcoholic liver disease?
  51. Pink= hyaline droplets=protein
  52. Alcoholic hyaline is composed of what intermediate protein?
  53. Walls of kidney arteries are often hyalinzed due to what two chronic conditions?
    • hypertension
    • DM
  54. Accumulation of coal in macrophages in the lymph nodes in the tracheobronchial regions is called?
  55. Tattoo pigment and coal dust resides in what cell of the dermis?
  56. A product of lipid peroxidation of lipid membrane is what?
  57. What substrate acts as a telltale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation?
  58. What is cachexia?
    Physical wasting with loss of weight and muscle
  59. Where does lipofuscin accumulates?
    • perinuclear region of
    • - liver
    • - heart
  60. What is ochronosis?
    deposition of homogentisic acid in CT and skin
  61. Aggregates of ferritin micelles is called what?
  62. Stain for heme and hemosiderin?
    Prussian Blue
  63. Deposition of calcium in dying tissue, locally is called what?
    Dystrophic Calcification
  64. Hypercalcemia may lead to what type of calcification?
  65. In _____________ macrophages activate a vitamin D precursor.
  66. Calorie restriction activates a class of what proteins that are thought to promote expression of protein that mediate longevity
  67. Causes for acute inflammation?
    • infections
    • necrosis
    • foreign bodies
    • immune reactions
  68. 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?
    • rubor--redness
    • calor--heat
    • dolor--pain
    • tumor---swelling
    • function deficit
  69. Fluid that is rich in proteins, leukocytes in the interstitial space is called?
  70. Fluid that is low in protein and leukocytes in the interstitial space is called?
  71. In terms of specific gravity what is the difference between exudate and transudate?
    exudate has high specific gravity
  72. What are the 3 events of blood vessels that occur around the area of inflammation?
    • increased blood flow
    • increased vascular permeability
    • extravasation of leukocytes into the interstitial space
  73. Inflammation induced vasodilation is induced by what two chemical mediators?
    • histamine
    • NO
  74. Increased permeability of BV is mediated by the contraction of endothelial cells mediated by which molecules?
    histamine, bradykinin, substance P, leukotrienes
  75. Inflammation of lymph vessels is called?
  76. Inflammation of lymph nodes is called?
  77. What drains the increased extracellular fluid in the interstitial space during inflammatory edema?
    lymphatic vessels
  78. Angiogenesis as well as formation of new lymphatic vessels occurs during inflammation for what reason?
    • to accomodate increased blood flow
    • to accomodate increased extracellular fluid in the interstitium
  79. Sialyl-lewis glycoprotein on the leukocyte binds to what on the endothelium?
    P and E selectins
  80. Integrin binds to what on the endothelium?
  81. Which selectin is used for homing of T lymphocytes to HEV of lymph nodes?
  82. Firm adhesion of leukocytes to endothelium is mediated by what two molecules?
    • Integin---ICAM
    • Integrin--VCAM
  83. Which two molecules upregulate selectins on the endothelium in response to inflammation?
    • IL-1
    • TNF
  84. What increases the avidity of integrins?
  85. What molecule between enodothelial cells allows for transmigration?
  86. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I is caused by what?
    Defective LFA-1/integrin
  87. Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency type II is caused by what?
    defective fucosyl transferase which synthesizes Sialyl-Lewis glycoproteins
  88. What are the chemotactic agents that allow for migration of leukocytes in the Interstitium?
    • C5a
    • IL-8
    • LTB-4
    • Kallikrein
  89. Neutrophils predominate in infections caused by what?
  90. Mammalian glycoproteins and glycolipids contain _____ as the terminal group while bacterial glyco proteins and lipids contain-------
    • sialic acid and N-actylglucosamine
    • fucose and mannose
  91. The glycopeptide coat of all bacteria contains _______
    which is hydrolyzed by lysozy
    Muramic acid-N-acetylglucosamine
  92. Mediators of inflammation come from what two different sources?
    • cell produced
    • plasma proteins via liver
  93. Histamine acts on which receptors located on the arterioles and post capillary venules?
  94. What essential aa gives rise to arachidonic acid?
    Linoleic acid
  95. Which prostoglandin induces uterine contraction and broncho and vasoconstriction?
  96. Which prostoglandin inhibits platelet aggregation and is a potent vasodilator?
  97. Lipoxins A and B have what function?
    inhibit neutrophil adhesion and chemotaxis
  98. What is the function of PGD and E?
    • Vasodilation
    • increased permeability
  99. Which leukotriene is involved in neutrophil chemotaxis?
  100. Which leukotriens mediate vaso and bronchoconstriction?
    LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
  101. What agent blocks conversion of AA to Leukotrienes?
  102. What agent blocks leukotriene receptor?
  103. Which chemical mediator has both inflammatory functions such as vasodilation and increasing permeability as well as inhibiting leukocyte adhesion?
  104. The familial Mediterranea fever is caused by a deficient what?
    IL-1 production
  105. Chronic inflammation as in Familial Mediterrean fever results in protein deposition in tissues called what?
  106. Sustained production of what contributes to cachexia?
  107. Chemokines signal thru what type of receptor?
    G protein coupled receptors
  108. Which chemokine is used as a coreceptor for HIV1?
    • CCR-5
    • CXCR-4
  109. What cytokine is produced by Th17 cells that recruit neutrophils?
  110. What are the 3 functions of Complement system?
    • inflammation ---via C3a, C5a
    • phagocytosis---C3b
    • MAC---C5b-C9
  111. Factor XII has an effect on what 4 different cascades?
    • Kinin
    • Fibrinolytic
    • complement
    • Clotting
  112. What type of signalling is upregulated in Marfans?
  113. FBN-2 mutation
    Congenital contractural arachnodactyly
  114. Diagnostic tool for Marfans?
  115. Gaping defects
    Ehler's Danlos syndrome
  116. What chronic inflammatory conditions lead to cancer?
    • viral hepatitis
    • H. Pylori gastritis
    • chronic pancreatitis
    • Ulcerative colitis
  117. Chronic inflammation can lead to what 4 conditions?
    • cancer
    • neurodegenerative disorder (Alzeimer's)
    • Diabete Mellitus I
    • Atherosclerosis
  118. What are the possible mechanisms of chronic inflammation leading to neoplasms?
    • stem cell recruitment
    • production of ROS
    • survival signals
  119. What are the 3 events to which acute inflammation can ultimately lead to?
    • 1. Resolution of inflammation
    • 2. Fibrosis
    • 3. Chronic inflammation
  120. What are the 3 products that cause tissue damage in chronic/acute inflammation?
    • lysosomal enzyme
    • ROS
    • NO
  121. What are the 3 molecules which mediate fever?
    • Il-1
    • TNF
    • Prostoglandins
  122. How does LPS induce fever?
    • LPS induces Il-1 and TNF release from Leukocytes
    • IL-1 and TNF upregulate COX enzyme
    • COX enzyme synthesizes PGE2
    • PGE2 resets temperature point in posterior hypothalamus
  123. What two molecules mediate pain?
    • prostoglandins
    • Bradykinin
  124. Which chemokine receptors are used by HIV-1 for entry into the cell?
    • CCR-5
    • CXCR-4
  125. What are the molecules involved in acute inflammation?
    • TNF
    • Il-1
    • IL-6
    • Chemokines
  126. What are the molecules involved in chronic inflammation?
    • INF-gamma
    • IL-12
    • IL-17
  127. What are the vasoconstriction molecules?
    • TXA
    • LT C, D,E
  128. Molecules which promote vasodilation?
    • histamine
    • NO
    • Prostoglandins
  129. Molecules which promote vascular permeability
  130. Molecules which promote vascular permeability?
    • Histamine
    • Serotonin
    • Bradykinin
    • Prostoglandins
    • C3a, C5a
    • LT C,D,E
    • PAF
    • Substance P
  131. Fever molecules
    • Il-1
    • TNF
    • Prostoglandins
  132. Pain
    • Bradykinin
    • Prostoglandins
  133. Tissue damage
    • lysosomal enzymes
    • ROS
    • NO
  134. What are the 2 components of blood that participate in inflammation reaction?
    • 1 Leukocytes
    • 2 Complement
  135. What is Serum Amylod Protein A (SAA protein)?
    What function does it serve during acute phase protein?
    • apolipoprotein
    • redirects high-density lipoproteins to macrophages at a site of injury
  136. Which acute phase protein is used as a marker for increased risk of myocardial infarction in patients with coronary artery disease?
    C reactive protein
  137. Prolonged presence of acute phase proteins because of chronic inflammation tends to cause deposition of proteins called what?
    secondary amyloidoisis
  138. Fibrinogen has what effect during acute phase protein production?
    binds RBC and causes them to sediment
  139. What acute phase protein causes increased Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate?
    • Fibrinogen
    • Fibrinogen binds to RBC and stacks them
  140. What are the four acute phase proteins?
    • 1- C reactive protein
    • 2- Serum Amyloid A protein (SSA protein)
    • 3- Fibrinogen
    • 4- Hepcidin
  141. What acute phase protein is responsible for reducing the availability of iron during chronic inflammation?
  142. Elevated levels of what acute phase protein causes Microcytic, Hypochromic Anemia?
  143. What are the 3 functions of complement?
    • 1-Inflammation- C3a, C5a
    • 2-Opsonization- C3b
    • 3- Membrane attack complex (MAC)- C5b-C9
  144. What is one chemical mediator that elicits most of the vascular and cellular reactions of inflammation such as vasodilation, increased permeability, chemotaxis, degranulation, leukocyte adhesion
    Platelet Activating Factor
  145. Bone Marrow suppression as caused by tumor, radiation, chemotherapy causes what immuno-suppression?
    Decreased Leukocyte Production
  146. Diabetes, Malignancy and sepsis cause what kind of immuno-deficiency?
    • Defective :
    • adhesion
    • chemotaxis
    • phagocytosis
    • microbicidal activity
  147. Chronic Granulomatous Disease is of 2 types:
    Autosomal Recessive
    Which component of the cell is defective in each i.e Cytoplasmic or membrane
    • X-linked-membrane
    • autosomal recessive-cytoplasmic
  148. In what form are plasma proteins involved in inflammation present in the plasma?
    Inactive precursors
  149. Rupture of arteries and colon are commonly seen in what type of Ehler's Danlos Syndrome?
  150. Arthrochalasia and Dermatosparaxsis are forms of Ehler's Danlos syndrome caused by deficiency of collagen?
    Type I
  151. In what type of Ehler's Danlos Syndrome are ocular fragility seen?
  152. Classical type of Ehler's Danlos syndrome is caused by what mutation?
    • COL5A1
    • COL5A2
  153. Vascular type of Ehler's Danlos Syndrome is caused by what mutation
  154. What are the 6 types of Ehler's Danlos syndrome?
    • 1. Classical- COL5A1, COL5A2
    • 2. Hypermobility-uknown mutation
    • 3. Vascular-COL3A1
    • 4. Kyphoscoliosis- Lysyl Hydroxylase
    • 5. Arthrochalasia- COL1A1, COL1A2
    • 6. Dermatosparaxsis- Procollagen N-peptidase
  155. What are the 3 symptoms of Marfans?
    • Arachnodactyly
    • Lens dislocation
    • aortic aneurysm
    • Pectus excavatum
    • Pectus carnitum
    • Tricuspid/Mitral prolapse----> mitral regurgitation
  156. Defective extracellular matrix seen in Marfans is most likely due to upregulation or what growth factor?
  157. A mutation in FBN-2 causes what?
    Congenital Contractual Arachnodactyly
  158. Chemical Mediators involved in Vasodialtion?
    • Histamine
    • NO
    • Prostaglandins
  159. What factor do hypoxic cells produce which induce the production of inflammatory mediators?
  160. What molecules do necrotic cells release that stimulate the release of inflammatory mediators?
    • Uric acid
    • ATP
    • DNA
    • other metabolites
  161. Non-enveloped viruses?
    • calicivirus
    • Parvovirus
    • Reovirus
    • Papilloma
    • adenovirus
    • Polyoma
    • Picornavirus
  162. In what cells does Parvovirus replicates?
  163. What is the difference between Transudate and Exudate in terms of the protein content and specific gravity?
    • Exudate--high protein content, high specific gravity
    • Transudate- low protein content, low specific gravity
  164. Purulent inflammation is made up of what?
    neutrophilic pus and cellular debris
  165. What is the difference between lobar and bronchopneumonia?
    • Lobar--whole lobe is involved
    • Bronchopneumonia---diffuse parts of the lung are involved
  166. What is responsible for erythema?
    redness (Rubor)
  167. When is stasis produced?
    upon vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
  168. What is instrumental in accumulation of neutrophils along the endothelium?
    Stasis--slowing down of blood flow
  169. Transcytosis
    Transport of fluids and protein thru the endothelium
  170. Which chemical mediator promotes transcytosis?
  171. Vascular leakage of plasma fluid and proteins in patients with _______ can cause life threatening loss of fluid?
  172. What 4 factors increase vascular permeability?
    • 1-histamine, serotonin, bradykinin, thromboxanes, PAF, substance P
    • 2- endothelial injury due to burns, toxins
    • 3- leukocyte mediated injury in chronic inflammation
    • 4- VEGF
  173. Lymphadenitis?
    inflamed lymph nodes
  174. Lymphangitis?
    inflamed lymph vessels
  175. What is margination?
    redistribution of leukocytes adjacent to the endothelium
  176. P-selectin molecules are stored in what cells?
    In what structure?
    • - Endothelial cells
    • - Weibel-Palade bodies
  177. Which molecules stimulate the redistribution of P-selectins from Weibell-Palade Bodies to the surface of the endothelial cells?
    • Histamine
    • Thrombin
    • PAF
  178. Sialyl-Lewis glycoproteins or Integrins involved in rolling of leukocytes along the endothelium?
    Sialyl-Lewis Glycoproteins
  179. Which molecule on the Leukocytes is involved in adhesion to the endothelium?
  180. What Leukocyte molecule is involved in Diapedes?
    PECAM-1 or CD31
  181. Integrin molecules binds to what receptors on the endothelium?
  182. What is transmigration or diapedes?
    movements of a phagocyte thru the endothelial cells
  183. Transcytosis vs. Transmigration
    • Transcytosis--movement of fluid and plasma proteins thru the endothelial cells
    • Transmigration-movement of Leukocytes the the endothelial cells
  184. Thru what molecules are leukocytes able to bind to the extracellular matrix proteins?
    • integrin
    • CD44
  185. In what bacterial infection do neutrophils predominate instead of macrophages?
  186. What are the 3 opsonins?
    • 1- IgG antibodies
    • 2- C3b
    • 3- Lectin
  187. Bacterial glycoproteins and glycolipids have what sugar in contrast with mammalian GlycoProteins and Glycolipids
    • fucose and mannose
    • sialic acid and n-acetylglucosamine
  188. In what condition are increased susceptibility to infections and albinism present?
    Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
  189. What effect does intake of fish oil have on inflammation?
    Fish oil gives rise to resolvins and protectins which are anti-inflammatory
  190. What are the mediators that act as anti-inflammatory agents?
    • resolvins
    • protectins
    • TGF-beta
    • Lipoxins
  191. What is the initial stimuli for initiation of inflammation?
    • microbial products
    • necrotic cells contents-uric acid, ATP,
    • Hypoxic cells contens--HIF-1alpha
  192. Histamine exerts its vasoactive effects on blood vessels by binding to what receptors?
  193. ADH acting on the blood vessels acts on what receptors?
  194. Arachidonic acid could be converted from what essential fatty acid?
    Linoleic acid
  195. Which cells makes Thromboxane?
  196. Which cell makes prostacyclin?
  197. Balance between what two mediators ensures a right balance of clot making and breaking?
    • Prostacyclins
    • Thromboxanse
  198. What is the proposed mechanism of how Cox-2 inhibitors increase the risk of arterial thrombosis?
    • Celebrex(Cox-2 inhibitor) blocks the synthesis of prostacyclin in endothelial cells which stop platelet aggregation
    • While platelets are making Thromboxane which promotes platelet aggregation
    • Resulting in an im-balance and promotion of arterial thrombi
  199. What are the 2 drugs that are used in asthma that
    -block leukotriene production?
    -block leukotriene receptors?
    • Zileuton
    • Montelukast
  200. How do corticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of mediators of inflammation?
    • by reducing the transcription of gene coding for
    • -Cox-2
    • -Phospholipase A2
    • -IL-1
    • TNF-beta
    • -iNOS
  201. What combines with NO to form Reactive Nitrogen Species?
    superoxide anion
  202. What are the enzymes that degrade free radicals?
    • Superoxide dismutase
    • Catalase
    • Glutathione peroxidase
    • Cerruloplasmin
    • Ferritin
  203. What is the mechanism of injury caused by reperfusion?
    Reperfusion generates free radicals
  204. How many different types of No synthase are there?
    • 3
    • eNOS--endothelial
    • nNOS--neuronal
    • iNOS--inducible
  205. Which chemical mediator has both pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory properties?
  206. Which inflammatory mediator is considered to an endogenous mechanism for controlling inflammatory responses?
  207. Which cytokines are produced in acute inflammation?
    • Il-1
    • Il-6
    • Il-8
    • TNF
    • Chemokines
  208. Which cytokines are produced in chronic inflammation
    • IFN-gamma
    • IL-12
    • Il-17
  209. Mutations in what interleukin gene cause inherited autoinflammatory syndromes such as Familial Mediterranean fever?
  210. In gout, the inflammasome complex (IL-1) is activated to produce a condition called Gout by what substrate?
    Urate Crystals
  211. In patients with Familiar Mediterranean Fever, the chronic inflammation may lead to deposition of protein called what?
  212. TNF regulates energy balance by promoting protein and lipid mobilization for production of acute phase proteins resulting in wasting called?
  213. Eotaxin cytokine recruits what cells?
  214. Chemokines bind to what type of enzyme linked receptors?
  215. What is the action of IL-17 ?
    neutrophil activation and chemotaxis
  216. What are the 2 anti-protease commonly found in serum and other secretions?
    • alpha-1-antitrypsin
    • alpha macrobulin
  217. Acid proteases work where in the neutrophil?
    Phagolysosome where the pH is acidic
  218. What kind of proteases degreade ECM like collagen, elastin, fibrin?
  219. What are the functions of Neuropeptipe P (substance P)?
    • pain
    • blood pressure
    • vascular permeability
    • stimulation of secretion by endocrine glands
  220. C3 and C5 can be cleaved by what?
    enzymes in the exudate
  221. Fibrinous exudate is commonly seen in the inflammation of what?
    body cavities such as pericardium, pleura, peritoneum, meninges
  222. Purulent inflammation is primarily made up of what leukocytes?
    • neutrophils
    • pus forming bacteria
  223. What is silicosis?
    lung inflammation due to prolonged inhalation of silica
  224. Macrophages in spleen and lymph nodes are called what?
  225. What is immune inflammation?
    when T and B cells are involved in the inflammation
  226. Eosinophils contain what type of protein that elimincates parasites?
    major basic protein
  227. What is osteomyelitis?
    inflammation of bone
  228. What leukocytes are found in osteomyelitis?
  229. Giant cells with nuclei arranged peripherally are called what?
  230. Giant cells with nuclei arranged in the middle of the cell are called what?
  231. What cytokine transforms macrophages into epitheliod cells?
  232. What bacteria causes Tuberculosis?
    Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  233. What type of granuloma is seen in Tuberculosis?
  234. What type of granuloma is seen in cat-scratch fever?
    Rounded or stellate
  235. Which granuloma has a "gumma" granuloma appearance?
  236. What is one probably mechanism thru which fever might help fight infection?
    Fever might induce heat-shock proteins
  237. Why do you see anemia in chronic inflammation?
    because an acute-phase protein called hepcidin reduces the bioavailability of iron during infection
  238. What are leukemoid rxns?
    elevated WBC count
  239. What types of infections cause neutrophilia?
    bacterial infections
  240. What type of infections cause lymphocytosis?
    viral infections
  241. Typhoid fever has what effect on leukocytes?
    causes leukopenia
  242. What 2 cytokines mediate septic schock?
    • TNF
    • IL-1
  243. What is the reason for hypertrophy of the uterus during pregnancy?
  244. What are the 2 mechanisms involved in cardiac hypertrophy?
    • phosphoinositide kinase
    • G protein coupled receptors
  245. Hypertrophy of the heart is associated with a switch from adult contractile proteins to what form?
  246. What vasoactive mediator is upregulated in a hypertrophied heart?
  247. Which epithelium in a woman undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia?
    glandular epithelium
  248. Transcription factors involved in hypertrophy have what 3 effects?
    • 1-induction of fetal gene
    • 2- increases synthesis of contractile proteins
    • 3- induces expression of growth factors
  249. Hyperplasia of the endometrium and prostate is due to what?
    excess hormone stimulation
  250. How does a papilloma virus induces hyperplasia of epithelium?
    viral genes code for growth factors
  251. Hyperplasia can be cause by two factors?
    • hormones
    • Growth factors
  252. What are common causes of atrophy?
    • disuse
    • reduced nerve supply
    • reduced blood supply
    • malnutrition
    • lack of endocrine stimulation
    • pressure
  253. Deficiency of what vitamin is known to induce squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium?
    vitamin A
  254. Myositis Ossificans?
    formation of bone in muscle
  255. Vitamin A regulates gene expression thru what receptor?
    retinoid receptor
  256. What is the first manifestation of cell injury?
    cell swelling
  257. Coagulative necrosis may be seen in what tissues?
    What is seen in coagulative necrosis ?
    • all tissues except brain
    • no degradation of cells for some time
  258. Liquefactive necrosis occurs where?
    What is it characterized by?
    • In the brain
    • formation of liquid and pus
  259. How is Fibrinoid necrosis produced?
    when immune complexes precipitate with fibrin in the wall of arteries
  260. Influx of what ion activates proteases and other degradating enzymes?
  261. What are the intracellular enzymes that Ca activates?
    phospholipase, protease, endonuclease, ATPase
  262. What is oxidative stress?
    unchecked accumulation of free radicals
  263. What damage do free radicals perform?
    • Lipid peroxidation
    • protein oxidation
    • DNA damage
  264. At which point are injuries to cells considered irreversible?
    • -loss of mitochondrial ability to create ATP
    • - serious loss of membrane integrity
  265. What are Myelin figures?
    remnants of plasma membrane in vacuoles
  266. What is the most useful strategy in ischemic injuries?
    reducing core body temperature to 92 F
  267. What are the causes of Ischemic-reperfusion injury?
    • ROS
    • inflammation
    • complement
  268. What is used to stain for apoptotic bodies?
    Annexin V
  269. What are the two pathways of initiating apoptosis?
    • intrinsic--mitochondria via cyt c
    • extrinsic--FASligand
  270. What is hemosiderin?
    aggregates of ferritin molecules which hold iron
  271. What are psammoma bodies?
    collections of calcium salts
  272. What is the deficient enzyme in Tay-Sachs?
    Hexosaminidase A
  273. Hexaminidase A deficiency arises from a mutation in what chromosome?
  274. Nieman-Pick is caused by a mutation in what chromosome?
Card Set
Pathology I Block 1
Pathology Block 1