Comp Pt

  1. severe and dnagerous leukopenia (lowered white blood cell count)
  2. an acute reaction involving smooth muscle of bronchi
  3. substances made by the body's immune systme in response to bacteria, viruses, fungus, animal dander, or cancer cells. these are attached to foreign substances so the immune system can destroy them
  4. ability to induce immune resonse
  5. inflammation in joints
  6. thype III hypersensitivity. local vasculitis due to deposition of immune complexes in dermal blood vessels
    arthus reaction
  7. tends to be inherited
  8. swelling of conjunctiva of eye
  9. difficulty swallowing
  10. breathlessness air hunger diffuculty breathing
  11. tearing or wearing of skin
  12. buring tongue
  13. antibody
  14. dry eye syndrom-produces fewer tears
    keratoconjunctivitis sicca
  15. abnormally low number of neutrophils
  16. facilitates phagocytosis by neutrophils
  17. digestion of proteins by cellular enzymes called proteases
  18. runny nose
  19. the presence of relatively few platelets in blood
  20. hives, welts, itchy swollen skin rash
  21. inflammatory destruction of blood vessels
  22. viruses enter the bloodstream and have access to the rest of hte body, similar to bacteremia
  23. t/f a dentist may refuse to treat a patient that refuses to be tested for HIV/AIDS. Postexposure treatment for AIDS needs to occur within hours.
    the first statement is false and the second is true
  24. typical causes of allergy important to dentistry include all of the following except one. which is the exception.

    B. triclosan
  25. which hypersensitivity reaction is also known as a delayed reaction?
    type IV
  26. t/f treatment considerations in a pt with RA inculde short appointments and attention to comfort. Prophylactic antibiotics are always recommended for patients with RA.
    first statement is true and the second statement is false
  27. symptoms accompanying Sjogren's Syndrom typically include all of the follwing except one.

    B. vasculitis
  28. what is the most common oral maifestation of HIV?
  29. which LA is associated with the highest incidence of allergic reactions?
  30. what is the most common manifestations of SLE (systemic lups erythematosus)
  31. during what stage of post transplant considerations are patients susceptible to fungal infections
    stable trnasplant period
  32. t/f before the american rheumatism association will diagnose a patient with SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) 3 out of hte 5 criteria must be met.
    false (4 out of 11)
  33. what are the clinical stages of AIDS? 5
    • recent infection
    • acute seroconversion syndrome
    • latent period
    • early symptomatic HIV infection
    • AIDS
  34. t/f there are no signs and symptoms during the recent infection stage of AIDS
  35. how long may the latent period of AIDS last?
    8-10 years
  36. what are the opportunistic infections that occur with a pt with AIDS ? 5
    • pneumonia
    • cryptocaccosis
    • tuberculosis
    • toxoplamosis
    • histoplasmosis
  37. can the dentist refuse tx becasue a pt refuses to be tested for AIDS but is assumed to be infected?
    no- tx with standard precautions
  38. t/fif a pt has AIDS and needs emergency care the dentist cannot refuse to tx because the dentist does not want to tx a pt with AIDS
  39. what must happen for a dentist to refer a pt to someone else if the pt ahs AIDS
    dentist and pt must agree
  40. if a Dr has AIDS what must be done?
    they gotta quit..wait no...inform pt of their status and receive signed consent to perform invasive tx
  41. symptomatic AIDS pts in early stages have increased susceptibility to what?
    opportunistic infection
  42. t/f when prescribing medications to a person with AIDS a consultation with the physician is mandatory
  43. what drug should not be given to a pt being treated with zidovudine (retrovir)
  44. what drug shouldn't be given to a pt with thrombocytopenia?
  45. what four drugs should not be given to a pt being treated with ketoconazole?
    • antacids
    • phenytoin
    • cimetidine
    • rifampin
  46. what is the main objective for a pt with severe sypmptoms of AIDS?
    prevent infection and keep pt free of oral pain
  47. what is the most common oral compliation with a pt with HIV/AIDS?
  48. how is kaposi's sarcoma identified?
  49. if azole drugs fail for treatment of oral lesions found in an AIDS pt what can be given?
    intravenous amphotericin B
  50. what is the treatment for NUG?
    debridement, chlorhexidine rinses, metronidazole, follow-up care and long term maintenance
  51. what drug can be given for an HSV pt?
  52. what drug can be given to a severe immunosuppressed pt with varciella zoster virus?
  53. what is the treatment for kaposi's sarcoma?
    radiation and systemic chemo
  54. what drug has a good response when used for apthous ulcerations btu shold only be short term due to its aid in HIV replication?
  55. what is the treatment of choice for HPV of an AIDS pt?
    surgical removal
  56. what is the most common endemic respiratory fungal infection in the US?
  57. what is HAART?
    highly active antiretroviral therapy
  58. what % of HIV infected individuals have thrombocytopenia?
  59. with an HIV pt what gland is the most common to see swollen?
    parotid gland
  60. what drug is given to an HIV pt with salivary gland disease?
  61. what medications can cause hyperpigmentation? 3
    • ketoconazole
    • clofazimine
    • zidovudine
  62. where is oral squamous cell carcinoma found? 3
    • oral cavity
    • larynx
    • pharynx
Card Set
Comp Pt
week 15 immunologic diseases