MIS 592 Final

  1. ________ is a resource sacrificed or foregone to achieve a specific objective or something given up in exchange.
  2. What is the main goal of project cost management?
    to complete a project within an approved budget
  3. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost managment?

    C. a cost management plan
  4. If a company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a certain product, what is the profit margin for that product?
    -5 percent
  5. ______ reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
  6. You are preparing a cost estimate for a building based on its location, purpose, number of square feet, and other charateristics. What cost estimating technique are you using?
  7. ______ involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
    Project cost budgeting
  8. ________ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
    Earned value analysis
  9. If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1500 and its earned value was $2000, what is its cost variance, and is it under or over budget?
    the cost variance is $500, which is under budget
  10. If a project is halfway completed and its schedule performance index is 110 percent and its cost performance index is 95 percent, how is it progressing?
    it is ahead of schedule and over budget
  11. ______ is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfils requirements.
  12. What is the purpose of project quality management?
    To ensure that the project will statisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
  13. ______generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
  14. What tool could you use to see if there is a relationship between two variables?
    Scatter diagram
  15. What tool can you use to determine whether a process is in control or out of control?
    A control chart
  16. Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _______ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
  17. The seven run rule states that if seven data points in a row on a control chart are all below the mean, above the means, or all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for ___________ problems.
  18. What is the preferred order for performing testing on information technology projects?
    • unit testing
    • integration testing
    • system testing
    • user acceptance testing
  19. ________ is known for his work on quality control in Japan and developed the 14 Points for Management in his text Out of the Crisis.
  20. PMI's OPM3 is an example of a model or framework for helping organizations improve their processes and systems.
  21. Which of the following is not part of project human resource management?

    C. Resource estimating
  22. _______ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
    Intrinsic motivation
  23. At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _______ needs.
  24. According to MCClelland's acquired needs theory, people who desire harmonious relations with other people and need to feel accepted have a high _________ need.
  25. ________ power is based on a person's individual charisma.
  26. A __________ maps the work of a project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work.
    Responsibility assignment matrix
  27. A staffing management plan often includes a resource __________, which is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to the project over times.
  28. What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks?
    resource leveling
  29. What are the five stages in Tuckman's model of team development, in chronological order?
    • forming
    • storming
    • norming
    • performing
    • adjourning
  30. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for managing project teams?

    C. Social Syles Profile
  31. What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project?
    a failure to communicate
  32. Which communication skill is most important for information technology professionals for career advancement?
  33. Which of the following is not a process in project communcations management?

    A. information planning
  34. What popular book illustrates the concept that people are not interchangeable parts and uses the analogy that you cannot take nine women and produce a baby in one month?
    Brooks's The Mythical Man-Month
  35. If you add three more people to a project team of five, how many more communcations channels will you add?
  36. A _______ report describes where the project stands at a specific point in time.
  37. What tool can you use to help manage stakeholders by ranking scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance and provide guidelines on balancing these constraints?
    expectations matrix
  38. You have two project stakehoders who do not get along at all. You know they both enjoy traveling, so you discuss great travel destinations when they are both in the room together to distract them from arguing with each other. What conflict-handling mode are you using?
  39. Which of the following is not a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings?

    B. Invite extra people who support your project ot make it run more smoothly.
  40. A ___________ report is a reflective statement documenting improtant things that people learned from working on the project.
  41. _______is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.
  42. A person who is risk-_________ receives greater satisfaction when more payoffis at stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
  43. Whic risk managment process involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurence?
    performing qualitative risk analysis
  44. Your project involves using a new release of common software application, but if that release is not available, your team has _____________ plans to use the current release.
  45. Which risk identification tool involves deriving a consensus among a panel of experts by using anonymous input regarding future events?
    Delphi technique
  46. ___________ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events, such as a cost overrun on early activities being a aymptom of poor cost estimates.
  47. Suppose there is a 30% chance that you will lose $10,000 and a 70% chance that you will earn $100,000 on a particular project. What is the project's estimatee Monetary value.
  48. _______ is a quantitative risk analysis tool that uses a model of a system to analyse the expected behavior or performance of the system.
  49. A risk ___________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
  50. Your project team has decided not to use an upcoming release of software because it might cause your schedule to slip. Whic negative risk response strategy are you using?
  51. The _____ ultimately decides if the project quality is acceptable.
  52. The _____ is the portion of the approved total cost planned to be spent on an activity during a period.
  53. The _____ is an estimate of the value of physical work actually completed.
    Earned Value
  54. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
  55. Testing needs to be done only during the prototype and implementation stages.
  56. Rough order of magnitude estimates are used:
    Early in a process when the project is initially being considered.
  57. Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting and cost control.
  58. Monte Carlo simulations may be used to determine the number of lines of code in a project.
  59. _____ use the actual costs of previous, similar project as the basis for extimating the cost of the current project.
    Analogous estimates.
  60. DMAIC would be associated with:
  61. To assist in resource leveling one would:
    Use a pareto chart
  62. A trigger refers to
    An event in risk planning
  63. Cost and time monitoring involves

    D. all of the above
  64. A(n) _____ is a hierarchy of potential risks for a project
    Risk breakdown structure
  65. The _____ is the additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates.
    cost overrun
  66. Which process of project cost management involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance?
    cost budgeting
  67. Which process of project cost management involves developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project?
    cost estimating
  68. The main outputs of the ________ process are work performance measurements, budget forecasts, organizational process asset updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
    cost control
  69. To increase ________, a company can increase revenues, decrease expenses, or try to do both.
  70. A company might complete a project to develop and implement a new customer service system in one or two years, but the new system could be in place for ten years. Project managers should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for ten years. This is an example of ________.
    life cycle costing
  71. Avoid ________ when deciding what project to invest in or continue.
    sunk costs
  72. ________ for projects often include items like goodwill, prestige, and general statements of improved productivity that an organization cannot easily translate into dollar amounts.
    Intangible costs
  73. ________ are used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.
    Definitive estimates
  74. Which type of estimate is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started?
    rough order magnitude (ROI) estimate
  75. The drawback with ________ is that they are usually time-intensive and therefore expensive to develop.
    bottom-up estimates
  76. A ________ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
    parametric model
  77. Which type of estimate uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?
    top-down estimate
  78. A(n) ________ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
    cost baseline
  79. The ________ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
    Earned Value(EV)
  80. Suppose a project included a summary activity of purchasing and installing a new Web server. Suppose further that, according to the plan, it would take one week and cost a total of $10,000 for the labor hours, hardware, and software involved. The ________ for that activity that week is, therefore, $10,000.
    planned value (PV)
  81. What is the earned value minus the actual cost?
    cost variance (CV)
  82. What is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project?
    schedule performance index (SPI)
  83. What is the earned value minus the planned value?
    schedule variance (SV)
  84. What is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project?
    Cost performance index (CPI)
  85. _____ means a product can be used as it was inteded.
    Fitness for use
  86. Which process of project quality management involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards?
    quality assurance
  87. In project quality management, ________ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
    quality control
  88. Most information technology products cannot reach 100 percent ________, but stakeholders must define what their expectations are.
  89. ________ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use.
  90. ________ is the degree to which a system performs its intended functions.
  91. What generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization?
  92. ________ often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions. It can be very expensive, so the project manager must strive to do a good job of quality planning and quality assurance to avoid this need.
  93. What corrects or prevents further quality problems based on quality control measures?
    process adjustments
  94. Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called DMAIC, which stands for ________.
    • Define
    • Measure
    • Analyze
    • Improve
    • Control
  95. Which of the following is a principle of Six Sigma?

    C. Organizations that successfully implement Six Sigma principles have the ability and willingness to adopt two seemingly contrary objectives at the same time.
  96. What is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the mean or average value of the population (the data being analyzed)?
    normal distribution
  97. A ________ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
    control chart
  98. What occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components?
    integration testing
  99. ________ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
    User acceptance testing
  100. ________ is best known for his 1972 book Guide to Quality Control. He developed the concept of quality circles and pioneered the use of fishbone diagrams.
  101. American industry did not recognize the theories of ________ until Japanese manufacturers started producing products that seriously challenged American products, particularly in the auto industry.
  102. The cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range is called ________.
    appraisal cost
  103. What refers to a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer?
    external failure cost
  104. At which level of the Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) does a process have the basic infrastructure in place to support it?
    Managed level
  105. Project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates are key outputs of which process of human resource management?
    acquiring the project team
  106. What process of human resource management involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships?
    human resource planning
  107. ________ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
    Developling the project team
  108. What process of human resource management involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance?
    manageing the project team
  109. ________ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
    Intrinsic motivation
  110. ________ states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
    Maslow's hierarchy of needs
  111. According to ________, people are motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. Motivators include achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, advancement, and growth.
    Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
  112. According to ________, some managers follow the set of assumptions that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives. Other managers assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
    McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
  113. What type of power involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do?
    coercive power
  114. People hold someone with ________ in very high regard and will do what they say based on their regard for the person.
    referent power
  115. If top management gives project managers organizational authority, project managers can use ________ in several situations, such as making key decisions without involving the project team.
    legitimate power
  116. ________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
  117. People tend to like people who are like themselves, and ________ helps you take on some of the other person's characteristics.
  118. A(n) ________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
    organizational breakdown structure
  119. What maps the work of the project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the OBS?
    a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
  120. What is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time?
    resource histogram
  121. A(n) ________ describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
    staffing management plan
  122. What refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods?
    resource loading
  123. What are the five stages of team development, according to the Tuckman model?
    • Forming
    • Storming
    • Norming
    • Performing
    • Adjourning
  124. According to the psychological types in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), what dimensions relates to the manner in which you gather information?
    sensation/intuition (S/N)
  125. What process of project communications management involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting?
    performance reporting
  126. What process of project communications management involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders?
    communications planning
  127. ________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.
    Managing stakeholder expectations
  128. ________ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
    Information distribution
  129. Because communication is so important on projects, every project should include a(n) ________, which is a document that guides project communications.
    communication management plan
  130. What addresses where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals?
    status reports
  131. ________ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
  132. In the ________ conflict-handling mode, decision makers incorporate different viewpoints and insights to develop consensus and commitment.
    collaborating mode
  133. What is the least desirable conflict-handling mode, because project managers retreat from an actual or potential disagreement?
    withdrawal mode
  134. When using the ________, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
    confrontation mode
  135. Managers who are very competitive or autocratic in their management style might favor the ________ approach to conflict handling.
    forcing mode
  136. When using the ________, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
    smoothing mode
  137. Project team members may become stagnant or develop ________ if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.
  138. What is a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings?
    Determine if a meeting can be avoided.
  139. What is a guideline that will help you use e-mail more effectively?
    The body of the e-mail should be as clear and concise as possible and you should always reread your e-mail before you send it.
  140. What is a reflective statement documenting important things the project team has learned from working on the project?
    lesson learned report
  141. ________ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
    Project archives
  142. ________ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
    Progress reports
  143. As the number of people communicating increases above ________, the number of communications channels increases rapidly.
  144. If a team of three people are working together on one particular project task, they have three communications channels. If you add two more people to their team, you would have ________ communications channels.
  145. A ________ person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
  146. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ________ person. In other words, when more payoff or money is at stake, the person gains less satisfaction from the risk, or has lower tolerance for the risk.
  147. What process of risk management involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives?
    risk response planning
  148. What process of risk management involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives?
    quantitative risk analysis
  149. ________ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence.
    Qualitative risk analysis
  150. A ________ summarizes how risk management will be performed on a particular project.
    risk management plan
  151. ________ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
    Fallback plans
  152. What is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgement?
  153. What is used to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments?
    Delphi technique
  154. A(n) ________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
    risk register
  155. What is a diagram that shows how different parts of a system interrelate, e.g., to show programming logic?
  156. A(n) ________ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
    probability/impact matrix
  157. What describes numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur?
    risk factors
  158. What involves establishing a periodic review of the project's most significant risk items with management and, optionally, with the customer?
    Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
  159. A ________ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
    decision tree
  160. What simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results?
    Monte Carlo analysis
  161. What response strategy for negative risks includes shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party?
    risk transference
  162. What response strategy for negative risks includes reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence?
    risk mitigation
  163. What response strategy for positive risk includes allocating ownership of the risk to another party?
    risk sharing
  164. What response strategy for positive risk includes doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens?
    risk exploitation
Card Set
MIS 592 Final
MIS 592 Final