1. What is the major difference between the SAL and RF missiles?
    • SAL - laser guided
    • RF - radar assisted
  2. How will a live missile be coded if there is a M36 training missile loaded on the launcher rail?
  3. The fuze contains the ARM/SAFE device that arms the missile when its launch accelleration exceeds _____ g's between ____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft.
    • 10
    • 150-300
  4. When trust exceeds ____ to _____ pounds the missile leaves the rail.
  5. The thrust duration is approxiamately 2 to 3 seconds and the maximum velocity of the missile is ________.
    475 mps or Mach 1.4
  6. Can the M299 fire all variants of the Hellfire missile?
  7. What component contains the Training Missile Emulator (TME) that simulates RF missile training?
    Launcher Electronics Assembly
  8. What MPD page can you electronically arm the M299 missile launcher?
  9. What are the normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are actioned?
    +4.9 to -15 degrees
  10. What negative factor during target illumination will cause the laser spot to spill over the target?
  11. What are the three LOAL trajectory modes?
    • DIR
    • LO
    • HI
  12. When the TADS LOS and the seeker LOS differ by more than _____ degrees a BACKSCATTER message will display in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD.
  13. The safety inhibit backscatter is generally caused by ________, ___________, and ___________.
    poor target reflectivity, co-located obscurants, and excessive designation range
  14. If the aircraft is 50 to 400 feet above the target you would increase the minimum range for LOAL launch by ________ meters.
  15. Your target is 5000 meters away and you need to clear a mask that is 900 feet above the aircraft, what trajectory would you select to engage that target?
  16. For a 5000 meter hellfire engagement the last _____ seconds needs to be steady-on-target time (terminal guidance).
  17. What determines the SAL LOBL trajectory altitude?
    range to target
  18. What is the maximum offset limit between the gun target line and the remote designator to the target line?
    60 degrees
  19. Maximum autonomous designation range is limited by the _____________.
    TADS ability to maintain laser spot on target
  20. During remote designation, the remote designator should not be within a + _____ degree fan from the gun to target line.
  21. During rapid fire engagements the maximum separation between targets should not exceed _______ meters, with at least an ________ second separation between missile launches.
    • 100m
    • 8
  22. In the Ripple mode, after the primary channel missile is launched the alternate channel missile may be launched after _____ second separation.
  23. For an autonomous engagement, the aircraft should be oriented _____ to _____ degrees to the side from which the missile is launched.
  24. What are the three RF missile modes?
    • standby
    • prelaunch
    • postlaunch
  25. Transfer alignment occurs in the ______ missile mode.
    standby (takes 9 to 10 seconds)
  26. In the pre-launch mode what are the three methods of target handover data to the RF missile?
    • FCR
    • TADS
    • IDM (RFHO)
  27. Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary targets (STI) to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between what ranges?
    2.5 - 8 Km
  28. At a range of _____ to ______ meters, targets are too close for a LOAL engagement and must be a LOBL engagement or a "NO ACQUIRE" message will be displayed.
    .5 - 1 Km (will attempt LOBL 3 times)
  29. The 3 RF missile acquisition modes are ____________, ____________, and ____________.
    • terminal track acq
    • pre-terminal track acq
    • moving target acq
  30. A SAL missile icon that has not been coded will display _______.
  31. RF missiles have a _________ instead of a straight line at the seeker.
  32. An RF missile that has an overtemp condition will display _________.
  33. A hangfire will display _______ in the missile icon.
  34. If a missile has failed, the icon will display ________.
  35. The ALT CHAN button is only selectable after a _________ CHAN has been entered.
  36. The quantity defaults to _________ for both channels if sufficient missiles are available.
  37. What is the sequence to edit a laser code?
    • WPN
    • CODE
    • FREQ
  38. What is the tri-service pulse repetition frequency (PRF) code range?
  39. The missile MODE selections are _______ in each crewstation.
  40. In the AUTO power mode, the missiles are powered-up at ________ minute intervals.
  41. 2nd target inhibit selection is used for __________ targets?
    FCR truly stationary targets
  42. The RF missiles can overheat (OT) if it is radiating (tracking) a target for more than _____ minutes.
  43. How many missiles will be powered with 6 missiles on board with the AUTO power mode selected?
  44. What inhibits can be overridden, and how is this accomplished?
    performance, 2nd detent
  45. Is the message "BACKSCATTER" a safety or performance inhibit?
  46. What does the message "ALT LAUNCH" mean?
    w/in 2 seconds of rocket launch
  47. What is the RF missile radiation hazard area to be avoided?
    1m 45 degrees polar from CL
  48. How many TME's are on each aircraft?
    on in each launcher electronics assembly
  49. Tactical missiles will be coded ________ while in the training mode.
  50. The TME allows for thermal management of the missiles by allowing for a cumulative time ON of _______ minutes.
  51. With the TRAIN mode selected and a weapon system is actioned the weapons inhibit field will display ____________.
  52. The constraints box will display a _______ centered in the box when the weapon system is actioned in the training mode.
Card Set