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Which fo the following elements of history describe other signs and symptoms or possible contributory factors in the patient's present condition

True or False
Time should be used to determine the level of service only when the provider spends more than 35% of the face-to-face encounter with the patient on counseling and coordinating the patient's care.
True False

Determine the level of service of a new patient's outpatient visit that was comprised of detailed history; comprehensive exam, and a medical decision making of low complexity.

The highest level of E/M service measured in part by the extent/type of history captured is....

A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a fractured arm. The emergency physician documents an expanded problem focused history, expanded problem focused exam, and a decision making of moderate complexity. What level of service has the physician documented?

Which component listed is NOT a key component in selecting a level of E/M service?

A patient who presents for a visit, b ut has not received any professional services (face to face) by the physician or another member of the group in the same specialty within the past three years is considered

What are the two categories of the 1997 exams?

True or False
Overuse of high level E/M service can trigger an audit during post payment revew by Medicare.
True False

Select the level of service for a new patient outpatient evaluation where a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam, and a straight forward medical decision making was documented.

Patient presents to the hospital with premature labor. The Obstetrician exames her and observes her in the office. The physician decides to move the patient to observation status after her labor pains continue. The patient remains in observation status the next day, through the evening and is released the following morning.

Should CPT code 20692 carry modifier 50 if the procedure was done bilaterally?

If a surgery is discontinued due to uncontrollable bleeding, hypotension, neurologic impairment, or other situations that threaten the well-being of the patient, it should be coded by appenidng the modifier _____________ to the surgical procedure code.

What modifier should be appended to the level of evaluation and management visit to identify that the decision for surgery was made during the preoperative period of a major surgery

If a physician is performing a laproscopic cholecystectomy and encounters significant complications resulting in 40 additional intra-operative minutes, modifier _____ should be appended to the procedure code in order to possibly receive more than the allowed amount

true or false

anesthesia CPT codes range from 00100-01999.
True False

What is the appropriate CPT code for anesthesia given to a 25 year old male under going a surgical arthroscopy of the right knee?

An HIV positive patient with a severe and recurrent systemic candida infection whould have which of the following physical status modifiers attached to the claim submitted by the anesthesiologist who administraters anesthesia.

True or False

CRNAs are doctors (anesthesiologists) who have not yet completed their residency requirements and therefore sometimes require special modifiers to bill Medicare for their services.
True False

true or false

For multiple procedures performed under a single anesthesia service, the total time for all the procedures is placed on the same line as the procedure with the highest base units.
True False

A single anesthesia time unit consists of how many minutes.

The correct anesthesia CPT code for a patient receiving a heart transplant is?

PCA

persistant pain lasting for 6 months or more

Drugs that prevent seizures

Another word for narcotics

pain receptor

a sensation of discomfort, or distress etc

body produced natural pain reliever

general term for pain relief medications

intramuscular injection

a 10 month old baby is admitted for surgery. the anesthesiologist administers anesthesia for the laryngoplasty that the surgeon performs. The procedure is successful and lasts a total of 2 hours. what code would be used

Mr. Atkins severely burns his arm while cooking. He is rushed to the hospital and is prepared for 98 sq cm skin xenografts to temporarily cover the wound while a permanent skin replacement is prepared. what CPT should be used

Which of the following is the removal of infected, contaminated, damaged, devitalized, necrotic, or foreign tissue from a wound?

What is the Rule of Nines used for

Free skin grafts include

true or false

When the only service provided is the non-surgical cleansing of the wound or ulcer with or without the application of surgical dressing, the provider should bill this service with an appropriate debridement code(s) and not the evaluation and mangement code.
True False

What are the two categories of incision and drainage procedures?

A patient resents with a pilonidal syst. The physician incises the syst and drains the fluid. The lining of the cyst is removed with a curette. there were no documented complications for this procedure. the appropriate CPT for the procedure is

Repair of wounds may be classified as?

true or false

a skin tag is defined as a polypoid outgrowth of both epidermis and dermal fibrovascular.
True False

What disease is classified as mycobacterium leprae infection causing chronic inflammatory lesions?

Code the following procedure: A patient with a compression injury to the thigh receives a fasciotomy to relieve the pressure caused by the inflammation.

Code the following scenario: a patient receives an x-ray that detects a subcutaneous foreign body in the left upper arm caused by a motor vehicle accident. A surgeon anesthetizes the area with 1% xylocain and removes the subcutaneous foreign body with forceps.

What is the appropriate CPT code for an arthrodesis of 4 vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity? The procedure is performed posteriorly and the patient is casted post-operatively.

What is the appropriate CPT code for a unilateral, open treatment of an iliac spine fracture without pelvic ring disturbance?

What is the appropriate CPT code for the closed treatment (manipulation) of a vertebral fracture including bracing and anesthesia?

Code the following scenario: A patient receives a sequestrectomy on the shaft of her upper arm.

Code the following scenario: Aphysician performs arthrocenteses on an interphalangeal joint to remove the fluid sample.

What is the appropriate CPT code for a biopsy of a soft tissue within the leg?

What is the appropriate CPT code when the physician performs a partial ostectomy of the sternum?

Code the following encounter: Apatient presents to the doctors office with nasal polyps. The physician excises a polyp from each nasal cavity.

inflammation of the lungs is

Sudden severe inability to breathe is

Action opposite to "expiration" is

Another world for "Alveoli" is

PIDS is

CF is

High blood pressure in the lungs is called

Wheezing with chronic bronchitis is also called

A1AT is

ET is what

Code the following scenario: A patient receives a surgical thoracoscopy, at the same time a physician performs a segmental lobectomy on the left lung. Following the pulmonary lobectory the physician removes the endoscope and places a tube to drain the fluid from the lung.

Which of the following parts is not included in the respiratory in the respiratory system CPT codes (30000-32999)?

Code the following scenario: An acceptable donor is found for a patient requiring a lung transplant. The brain dead donor's lung is harvested through a midline incision through the sternum. The organ is removed and kept in cold preservaion until it is needed for an organrecipient.

What is the appropriate CPT code for the repair of nasal septal perforations?

An 18 month- old boy with severe epoglottitis receives a planned tracheostomy. What is the appropriate CPT code for the procedure?

Rhinoplasty is the sugical modification of the _________