- Parasite drag varies directly with the sqaure of the IAS
- Airframe contamination
What are the uses of bleed air?
To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
What Anit Icing does the Airbus have?
Hot air & electircal
Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
What anti nd de-icing equipment does the PA-34 have?
Pneumatic wing and empenage boots, Electro-thermal propellor boots, Electric windshield panel, Heated lift detectors, heated pitot head
Why do you want to be a pilot?
On one of the family holidays when I was a kid (+/- 6 years) I was invited into the flight deck of the aircraft. That was the moment I knew I wanted that view as my office. Ever since that day I' ve been fascinated by aircraft and aviation. I wanted to be able to fly and master something as impressive as an aircraft. I also enjoy traveling and seeing the world, which is a nice advantage which comes with the pilot profession.
Why do you like flying?
Because every flight is different. How carefully planned, something can change during the flight which needs aticipation. Flying is a perfect mix which uses communication, technical knowledge, commercial aspects, customer satisfaction aspects with a focus on safety.
Why do you want to work for Easyjet?
- Open culture
- Young and expanding fleet
- Great safety records
- Great route structure
- Stable and reliable company
Give an example how you motivate and encourage people
- Use positive feedback
- Coach people
What does OCA mean?
Obstacle clearance altitude
What does OCH mean?
Obstacle Clearance Height
What is the manoeuvring area?
The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
What is the movement area?
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons.
When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
1919 in Paris
When was the chicago convention?
What is sovereignty?
The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
What deals Annex 1 deal with?
What does Annex 2 deal with?
Rules of the air
What does Annex 3 deal with?
Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
What does Annex 4 deal with?
What does Annex 5 deal with?
Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
What does Annex 6 deal with?
Operation of Aircraft
What does Annex 7 deal with?
Aircraft nationality and registration marks
What does Annex 8 deal with?
Airworthiness of aircraft
What does Annex 9 deal with?
What does Annex 10 deal with?
What does Annex 11 deal with?
Air traffic services
What does Annex 12 deal with?
Search and Rescue
What does Annex 13 deal with?
Aircraft Accident Investigations
What does Annex 14 deal with?
What does Annex 15 deal with?
Aeronautical Information Services
What does Annex 16 deal with?
What does Annex 17 deal with?
Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
What does Annex 18 deal with?
The safe transport of dangerous goods
What does cabotage refer to?
Domestic air services within a state
Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which whishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
By the state of registration
For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity programme be established?
For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
Who is requiered to ensure that a structural integrety programme is established for aircraft?
The state of design
Where are registration marking requiered on the aircraft?
On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
At least 50cm high
What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
At least 30cm high
What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
What is the definition of the commander?
A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may deligate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
What is the definition of the co-pilot?
A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
Between what ages may you excercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
Between 21 and 60
What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a licence holder inform the authority's?
More than 12
When must a licence holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
Surgical operation or invasive procedure
The regular use of medication
The need for regular use of correcting lenses
How many pilot proficiency checks are requiered when flights are conducted in IFR?
two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
What is the transponder code for an emergency?
What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
What is the definition of low visibility operations?
Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
On what is the MOC generally based?
On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
90m (295 ft)
What is a straight departure?
A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
Departure end of runway
What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
Obstacle Identification Surface
What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
- The arrival segment
- The initial segment
- The intermediate segment
- The final segment
- The missed approach procedure
What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
300m reducing to 150m
What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
Where a climb is established
Who determines OCA/H?
The authority of the state
What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
At the IAF
What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
Reducing from 300m to zero.
A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
The use of radar.
By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
A minimum of 30 degrees
How often is an ATIS updated?
When there is a significant change in information
The ATIS message should not exceed...?
What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
Light, medium, heavy
By what are aircraft categorised to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
Within 15 degrees
What covers the convention of Rome?
damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
The convention of Rome
Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.
What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
The aircrafts magnetic heading
To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
The Warsaw convention
What covers the Warsaw convention?
The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
What does AIRAC mean?
Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
What is AIRAC?
An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45?.
When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
With ATC permission.
Describe runway end lighting.
- Red in the direction of the runway
How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
The technical freedoms
How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
The Commercial freedoms
Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
What are the aircraft categories based on?
Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
- Missed approach
What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
75 m with FAF and 90m without
What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
What are the wake tubulence categories?
Heavy 136000 KG and more
Medium >7000 KG - 135999
Light < 7000 KG
When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
At all times, except during Radar vectoring
When are NOTAMS issued?
1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
2. permanent and operationally significant nature
3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
When is a runway reported damp?
When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
When is a runway reported wet?
The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
When is a runway reported water patches?
significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
When is a runway reported flooded?
extensive standing water.
Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft?s mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
25 hours op operation
When are life jackets requiered to be carried on board an aeroplane?
Flights more than 50 NM from land
Where is the MEL found?
In the Operations manual
What is supplemental oxygen used for?
Provide oxygen to passengers who might requiere it, following a cabin depressurisation.
Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-incommand on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
Take off and landing
When must a radiator indicator be carried?
For flights above 49000 ft
What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
Destination alternate for a turbojet ? what is the required fuel overhead?
30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
When are life rafts required to be carried?
Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
While at their station
How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
The Air Operator?s Certificate (AOC).
How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
Who approves the MEL?
The Authority of the State of the Operator.
Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
On what is the JAR OPS document based?
ICAO Annex 6
What is the purpose of an operations manual?
For the guidance of operations personnel.
Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
What is VAT?
VSO x 1.3.
According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
When is DH used?
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
One life raft for every 100 persons
The take-off distance available is:
the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
Pressure altitude is:
The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
What is Vr dependant of?
Mass and flap setting
What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases up to the optimum setting (+/- 15 degrees)?
What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases beyond the optimum setting?
What happens to the acceleration during the Take Off?
Why does the acceleration reduces during the take off run?
Because thrust reduces and drag increases.
What happens to the take off distance if Mass increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Temperature increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Pressure altitude increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Headwind increases?
What happens to the take off distance if tailwind decreases
What happens to the take off distance with an upsloping runway?
What happens to the climb gradient with flaps?
What is the absolute ceiling?
The altitude at which the rate of climb is zero
What is the service ceiling?
The altitude at which the rate of climb is 500 ft for jet aircraft and 100 ft for propellor aircraft
The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of....
The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
What is Vx?
The speed for best angle of climb
What is the maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling?
0 ft/ min
What is the Vx speed for jet aircraft?
What is Vy?
Speed for maximum rate of climb.
What is the Vy speed for jet aircraft?
1.32 x Vmd
What happens to Vy as altitude increases?
What happens to Vx as altitude increases?
What happens to Vx and Vy at the absolute ceiling?
They are equal
What is the maximum range speed for jet aircraft?
1.32 x Vmd
What happens to the drag and speed stability when the speed is reduced below Vmd?
Drag increases and speed stability decreases.
As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS, TAS and Mach number will....
IAS: remain constant
What does Vs0 mean?
The stall speed in the landing configuration
What happens to the induced drag with increasing IAS
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
Can a stopway be used in take off distance calculations?
The stopway allows an increase in only which area?
The accelerate-stop distance available
What happens with slush on the runway to the take off distance requiered?
What happens with too early and too late rotation during the take-off?
It increases the ground run and decreases the climb ability.
An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number. What happens with the IAS and TAS?
TAS: Remains constant
An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to IAS and TAS?
What happens to the pitch angle when descending at a constant Mach number?
The pitch angle will decrease.
What is the main reason for using the step climb technique?