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  1. What is the weakest part of a jet engine?
    The turbine
  2. How is the cycle of a jet engine called?
    The Brayton cycle
  3. In which section is power generated by a jet engine?
    In the turbine section
  4. What is a pure jet?
    All the airflow is going through the combustion chamber
  5. What generates the noise coming from jet engines?
    The airflow exhausted and difference the difference between exhaust temperature and ambient temperature.
  6. What is the by pass ratio?
    The ratio of the amount of air which is by passed around the hot core of the engine, to the amount of air which passes through the hot core.
  7. Where occurs the highest pressure in a gas turbine engine?
    Between the compressor and the combustion chamber
  8. What controls the fan speed in a turbo fan engine?
    The turbine.
  9. What is the advantage of modular construction?
    It enables malfuntioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.
  10. The by pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
    cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
  11. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place....?
    continuously
  12. What is the pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor?
    The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
  13. A stage of an axial flow compressor consists of what?
    One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
  14. How are the ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor called?
    the inlet guide vanes
  15. What is the action to be taken in the event of an engine surge?
    Slowly close the throttle
  16. Shrouding of the stator blade tips is designed to do minimize what?
    Vibration
  17. How many engines does the PA-34 200T have?
    2
  18. What type of engine does the Pa-34 have?
    Six cylinder, Direct driven, Horizontally opposed, Fuel injected, air cooled, turbo charged
  19. Who is the manufacturer of the engine used on the PA-34?
    Continental
  20. What is the engine model number of the engines used on the PA-34?
    TSIO-360E (EB)/ LTSIO-360E (EB)
  21. How many rated horse power are the engines on the PA-34?
    At sea level 200 HP, above 12000 ft 215 HP
  22. What is the compression ratio of the engines on the PA-34?
    7.5:1
  23. What kind of propellors on the PA-34?
    Hartzell or McCauley
  24. How many blades does the Hartzell propellor have?
    2
  25. How many blades does the McCauley propellor have?
    3
  26. What type of propellors does the PA-34 have?
    Constant speed, Hydraulically actuated, Full feathering
  27. What is the fuel capacity on the PA-34
    98 U.S. Gal
  28. What is the useable fuel on the PA-34?
    93 U.S. Gal
  29. What is the oil capacity on the PA-34?
    8 U.S. Quarts
  30. What is the minimum oil quantity for flight on the PA-34?
    7 Quarts
  31. What is the maximum take-off weight for the PA-34?
    4570 Lbs.
  32. What is the maximum landing weight?
    4342 Lbs.
  33. What is Vne on the PA-34?
    195
  34. What is Vno on the PA-34?
    163
  35. What is Vfe on the PA-34?
    107
  36. What is Vmc on the PA-34?
    66
  37. What is Vle on the PA-34?
    129
  38. What is the green arc speed on the PA-34?
    63 - 163
  39. What is the yellow arc speed on the PA-34?
    163 - 195
  40. What is the white arc speed on the PA-34?
    61 - 107
  41. What is the blue line speed on the PA-34? (best rate of climb single engine)
    89
  42. Is flight into icing conditions allowed on the PA-34?
    • Yes, when fitted with:
    • - Pneumatic Wing and empenage boots
    • - Electro-thermal propellor boots
    • - Electric windshield panel
    • - heated pitot head
    • - Wing ice ligt
    • - Heated lift detectors
    • - Propellor spinners must be installed
  43. Up to what altitude is flight with the Pa-34 approved
    Up to 25000 ft when equipped with supplemental oxygen
  44. What material is used to construct the airframe of the PA-34?
    Alluminium Alloy
  45. What kind of design is used on the fuselage of the PA-34?
    semi-monocoque
  46. What kind of wing design has the PA-34?
    conventional wing design
  47. How are the flaps operated on the PA-34?
    Mechanically by a handle located between the two front seats
  48. In what direction does the propellor of the left engine rotate?
    Clockwise
  49. In what direction does the propellor of the right engine rotate?
    counter clockwise
  50. Tell something about the engines on the PA-34?
    The engines are air-cooled, fuel injected and are equipped with oil coolers, a low temperature by pass system and engine mounted oil filters.
  51. What kind of trim tab does the PA-34 have on the stabilator?
    anti servo trim tab.
  52. Why does the stabilator have an anti servo trim tab on the PA-34?
    To improve longitudinal stability and provide longitudinal trim.
  53. In which direction, compared to the stabilator does the trim tab on the PA-34 move?
    In the same direction as the stabilator, but with increased level.
  54. How is rudder effectiveness increased on the PA-34?
    By an anti servo tab on the rudder.
  55. How is assymetric thrust during take off and the climb eliminated on the PA-34?
    By counter rotating engines.
  56. What type of fuel injection system does the PA-34 have?
    Continous flow
  57. What is the critical engine ont he PA-34?
    There is none, due to the counter rotating propellors.
  58. What kind of landing gear has the PA-34?
    A hydraulically operated, fully retractable tricycle landing gear.
  59. What kind of brakes does the PA-34 have?
    2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies.
  60. What kind of ailerons are fitted to the PA-34?
    Ailerons of the ' frise' type
  61. How are the flaps on the PA-34 operated?
    Manually
  62. Which flap positions does the PA-34 have?
    10 degrees, 25 degrees, 40 degrees.
  63. What kind of altenators does the PA-34 have?
    Two 65 Amp altenators (one on each engine)
  64. What kind of battery does the PA-34 have?
    A 35 ampere, 12 Volt battery
  65. Wat is the most important property in generating lift?
    Air density
  66. What are the four forces acting upon an aircraft in flight?
    Lift, weight, drag and thrust
  67. What happens to the OAT at the stratosphere?
    Remains constant
  68. What is the approximate height of the Stratosphere?
    36.000 ft
  69. What happens to density if static pressure decreases?
    Decreases
  70. What happens to density if temperature increases?
    Decreases
  71. What happens to density if humidity increases?
    Decreases
  72. The sum of what is Total pressure?
    Dynamic Pressure and Static Pressure
  73. Which factors affect Air density?
    Temperature, Static Pressure, Humidity
  74. Whay does increasing altitude decrease the air density?
    Because the effect of decreasing static pressure is more dominant than decreasing temperature.
  75. What is the Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?
    The speed of the airflow over some part of the aircraft (usually the point of maximum thickness on the aerofoil) first reaches the speed of sound.
  76. The inputs to an air speed indicator are from?
    A pitot and static source.
  77. What is the principle of continuity?
    Enegery and Mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one form to another.
  78. What happens to the mass flow and velocity of the airflow if the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced?
    Mass flow remains constant, velocity increases.
  79. What will be insignificant at flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound (Mo.4)?
    Changes in density due to dynamic pressure.
  80. What is the definition of Chord Line?
    A straight line joining the centers of curvature of the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil.
  81. What is the chord?
    The distance between the leading and trailing edges measured along the chord line.
  82. What is the angle of incidence?
    The angle between the wing root chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (This angle is fixed for the wing, but may be variable for the tailplane)
  83. What is the Mean line or Camber line?
    A line joing the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil, equidistant fromt he upper and lower surfaces.
  84. What is the thickness to chord ratio?
    The maximum thickness or depth of an aerofoil section expressed as a percentage of the chord.
  85. What is the leading edge radius?
    The radius of curvature of the leading edge.
  86. What is the center of pressure (CP)?
    The point on the chord line, through which lift is considered to act.
  87. At what angle to the relative airflow does lift act?
    90 degrees.
  88. What is the angle of attack (AOA)?
    The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow.
  89. What is the effective angle of attack?
    The angle between the chord line and the effective airflow.
  90. What is Pressure Gradient?
    A change in air pressure over a distance.
  91. What is adverse pressure gradient?
    When air pressure is rising in the direction of airflow.
  92. What happens to the Center Of Pressure with increasing angle of attack?
    Moves forward.
  93. When is the Center Of Pressure at its most forward location?
    Just before the stall (Clmax)
  94. What will airflow pattern and eventually lift and drag depend upon?
    Angle of attack, Aerofoil shape (thickness & camber), air density, velocity.
  95. What is the definition of lift?
    The aerodynamic force which atcs at 90 degrees to the relative airflow.
  96. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift atcs is the...?
    Center of pressure.
  97. What is sweep angle?
    Measured as the angle between the line of 25% chords and perpendicular to the root chord.
  98. When does the generation of wake vortex begin?
    When the nosewheel lifts off the runway on take off.
  99. When does the generation of wake vortex stop?
    Untill the nosewheel touches down on the landing.
  100. On which characteristics are trailing vortices dependand on?
    • Weight - Heavier aircraft, stronger vortices
    • Wingspan - Has an influence upon the proximity of the two trailing votices
    • Airspeed - The lower the airspeed, the stronger the vortices
    • Configuration - Vortex strength is greatest with aircraft in a "clean" configuration (for a given speed and weight)
    • Attitude - The higher the angle of attack, the stronger the vortices
  101. What happens tot he lift and drag in ground effect?
    Lift will be increased and drag decreased.
  102. What comprises total drag?
    Parasite drag & Induced drag
  103. What comprises Parasite drag?
    Skin friction drag, form/ pressure drag & interference drag?
  104. How are sking friction drag and form drag also called?
    Profile drag
  105. In which direction does drag act?
    Parallel to and in the same direction as the relative airflow (in the opposite direction to the flight path).
  106. What is induced drag the result of?
    Lift generation
  107. What is the reason for form(pressure) drag?
    This is due to the high pressure at the leading edge and low pressure at the trailing edge.
  108. What are factors affecting Parasite drag?
    • - Indicated airspeed (increasing airspeed, increasing drag)
    • - Parasite drag varies directly with the sqaure of the IAS
    • - Configuration
    • - Airframe contamination
  109. What are the uses of bleed air?
    To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
  110. What Anit Icing does the Airbus have?
    • Hot air & electircal
    • Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
  111. What anti nd de-icing equipment does the PA-34 have?
    Pneumatic wing and empenage boots, Electro-thermal propellor boots, Electric windshield panel, Heated lift detectors, heated pitot head
  112. Why do you want to be a pilot?
    On one of the family holidays when I was a kid (+/- 6 years) I was invited into the flight deck of the aircraft. That was the moment I knew I wanted that view as my office. Ever since that day I' ve been fascinated by aircraft and aviation. I wanted to be able to fly and master something as impressive as an aircraft. I also enjoy traveling and seeing the world, which is a nice advantage which comes with the pilot profession.
  113. Why do you like flying?
    Because every flight is different. How carefully planned, something can change during the flight which needs aticipation. Flying is a perfect mix which uses communication, technical knowledge, commercial aspects, customer satisfaction aspects with a focus on safety.
  114. Why do you want to work for Easyjet?
    • - Open culture
    • - Young and expanding fleet
    • - Great safety records
    • - Great route structure
    • - Stable and reliable company
  115. Give an example how you motivate and encourage people
    • - Use positive feedback
    • - Coach people
    • - Compliment
    • - Insentives
  116. What does OCA mean?
    Obstacle clearance altitude
  117. What does OCH mean?
    Obstacle Clearance Height
  118. What is the manoeuvring area?
    The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
  119. What is the movement area?
    That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons.
  120. When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
    1919 in Paris
  121. When was the chicago convention?
    1944
  122. What is sovereignty?
    The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
  123. What deals Annex 1 deal with?
    Personnel licensing
  124. What does Annex 2 deal with?
    Rules of the air
  125. What does Annex 3 deal with?
    Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
  126. What does Annex 4 deal with?
    Aeronautical charts
  127. What does Annex 5 deal with?
    Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
  128. What does Annex 6 deal with?
    Operation of Aircraft
  129. What does Annex 7 deal with?
    Aircraft nationality and registration marks
  130. What does Annex 8 deal with?
    Airworthiness of aircraft
  131. What does Annex 9 deal with?
    Facilitation
  132. What does Annex 10 deal with?
    Aeronautical telecommunications
  133. What does Annex 11 deal with?
    Air traffic services
  134. What does Annex 12 deal with?
    Search and Rescue
  135. What does Annex 13 deal with?
    Aircraft Accident Investigations
  136. What does Annex 14 deal with?
    Aerodromes
  137. What does Annex 15 deal with?
    Aeronautical Information Services
  138. What does Annex 16 deal with?
    Environmental Protection
  139. What does Annex 17 deal with?
    Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
  140. What does Annex 18 deal with?
    The safe transport of dangerous goods
  141. What does cabotage refer to?
    Domestic air services within a state
  142. Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which whishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
    2nd freedom
  143. By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
    By the state of registration
  144. For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity programme be established?
    For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
  145. Who is requiered to ensure that a structural integrety programme is established for aircraft?
    The state of design
  146. Where are registration marking requiered on the aircraft?
    On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
  147. What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
    At least 50cm high
  148. What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
    At least 30cm high
  149. What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
    The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
  150. What is the definition of the commander?
    A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may deligate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
  151. What is the definition of the co-pilot?
    A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
  152. Between what ages may you excercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
    Between 21 and 60
  153. What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
    18
  154. What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
    21
  155. After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a licence holder inform the authority's?
    More than 12
  156. When must a licence holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
    • Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
    • Surgical operation or invasive procedure
    • The regular use of medication
    • The need for regular use of correcting lenses
  157. How many pilot proficiency checks are requiered when flights are conducted in IFR?
    two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
  158. How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
    6 months
  159. What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
    0.2. promille
  160. What is the transponder code for an emergency?
    7700
  161. What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
    7600
  162. What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
    7500
  163. What is the definition of low visibility operations?
    Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
  164. On what is the MOC generally based?
    On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
  165. How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
    0 feet
  166. What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
    90m (295 ft)
  167. What is a straight departure?
    A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
  168. Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
    10KM
  169. Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
    25nm
  170. What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
    Departure end of runway
  171. What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
    Obstacle Identification Surface
  172. What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
  173. What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
    • - The arrival segment
    • - The initial segment
    • - The intermediate segment
    • - The final segment
    • - The missed approach procedure
  174. What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
    300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
  175. What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
    300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
  176. Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
    At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
  177. What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
    2.5%
  178. What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
    300m reducing to 150m
  179. What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
    5nms
  180. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
    FAP
  181. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
    6.5%
  182. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
    30m
  183. Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
    30 degrees
  184. At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
    When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
  185. Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
    Yes
  186. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
    Where a climb is established
  187. Who determines OCA/H?
    The authority of the state
  188. What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
    3 degrees
  189. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
    800m
  190. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
    At the IAF
  191. What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
    Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
  192. What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  193. What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
    230kts
  194. What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
    240Kts
  195. What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
    280Kts
  196. How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
    5nm
  197. What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
    Reducing from 300m to zero.
  198. A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
    Shuttle
  199. What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
    The use of radar.
  200. By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
    A minimum of 30 degrees
  201. How often is an ATIS updated?
    When there is a significant change in information
  202. The ATIS message should not exceed...?
    30 seconds
  203. What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
    Light, medium, heavy
  204. By what are aircraft categorised to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
    By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
  205. Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
    • convention.
    • ICAO
  206. For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
    Within 15 degrees
  207. What covers the convention of Rome?
    damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
  208. Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
    The convention of Rome
  209. Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the airport.
  210. What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
    24 hours
  211. What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    10 NM
  212. What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    5 NM
  213. What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
    300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
  214. What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
    150 m
  215. The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
    The aircrafts magnetic heading
  216. To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
    Pressure altimeter
  217. To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
    Radio altimeter
  218. What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
    0 Ft.
  219. Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
    The Warsaw convention
  220. What covers the Warsaw convention?
    The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
  221. What does AIRAC mean?
    Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
  222. What is AIRAC?
    An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
  223. When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
    If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45?.
  224. When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
    With ATC permission.
  225. Describe runway end lighting.
    • - Fixed
    • - Unidirectional
    • - Red in the direction of the runway
  226. How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
    The technical freedoms
  227. How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
    The Commercial freedoms
  228. Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  229. What are the aircraft categories based on?
    Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
  230. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
    • - Arrival
    • - Initial
    • - Intermediate
    • - Final
    • - Missed approach
  231. What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
    75 m with FAF and 90m without
  232. What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
    • up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
    • Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
    • Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
  233. What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
    The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
  234. What are the wake tubulence categories?
    • Heavy 136000 KG and more
    • Medium >7000 KG - 135999
    • Light < 7000 KG
  235. When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
    At all times, except during Radar vectoring
  236. When are NOTAMS issued?
    • 1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
    • 2. permanent and operationally significant nature
    • 3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
  237. When is a runway reported damp?
    When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
  238. When is a runway reported wet?
    The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
  239. When is a runway reported water patches?
    significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
  240. When is a runway reported flooded?
    extensive standing water.
  241. Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft?s mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
    The commander
  242. At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
    25 hours op operation
  243. When are life jackets requiered to be carried on board an aeroplane?
    Flights more than 50 NM from land
  244. Where is the MEL found?
    In the Operations manual
  245. What is supplemental oxygen used for?
    Provide oxygen to passengers who might requiere it, following a cabin depressurisation.
  246. Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
    Operation manual
  247. Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
    Operations manual
  248. Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
    The operator
  249. What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
    Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-incommand on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
  250. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
    Take off and landing
  251. When must a radiator indicator be carried?
    For flights above 49000 ft
  252. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
    Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
  253. As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
    2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
  254. Destination alternate for a turbojet ? what is the required fuel overhead?
    30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
  255. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
    The PIC
  256. Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
    25.000 ft
  257. Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
    13.000 ft
  258. What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
    Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
  259. When are life rafts required to be carried?
    Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
  260. When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
    While at their station
  261. How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
    3 months
  262. If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
    No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
  263. Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
    The operator

    • An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
    • 5700 Kg
  264. Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
    The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
  265. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
    The Air Operator?s Certificate (AOC).
  266. How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
    60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
  267. Who approves the MEL?
    The Authority of the State of the Operator.
  268. Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
    Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
  269. To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
    Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
  270. After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
    60 days
  271. To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
    JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
  272. On what is the JAR OPS document based?
    ICAO Annex 6
  273. What is the purpose of an operations manual?
    For the guidance of operations personnel.
  274. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
    The operator
  275. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
    The operator
  276. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
    No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
  277. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
    Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
  278. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
    300 Ft.
  279. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
    No minimum
  280. According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
    75m
  281. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
    100 ft
  282. What is VAT?
    VSO x 1.3.
  283. According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
    200 m
  284. When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
    When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
  285. When is DH used?
    Precision approaches.
  286. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
    550m
  287. The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
    200 feet
  288. What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
    200m
  289. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
    2400m
  290. What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
    One life raft for every 100 persons
  291. The take-off distance available is:
    the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
  292. Pressure altitude is:
    The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
  293. What is Vr dependant of?
    Mass and flap setting
  294. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases up to the optimum setting (+/- 15 degrees)?
    Reduces
  295. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases beyond the optimum setting?
    Increases
  296. What happens to the acceleration during the Take Off?
    Reduces
  297. Why does the acceleration reduces during the take off run?
    Because thrust reduces and drag increases.
  298. What happens to the take off distance if Mass increases?
    Inreases
  299. What happens to the take off distance if Temperature increases?
    Increases
  300. What happens to the take off distance if Pressure altitude increases?
    Increases
  301. What happens to the take off distance if Headwind increases?
    Reduces
  302. What happens to the take off distance if tailwind decreases
    Reduces
  303. What happens to the take off distance with an upsloping runway?
    Increases
  304. What happens to the climb gradient with flaps?
    Decreases
  305. What is the absolute ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is zero
  306. What is the service ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is 500 ft for jet aircraft and 100 ft for propellor aircraft
  307. The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of....
    The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
  308. What is Vx?
    The speed for best angle of climb
  309. What is the maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling?
    0 ft/ min
  310. What is the Vx speed for jet aircraft?
    Vmd
  311. What is Vy?
    Speed for maximum rate of climb.
  312. What is the Vy speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  313. What happens to Vy as altitude increases?
    Decreases
  314. What happens to Vx as altitude increases?
    Remains constant
  315. What happens to Vx and Vy at the absolute ceiling?
    They are equal
  316. What is the maximum range speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  317. What happens to the drag and speed stability when the speed is reduced below Vmd?
    Drag increases and speed stability decreases.
  318. As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS, TAS and Mach number will....
    • IAS: remain constant
    • TAS: Increase
    • MACH: Increase
  319. What does Vs0 mean?
    The stall speed in the landing configuration
  320. What happens to the induced drag with increasing IAS
    Decreases
  321. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
    The lift
  322. Can a stopway be used in take off distance calculations?
    No
  323. The stopway allows an increase in only which area?
    The accelerate-stop distance available
  324. What happens with slush on the runway to the take off distance requiered?
    Increases
  325. What happens with too early and too late rotation during the take-off?
    It increases the ground run and decreases the climb ability.
  326. An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number. What happens with the IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Remains constant
  327. An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Decreases
  328. What happens to the pitch angle when descending at a constant Mach number?
    The pitch angle will decrease.
  329. What is the main reason for using the step climb technique?
    Increase range
  330. When doen thrust = drag?
    Flying level at a constant IAS
  331. How is SFC affected by the CG position?
    SFC is not affected by CG position.
Author
Anonymous
ID
79418
Card Set
All questions.txt
Description
All questions 13 april 2011
Updated

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