1. If the LRU is determined to be defective and will not secure to the floor fitting, the LRU must be replaced. Failure to do so could result in _______________________
    • damage to the cargo
    • damage to the roller system
    • damage to the aircraft
    • all of the above
  2. All cargo door components _______ be installed before loading or unloading any pallets.
  3. (Type Two Studs) Do not apply additional force to nut when the nut engages _______________________
    retainer ring
  4. Do not use any __________embossed with "W-ITALY" on the hook
    10,000-pound chain
  5. Do not use any 3/98 Davis _________ -pound device unless it is marked 3/98R.
  6. The MB-1 tiedown tensioner when rigged in a certain configuration has a capacity drastically below the _______ pound rating of the tiedown. This configuration exists when the load carrying portion of the chain is routed up then down into the tiedown jaw.
  7. Straps shall never be laced or woven through the net in such a manner as to prevent the tie from leading off in a straight line _______________________
    in the direction of pull.
  8. Do not allow any load to be placed on the cargo door _______ in the sill of the cargo door.
    latch fittings
  9. Calculated restraint received from a particular __________cannot be higher than the lowest restraint value of any device, floor fitting, or attachment point.
    tiedown device
  10. The loader platform cannot be higher than _______ inches above the aircraft roller platform or the pallet will tilt into the rollers, causing roller system damage or failure.
  11. Do not allow forklift __________inside cargo door opening.
    roller tines
  12. (Type One Stud Installation) Damage to the system or _______ could result if each floor stud is not fully secured in the floor tiedown fitting.
    injury to personnel
  13. _______ must be arranged to permit operation of the emergency flap or main landing gear controls, and access to the main gear inspection doors.
    Cargo and shoring
  14. Do not exceed _______ pounds per square foot of projected area for ground loading conditions.
  15. Tires will not be deflated. Tire deflation may cause the tire _______ to break, allowing air pressure to escape and permit the wheel rim to contact the cargo floor/shoring during flight through turbulence.
  16. Do not exceed _______ pounds per square foot of projected area for flight conditions.
  17. Failure to check _______ restraint can result in damage to equipment or injury to personnel.
  18. Pallet stops _______ stop runaway pallets.
    will not
  19. Each pallet must be aligned during transfer from cargo loading equipment. Failure to do so may result in damage to the _______________________
    aircraft cargo door frame or omni rollers.
  20. Do not place an original ____________________, or any other ISU type bin that does not have all 9 lock detents on the left or right side, in pallet position 5 or 6; the missing detents on this pallet will not allow proper restraint from two separate LRUs. Only modified or newer ISU-70 bins have all 9 lock detents
    Cadillac Bin, ISU-70-KC
  21. When the K-loader is properly positioned, there may be a gap up to ___ inches from the edge of the K-loader to the cargo floor. Personnel must use extreme caution to avoid stepping into the gap when loading or unloading pallets.
  22. Do not attempt to _______ pallets on the omni-directional panel without a load vehicle raised in position.
  23. Each pallet must have ____ lock(s) from two different restraint assemblies engaged for proper pallet restraint. Ensure all _______ are properly engaged on the pallet.
    one, lock dogs and/or flip locks
  24. Do not use floor fittings with bolts missing or found to be loose, or bolts that are not _______ the floor.
    flush with
  25. (B-2) At true air temperatures colder than approximately ______________, the boom latching toggles may take up to 1 second to engage and 2 seconds to release.
    -45 degrees C
  26. (B-2) Contact with the surface outside of the receptacle must be avoided. The ___________will be informed of boom contacts outside the receptacle.
    receiver pilot
  27. (C-17) ______________ may cause the tanker to descend into the path of the receiver. The pilot must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot to prevent altitude deviations. Initiate a breakaway at the first indication of a closure overrun.
    Excessive closure rate
  28. (C-17) If receiver movement is toward the _____________, boom operators will exercise sound judgment ininitiating a disconnect or breakaway prior to the receiver exceeding the limit or overrunning the tanker.
    inner limit
  29. (F-16) During AAR with an airplane with CFTs, immediately inform the receiver of any fuel venting in the area of the engine exhaust; there is a possibility that vented fuel could be ignited during ________________.
    afterburner operation
  30. During AAR with an airplane with CFTs, do not allow the boom to contact the CFT; a boom strike on either CFT could lead to ______________________. Immediately inform the receiver of any strike to a CFT.
    tank failure and a catastrophic fuel leak
  31. (KC-10) AAR receptacle flood light doors are located on _____________________ the leading edge of the receptacle. If AAR receptacle flood lights are turned on, caution must be exercised to prevent striking the doors.
    both sides and just forward of
  32. During AAR with NKC-135 receivers, exercise extreme care to ensure the boom nozzle does not go past the aft edge of the receptacle, as the distance from the aft edge of the receptacle to the upper radome is ________.
    4 feet
  33. Some F-16B/D/F/I (two-seater) models are modified with a raised avionic hump on the spine of the aircraft which raises the receptacle approximately ___________.
    1 foot
  34. Night AAR with E-3D/F receivers will not be attempted if the _____________________________ are inoperative.
    probe electro-luminescent lighting, boom nozzle light (s), and TMF (s)
  35. (A-10) During boom retraction, the receiver slipway door forward area may be damaged by the boom nozzle catching on a ______________ of the slipway. Retract the boom slowly and raise it to clear the door area.
    gap in the forward end
  36. Contact will not be attempted until the _______ type receiver has stabilized 2 to 3 feet from the contact position.
  37. For all _________ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within 1/2 NM; this includes datalink.
    foreign aircraft
  38. For all ________ boom receiver AARs, do not transmit on HF radio when receiver is in close proximity or in contact with the AAR boom, unless otherwise specified.
  39. For all _______ aircraft, the telescope-at-disconnect switch will be in manual during AAR operations.
    fighter and C-130
  40. The boom operator must be constantly aware of the receiver's position and rate of movement. The receiver's rate of movement toward an envelope limit will dictate the need to initiate a disconnect. If the movement is toward the _________, boom operators will exercise sound judgment in initiating a disconnect or breakaway prior to the receiver exceeding the limit or overrunning the tanker.
    inner limit
  41. When _______ pressures are required, it is mandatory that the oxygen mask be well fitted to the face.
  42. Do not retract the boom without _____ electrical power and the A/R Master Switch _____. This is necessary to prevent exceeding boom fuel pressure limitations.
    DC; ON
  43. When the signal amplifier is in override and the telescope at disconnect switch is in _______, hold the disconnect switch pressed until the boom is fully retracted.
  44. With the boom stowed, do not _______________________
    use automatic retraction.
  45. Do not exceed _______ in azimuth or __________ in elevation.
    20 degrees; 50 degrees
  46. (R/T-Model APU) If an APU shuts down due to a fire or overheat condition, _______________________
    do not attempt a restart without maintenance action/approval.
  47. The alternate pressurization system and/or cargo compartment temperature control should not be operated in full _______ or full hot _______ mode during takeoff, climb, or cruise conditions.
  48. Do not attempt to fly the A/R boom with the sighting door closed. Closing the sighting door shuts off hydraulic pressure to the tension motor, and the resulting slack can cause _______________________
    kinks in the cable with subsequent breakage.
  49. Prior to servicing portable oxygen bottles, insure that oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen recharger outlet are free of _______________________
    oil or grease.
  50. Due to the automatic pressure breathing feature of the oxygen regulator, a continuous flow of oxygen at high cabin altitudes (approximately _______ feet) will result if the oxygen regulator is not being used and the supply lever is in the _____ position.
    30,000; ON
  51. (Nose Gear Alternate Extension) If the handle is moved aft too soon and the gear has started to free fall, force can be transmitted to the handle and break the handle if the striker is _________________, thus endangering the operator.
    locked on the hook
  52. (DITCHING) Do not release seat belt or shoulder harness until ________________________
    airplane comes to a complete stop.
  53. (Alternate Retraction of Landing Gear) Read the ______________ and the two oleo extension indicator(s) carefully. A misread indicator could lead to wheel well damage.
    two truck level
  54. (T-Model) A dangerous _______ condition will occur if all body tank fuel is dumped with fuel in thecenter wing tank above 35,000 pounds.
    forward cg
  55. If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, ______ the FDR/CVRpower circuit breaker.
  56. Air refueling for the receiver that required a controlled tension disconnect will be terminated except_______________________
    during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity.
  57. A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished only __________, after all other normalane emergency methods of disconnect have failed.
    as a last resort
  58. Following a(n) _____ brute force disconnect, air refueling will be terminated except during fuelemergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity.
  59. (Reverse Flow Air Refueling) Do not exceed the aft CG limit. The tanker crew must closely monitorairplane CG during reverse air refueling, as the aft CG can be quickly exceeded in airplanes operating at______________
    light gross weights.
  60. The ________________ switch discontinues limit switch operation. During manual operation, the boomoperator must constantly observe that the receiver stays within the air refueling envelope.
  61. The telescope-at-disconnect switch will be in __________ anytime the tanker does not have disconnectcapability.
  62. During refueling, if fuel is observed leaking from the boom, boom nozzle or anywhere on the boom drogueadapter, _______________________. Unless the situation warrents an immediate disconnect, the boomoperator will coordinate a normal disconnect from the prescribed trail position. Air refueling will be terminatedexcept in cases of emergency or when continuance of refueling is dictated by operational necessity.
    fuel transfer will be terminated.
  63. To prevent overheating of the instrument and circuit breaker panels, ______ lighting to the panels as soonas checks are complete.
    turn off
  64. If the receiver director lights fail to illuminate when contact is established,____________________________ If refueling is continued, verbal corrections from the boom operator may berequested.
    the receiver pilot will inform the boom operator if air refueling operations will be continued.
  65. Exercise care when flying the boom into the stowed position to prevent damage to the_______________________ of the airplane.
    boom and empennage.
  66. Ensure the sighting door is closed prior to checking the ruddervators. Manipulation of the ruddevator control stick with the sighting door open and the ______ ______ will result in damage to the ruddevatorlocking mechanism.
    boom stowed
  67. (PROBE AND DROGUE AR, BOOM DROGUE ADAPTER) To eliminate the possibility of the____________________ , the receiver pilot will be notified anytime forward movement approaches one-half hose length.
    hose contacting the receiver while in contact
  68. (PROBE AND DROUGE AR, BOOM DROUGE ADAPTER) The telescope-at-disconnect switch must be in the _____________position for all contacts.
  69. (PROBE AND DROGUE AR, BOOM DROGUE ADAPTER) Due to the possibility of fuel pressure extending the boom, all air refueling with the boom drogue adapter will be performed with the_______________________
    boom fully extended.
  70. The OVERRIDE switch discontinues limit switch operation, and the _______________________ light will not come on when a limit is reached.
  71. Do not attempt to maneuver the receiver with the ruddevator control stick or _______________________
    boom telescope lever.
  72. The boom operator will monitor the boom position indicators and receiver closely and be prepared toinitiate a disconnect or breakaway before the receiver gets into a position where _______________________
    nozzle binding could occur.
  73. With any usable fuel (except slosh fuel) in the upper deck tank operate the airplane in the cautionary range,( _______ load factor) because of body structural limits.
  74. Prior to a non-EWO start, check the enclosure floor through the ___________ with a flashlight. Anyevidence of fuel or hydraulic fluid requires investigation and corrective action.
    forward and aft APU fire doors
  75. Rapid completion of __________ turns can allow the gear to fall before the doors open sufficiently toclear the path of the free falling gear.
    three ccw
Card Set
boom mqf