Immuno Final, Ib

  1. What is the basis for a variety of immunologic or immunodiagnostic tests?
    Antigen-Antibody interaction
  2. The antigen-antibody interaction is affected by?
    • Forces of attraction
    • Concentration of the antigen and antibody
  3. Serum dilutions are used to measure what?
    the amount of antibody in the serum
  4. How is the amount of antibody in a serum determined?
    by testing increasing dilutions of the serum sample for antibody reactivity to the known antigen of interest
  5. What is the reciprocal of the highest dilution of a serum sample that gives a reaction to the known antigen of interest in an immunological test?Titer
  6. What does a color change in an ELISA plate mean?antibody was detected at that dilution
  7. What directly measures binding of antigen to antibody in vitro? Either the antibody or the antigen needs to be labeled with something we can detect.primary binding tests
  8. What measures the results of antigen-antibody interactions in vitro. Results include precipitation or agglutination of Ag-Ab complexes; cell lyses.secondary binding tests
  9. What is the top fraction after blood sample clots (contains proteins, but does not contain any cells; nor any clotting factors)?serum
  10. What are cells or tissues to probe with antibody when looking for antigen?whole blood in anti-coagulant, tissue secretions on dead or euthanized animals or
    from biopsy
  11. What is a normal constituent of all fresh serum (fresh, unheated guinea pig serum is the most efficient in hemolytic tests)?complement
  12. What is it called when multiple B cell clones make antibodies to different epitopes of an antigen and many antibodies of different specificity to different epitopes are generated?polyclonal antibody
  13. What is an antibody produced from a single B cell clone?monoclonal antibody
  14. What is blood serum containing antibodies against specific antigens?anti-serum
  15. What are immunoenzyme assays?ELISA, western blot, immunochemistry
  16. What are primary binding tests?immunofluorescence assays, immunoenzyme assays
  17. What are secondary binding tests?precipitations tests, agglutination tests, neuralization tests, complement fixation tests
  18. What does a direct fluorescent antibody test detect?antigen
  19. What does an indirect fluorescent antibody test detect?antibody
  20. What test is used to identify specific protein antigens in a complex protein mixture; or to identify specific antibody to a known antigen?western blot
  21. What is the most widely used enzyme in IHC?horseradish peroxidase
  22. During what test are antibodies against a particular antigen conjugated to an enzyme and can be used to detect and locate that specific antigen in tissue sections?immunohistochemistry
  23. What controls are used during a immunohistochemistry test?use an irrelevant antibody, use a normal section of tissue to compare with the test section of tissue
  24. What happens when antibodies combine with soluble antigens in solution or gel?precipitation
  25. If antigens are particulate, then antibodies may make them clump or________Agglutinate
  26. What tests estimate the ability of antibody to neutralize the biological activity of an antigen when mixed in vitro?neutralization tests
  27. What is it called when an antibody can activate the classical complement pathway and the antigen is on a cell surface, then cell lysis may result.complement
    fixation lysis
  28. In a precipitation test, the amount of precipitate that develops is determined by what?by the relative proportions of antibody to that antigen
  29. Where is there an approximately equal ratio of Ag and Ab, promotes maximal Ag-Ab binding, best for cross-linking of multivalent antigens by their specific antibodies?Zone of Equivalence
  30. Where there is antibody excess relative to antigen and poor lattice formation occurs. Can't visualize.Prozone
  31. Where there is antigen excess relative to antibody and poor lattice formation occurs. Can't visualize.postzone
  32. In double immunodiffusion, where the reactants meet in optimal proportions what forms?zone of equivalence, an opaque white line of precipitate forms
  33. In the double immunodiffusion test, if the patients serum contained antibody specific for EIAV antigen then what happens?a line of precipitate will form where optimal proportions of antigen and antibody meet
  34. What antibody class is more efficient at agglutination?IgM
  35. What does agglutination depend on?the concentration of antibody relative to the antigen
  36. When do agglutination reactions occur?when particulate Ags with multiple epitopes on their surface bind with specific antibody molecules to these epitopes to form aggregates or clumps
  37. When may antigens occur?naturally on RBCs, bacterial cell surfaces, they may consist of commercially prepared antigent-coated inert carrier particles
  38. What can be used as indicators to visualize agglutination?RBCs, bacteria, or beads
  39. When are agglutination tests used?to detect unknown antigens found in a clinical sample, to identify bacteria by using known anti-sera to the bacteria, to detect or quantitate circulating agglutinating antibodies found in the patients serum by using known particulate antigens
  40. When the carrier paticle is an RBC, the reaction is known as?hemagglutination
  41. What is the test of choice for diagnosis of IMHA?coombs test
  42. Hemagglutination inhibition tests: in the presence of specific Abs, the virus receptors are blocked, and the hemagglutination ability of the virus is inhibited, when there is no hemagglutination the result is?positive
  43. Hemagglutination inhibition tests: in the absence of specific antibodies, the viruses cause hemagglutination, when there is hemagglutination the result is?negative
  44. What tests estimates the ability of antibody to neutralize the biological activity of an antigen when mixed with it in vitro?neutralization tests
  45. What test is used to search the presence of antibodies in patient serum that neutralize viruses and/ or bacterial toxins?serum neutralization test
  46. In what tests are sensitized RBCs used as an indicator and can activate complement which generates the MAC resulting in RBC membrane disruption and heoloysis?Complement fixation test
  47. When is acute serum collected vs. convalescent?acute collected early after onset of illness, convalescent collected 14-21 days later
  48. What rise in titer from acute to convalescent serum is diagnostic for an active infection?four-fold rise
  49. What is the acute titer vs. convalescent titer?acute is 1:2, convalescent is 1:64
  50. What is a positive test result that correctly identifies a positive animal. it is a property of the test. It does not mean all the truely positive animals in a population as determined by a gold standard?True positive
  51. A negative test result that correctly identifies a negative animal. It is a property of the rest. it does not mean all the truly neg animals in a population as determined by a gold standard.True negative
  52. What is a POSITIVE test result that is incorrect, identified negative animal as possible?False Positive
  53. What is a NEGATIVE test result that is incorrect, identifed a positive animal as negative?False Negative
  54. What is a portion (%) of diseased animals that test positive with the test, want a test with high sensitivity when screening animals for a condition that is very important not to miss positive animals.Sensitivity
  55. A test with _____ sensitivity, but low specificity is one that will identifiy almost all of the positive animals.high
  56. What is a portion of non-diseases animals that test negative, to rule out the disease. Want a test with high specificity to re-test any positives in a screening test.specificity
  57. With a highly sensitive test you can trust the?negatives
  58. With a highly specific test you can trust the?positives
  59. What is a toxin that is modified (by formaldehyde for example)toxoid
  60. What is an ideal vaccine?safe, effective, inexpensive to produce, stable, easy to administer, provides long lasting, strong immunity, no side-effects
  61. What are advantages of active immunization compared with passive?prolonged period of protection, memory response after boosting
  62. What needs to happen with a vaccine?antigen must be delived efficiently, T and B cells must be stimulated to generate large numbers of memory cells, Helper and effector T cells must be generated to several epitopes of the pathogen.
  63. What type of vaccine is grown in conditions in the lab that decrease virulence, has lots of epitopes, no adjuvant needed, infected cells process endogenous antigen and present MHC-I molecules?modified live vaccines
  64. What vaccine acts as exogenous antigen and are engulfed and processed by APCs and presented via MHC-II, cannot cause disease, is strain specific?killed vaccines
  65. What is a bacterin?if the vaccine is a killed bacterium
  66. What are substances that can enhance the body's response to the vaccine. Are essential if long-term memory is to be established to soluble antigens?adjuvants
  67. What protect antigens from rapid degradation and therefore prolonged immune responses.Depot adjuvants
  68. What can promost delivery of souble antigens to APCs. These types of particles are about the size of bacteria and are readily endocytosed by the APCs?
    particulate adjuvants
  69. What adjuvants are substances that can stimulate cells to make cytokines which in term promote an immune response, usually these adjuvants are complex microbial products that represent PAMPS, stimulate macrophages through TLR?immunostimulatory adjuvants
  70. What is Freund's complete adjuvant: an oil based adjuvant mixed with killed mycobacterium, a depot plus immunostimulatory activity, can't be used in food animals.mixed adjuvants
  71. What are examples of problems with killed vaccines?severe inflammation due to the adjuvants, increased need for multiple doses may produce hypersensitivity, ten to produce a Th2 dominated immune response.
  72. What are examples of problems with modified live vaccines?MLV preparations may be contaminated with other organisms that are also alive and pathogenic, attenuated organisms used in live vaccines may possess residual virulence.
  73. What causes abortion in cattle, need CIM for prevention and control of infection, vaccine is a MLV.Brucella abortus
  74. What licenses veterinary biologics (vaccines)?USDA
  75. What is category I of USDA classification of genetically engineered vet vaccines?contain inactived recominant organisms or proteins derived from recombinant organisms, proteins are purified and used as a protein vaccine
  76. What is a potential problem of category I of USDA classification of genetically engineered vet vaccines?the purified protein may not be a good immunogen because it may not be correctly folded like the native protein as it exists as part of the pathogen
  77. What is the first available category I vet vaccine, used the DNA coding for the gp70 antigen of the virus. Was inserted into the E. coli plasmid.FeLV vaccine
  78. What vaccine contains live organisms that contain gene deletions or modified genes which result in reduce virulence?category II
  79. In category I, what is injected?the protein
  80. In category II what is injected?the live expression vector is injected and the protein antigen of interest is made inside the cells infected by the expression vector
  81. What category are vaccines that contain live expression vectors into which genes from a pathogen have been inserted?category III
  82. What are live expression vectors?viruses with large genomes where it is easier to insert extra genes, include pox viruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses.
  83. True or false: the vaccinia virus vaccine consist of a live rinderpest virus which will replicate when the cow is vaccinated?false
  84. True or false: the vaccinia virus vaccine consists os a live vaccinia virus, which will replicate when the cow is vaccinated?true
  85. True or false: The vaccinia virus vaccine might, in some vaccinated cattle, cause a mild form of rinderpest?false
  86. True or false: Vaccinated cattle will produce an immune response to rinderpest protein antigens?true
  87. True or false: vaccinated cattle will produce an immune response to vaccinia protein antigens?true
  88. Through which pathway will the vaccine antigens of the vaccinia virus vaccine be processed?endogenous pathway
  89. What are vaccines that are essential in that thy protect against dangerous diseases, and failure to use places animal at significant risk?Core vaccines
  90. What are vaccines uses against rare or mild diseases, or untested vaccines?non-core vaccines
  91. What is an example of duration of immunity?rabies vaccine: some provide 3 year duration of immunity, others only 1 year
  92. Why is MLV not recommended for pregnant animals?can lead to abortion or weak neonatal syndromes in some cases
  93. What is a condition characterized by a specific humoral and/or cell mediated immune response against consitituents of the body's own tissues.autoimmunity
  94. What is a normal immune response to unusual or abnormal antigens?previously hidden self-antigens that are released through tissue damage from "immune priviledged sites"
  95. What are immune priviledged sites?lens material in eye, spermatozoa in seminal vesicles
  96. Antigens inside cells are not exposed to lymphocytes unless what?released from the cells due to tissue damage
  97. What contains antigens that cross-react with mammalian neurons and cardiac muscle?Tryanosoma cruzi
  98. What is molecular mimicry?similar or shared epitopes between infectious agents, parasites. self-antigens may stimulate cross-reacting antibodies
  99. What happens when IgM against-IgG, immune complexes stimulate macrophages to release proinflammatory cytokines. Neutrophils enter and release enzymes
    which cause cartilage damage.Rheumatoid Arthritis
  100. What are abnormal immune responses to self-antigen?loss of regulation (loss of tolerance)
  101. What are the most important genes that influence naturally occuring autoimmune diseases?MHC genes
  102. What molecules regulate antigen processing and presentation, thus they influence resistance or susceptibility to many diseases?MHC molecules
  103. Almost all autoimmune diseases in humans are linked to what?specific MHC alleles
  104. What are genetic defects that may contribute to autoimmune disease?deleted or overexpressed genes, often that code for immune regulatory proteins, such as cytokines and cytokine receptors
  105. What is an example of Type-I hypersensitivity?milk allergy in cattle, the immune response is mediated through Th2 cells and IgE autoantibodies are produced, affected cows may develop acute anaphylaxis due to IgE arming their mast cells
  106. What type of hypersensitivity has autoantibodies against cell surface antigens causing cell lysis with assistance from complement or CTLs. In some cases the autoantibody bind a cell surface receptor and alter its function instead of causing cell destruction?type-II hypersensitivity
  107. What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against RBC?immune mediated hemolytic anemia
  108. What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against platelets?immune mediated thrombocytopenia
  109. What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against leukocytes?immune mediated leukopenia
  110. How do you diagnose IMT or IMHA?identification of Ab on the surface of erythrocytes or platelets by coombs test or platelet specific test, diagnose by treating with immunosuppressive drugs and if anemia resolves then immune-mediated disease was present.
  111. What breeds are predisposed to myasthenia gravis?german shepherds, gold retrievers, labradors, dachshunds
  112. How do you treat myasthenia gravis?with anti-cholinesterase
  113. What involves both type-II and type-IV hypersensitivity reactions: cytotoxic T-cells attack thyroid epithelium and antibody is made against T3, T4, and thyroglobulin?lymphocytic thyroiditis in dogs
  114. What needs to be done to confirm that hypothyroidism is due to an autoimmune mechanism?need a biopsy to show the characterisitc lymphocytic infiltration and anti-thyroid antibodies must be detected in serum using an ELISA assay or indirect FA
  115. How do you treat hypothyroism?replacement therapy with synthetic T4
  116. What is one of four skin diseases in the pemphigus complex of diseases. Ag-Ab interaction allows for activation of complement as part of the type-II response, this causes tissue-destruction.Pemphigus folieaceous
  117. What happens when autoantibodies form immune complexes with autoantigens which then can cause inflammation. Most significant in systemic lupus erythematosis, a disease in which many different autoantibodies are produced?Type-III hypersensitivity
  118. What is it called when self-reactive Th1 cells react against myelin basic protein. The myelin-reactive Th1-cells cause inflammation and demyelination?multiple sclerosis
  119. What is a generalized autoimmune myositis occuring in large dogs such as german shepherds. involves autoreactive T-cells and autoantibodies. ~50% of affected dogs also have antibuclear antibodies or antibodies to sarcolemma or both?polymyositis
  120. How are autoimmune diseases treated?immunosuppressive drugs such as glucocorticoids
  121. What is some evidence that the immune system helps to protect against cancer?patients with HIV-AIDS more likely to develop cancer, transplant patients are on immunosuppressive drugs and these people more likely to develop cancer.
  122. Not all cancers are more likely to emerge in immunosuppressed individuals, what are examples of this?in humans lung or breast cancer do not develop more frequently in immunodeficient people
  123. How can immunity be acquired?through immunization with killed tumor cells
  124. What is immunity specific for?the antigens of the original tumor used for immunization
  125. Both the innate immunity and the adaptive immunity help to do what?prevent the overgrowth of tumor cells
  126. What is the main defense against tumor outgrowth is what system?innate system through the action of NK cells and macrophages
  127. What are NK cells regulated by?cytokines
  128. Triggering of NK cell cytotoxicity results from what?change in the balance between activating and inhibitory signals to the NK cells
  129. Do NK cells express antigen-specific receptors?No
  130. How can NK cells bind to antibodies that is bound to a tumor antigen on surface of tumor cell, and can thus help with ADCC?have Fc receptors for the Fc region of antibody
  131. What molecules are not expressed by normal healthy cells, but by some tumor cells, virus-infected cells and cells undergoing other kinds of stress."stress" molecules, NK cells have receptors that can interact with molecules expressed by cells during stress
  132. What is mediated through perforins and granzymes as well as through the death receptor pathway. Death by apoptosis.NK cell killing
  133. Macrophages activated by what are especially active against tumors?IFN-gamma
  134. Macrophages can be nonspecifically activated by what?BCG. thus, BCG is given in some cases to stimulate macrophages to fight cancer
  135. What is used to vaccinate humans against M. tuberculosis in some countries outside the US and to vaccinate some high-risk people in the US?BCG, modified live 'avirulent' strain of Mycobacterium bovis
  136. What is associated with infection by bovine papillomavirus, and is tumor of the skin epithelium and dermal fibroblasts?equine sarcoid
  137. How can tumors express proteins?expression of altered or new proteins, over-express a normal protein, express a protein that is normally only expressed in the fetus
  138. What are examples of tumors expressing altered or new proteins?carcinogens induce mutations so that cells produce different proteins that are no longer recognized as self-proteins, viral infections can cause the infected cell to express non-self proteins
  139. What is found in the neoplastic T lymphoid cells of cats infected with Feline Leukemia Virus?FOCMA (feline oncovirogenic-associated cell membrane antigen)
  140. What are examples of over-expressed self-proteins?Prostate-specific antigen
  141. What are antigens normally found on the fetus, that are formed in the adult?oncofetal antigens
  142. What are mechanisms of aquired immunity against tumors?antigen-specific cytotoxic T-cells, Antibody + complement activation (leading to MAC and lysis of free tumor cells), and ADCC
  143. What are mechanisms of tumor evasion of the immune system?low immunogenicity, antigenic modulation or masking, tumor-induced immunosuppression
  144. What are examples of strategies to induce immunity to tumors?non-specific modulation of the immune response, monoclonal antibodies to target tumors, expand antigen-specific T-cells, vaccination with tumor antigens
  145. What is it called when you remove some T-cells from patient, add IL-s invitro to expand their numbers, and infuse it back into patient. Some of these T-cells should be the tumor antigen-specific cells (only works if there are already antigen-specific T-cells)Anti-tumor strategy by expanding antigen-specific T-cells
  146. When you vaccinate with naken DNA which codes for tumor antigens or vaccinate with DNA-transected dendritic cells. The dentricitc cells must come from the patient, why?has to be self-MHC (T-cells can only see antigen produced by self MHC)
  147. What type of immunodeficiency is a result of an inherited defect (may notice breed suseptibilities, especially in breeds with reduced genetic diversity)?Primary immunodeficiency
  148. What type of immunodeficiency is a result of some other cause, such as an infection or exposure to a toxin?secondary immunodeficiency
  149. What is an example of primary immunodeficiency?canine cyclical neutropenia (grey collie syndrome)
  150. What are symptoms of canine cyclical neutropenia?dilution of skin pigmentation and of hair coat color, lighter and more of a silver-grey, eye lesions, leukocyte number fluctuation, increased susceptibility to bacterial and fungal infections, rarely live beyond 3 years
  151. How can 'grey collie syndrome' be treated?
    • Repeated use of antibiotics
    • Drugs to stimulate the bone marrow
  152. What are examples of primary immunodeficiencies affecting the acquired immune system?
    Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) in horses dogs, and mice. Hypotrichosis with tympanic aplasia in cats and nude mice
  153. Describe SCID in arabian foals?
    • Complete inability of the adaptive immune system to respond.
    • Absence of functional T and B lymphocytes
  154. X-linked SCID is seen in what breeds of dogs?
    • Basset hounds
    • Welsh corgis
    • (M's only)
  155. What are signs of X-linked SCID (7):
    • Recurring infections
    • Hypoplastic thymus
    • Decreased T cells
    • Decreased IgG
    • No IgA
    • IgM WNL
    • Death following M/L Vx for Distemper
  156. Autosomal recessive SCID is seen in what breed of dogs?
    Jack russell terriers
  157. What is it called when kittens are born without a thymus (no T-lymphocyte development)?
    Seen in Birman cats with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.Hypotrichosis with thymic aplasia in cats
  158. What are some important viruses that destroy lymphoid tissues (7)?
    • Retroviruses
    • Herpes
    • FeLV
    • Distemper
    • Panleuk
    • Parvo
    • Bovine viral diarrhea virus
Card Set
Immuno Final, Ib
Immuno Final, Ib