quiz #3- auditory and vestibular

  1. Name some components of the auditory and vestibular system
    • semicircular canal (anterior, horizontal, and posterior)
    • vestibulocochlear nerve
    • utricle and saccule
    • oval window
    • cochlea
  2. What is otoconia?
    • "ear rocks"
    • inside utricle and sacule that can become dislodged with aging leading to idiopathic balance
  3. What is the purpose of the auditory system?
    • orients head and eyes toward sound
    • activates CNS activity levels
    • conscious awareness and recognition of sounds
  4. What are the basic 7 steps of the auditory system to convert sound to neural signals?
    • sound hits eardrum
    • tympanic membrane moves the ossicles
    • fluid inside the cochlea distorts
    • basilar membrane moves hair cells
    • hairs bends against tectoral membrane
    • receptor potential generated
    • CN VIII depolarizes
  5. Where are the 3 places that the cochlear nuclei sends input to?
    • medial geniculate body
    • inferior colliculus
    • reticular formation
  6. What is the function of the reticular formation in the auditory system?
    helps activate NS- arousal
  7. What is the function of the inferior colliculus in the auditory systme?
    orients eyes/head toward sound
  8. What is the function of the medial geniculate body in the auditory system?
    conscious recognition of sound
  9. What are the 3 different types of deafness and their differences?
    • nerve deafness: disruption of auditory portion of CN VIII
    • conduction deafness: defect of external or middle ear (tympanic membrane/vessicles)
    • central deafness: damage to central connections (cochlear nuclei, lateral lemniscus, etc)
  10. What is the Weber test?
    • strike tuning fork and place on center of head
    • should sound same in both ears
  11. How is nerve deafness and conduction deafness decided with the Weber Test?
    • nerve deafness: sound centralized in normal ear
    • conduction deafness: sound centralized in affected ear
  12. What is Rinne Test?
    strike tuning fork and hold to mastoid process and remove when sound is gone
  13. What are the responses for the Rinne Test?
    • normal: AC > BC
    • nerve deafness: AC > BC but both reduced
    • conduction deafness: BC > AC
  14. What is the purpose of the vestibular system?
    • info on movement and head position in relation to gravity
    • gaze stabilization
    • posture adjustment/balance
    • input to autonomic and arousal systems
  15. What types of movements stimulate the semicircular canals?
    rotational movement of the head
  16. What types of movements stimulate the saccule and utricle?
    linear movement of the head
  17. Input from the vestibular nuclei and vestibulocerebullum to the cerebral cortex causes what?
    perception of head orientation
  18. Input from the vestibular nuclei and vestibulocerebullum to the oculomotor nuclei causes what?
    eye movement
  19. Input from the vestibular nuclei and vestibulocerebullum to the spinal cord causes what?
    postural control
  20. What is nystagmus?
    Slow saccade in 1 direction followed by rapid compensation in opposite direction
  21. What is nystagmus a disruption of?
    vestibular nuclei of MLF
  22. If you have a patient look to the R and the L MLF is damaged what happens
    • L eye to midline and stops
    • R eye will abduct and have nystagmus
  23. If you have a patient look to the R and the R abducens nucleus is damaged what happens?
    • L forced lateral gaze
    • R eye deviates to midline (no lateral rectus)
  24. If you have a patient look to the R and the R abducens nerve is damaged what happens?
    • R eye deviates mediallys
    • L eye could have convergence response and move medially
  25. Does convergence move under the MLF?
    no, it's under cortical control
  26. What are the three places the retina sends information to?
    • lateral geniculate of thalmus
    • tectum
    • pretectal area
  27. Input from the retina to the lateral geniculate body does what?
    • specifies how to move (visual guidance)
    • visual ojectification of objects
  28. Input from the retina to the tectum has what function?
    orientation, visually guided movements of the eye
  29. Input from the retina to the pretectal area has what function?
    pupillary reflex
  30. If in L visual field, where is it recieved?
    R retinal field
  31. If in upper visual field, where is it received?
    lower retinal field
  32. Where does the nasal retina fields send axons to?
    project to the OPPOSITE lateral geniculate body
  33. Where does the temporal retina field send axons to?
    project to lateral geniculate body on the SAME side
  34. What does right optic nerve disruption causes?
    blindness of R eye
  35. What does optic chiasm disruption cause?
    • complete midline transection causing bitemporal hemianopsia
    • tunnel vision
  36. What does right angle of chiasm disruption causes?
    • R nasal hemianopsia
    • tunnel vision of R eye
  37. What is right angle of chiasm disruption often misdiagnosed as?
    torticollus
  38. What does disruption of the right optic tract cause?
    • L homonymous hemianopsia
    • abcess or tumor of temporal lobe
    • temporal blocked in left eye, nasal blocked in right eye
  39. What does complete capsular destruction of R optic radiation cause?
    • L homonymous hemianopsia
    • temporal blocked in left eye, nasal blocked in right eye
  40. What does disruption of R Meyer loop or lower part of geniculocalcenne tract cause?
    • L homonymous superior quadrantic anopsia
    • top left quarter of both eyes blocked
  41. What does disruption of the upper part of the R geniculocalcerine tract cause>
    • L homonymous inferior quadrantic anopsia
    • bottom left quarter of both eyes blocked
  42. What does disruption of R striate area cause?
    • L homonymous hemianopsia
    • L half of both eyes blocked, with center not blocked?
Author
BPT
ID
76796
Card Set
quiz #3- auditory and vestibular
Description
auditory and vestibular
Updated