Study Guide Chapter 6,7 Pharmacology

  1. Adrenergic bronchodilators mimic the actions of:

    D. Epinephrine
  2. Relaxation of smooth airway muscle in the presence of reversible airflow obstruction is a general indication for the use of:

    B. adrenergic bronchodilators
  3. Disease states that could benefit from the use of adrenergic bronchodilators include which of the following?
    I. asthma
    II. bronchitis
    III. emphysema
    IV. bronchiectasis
    V. pleural effusion

    C. I, II, II, and IV only
  4. Short-acting B2 agonists are indicated for:

    D. relief of acute reversible airflow obstruction
  5. Your patient is diagnosed with persistent asthma. Which type of drug would you recommend for maintenance bronchodilation and control of bronchospasm?

    A. long-acting adrenergic agent
  6. Your patient presents with postextubation stridor. You recommend racemic epinephrine for its:

    A. alpha-adrenergic vasoconstricting effect
  7. You enter the room of a 2-year-old patient who presents with the characteristic "barking cough" found with croup. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, you may recommend which of the following medications to help provide relief from subglottic swelling?

    B. racemic epinephrine
  8. In a patient who is receiving large doses of catecholamines, you may expect to see all of the following side effects except:

    A. diuresis
  9. Levalbuterol is:

    D. the single (R)-isomer of albuterol
  10. Ephinephrine stimulates which sites?
    I. Alpha
    II. B1
    III. B2
    IV. Cholinergic

    C. I, II, and III only
  11. Epinephrine would be indicated for all of the following except:

    A. treatment of infections
  12. Racemic epinephrine comes in what percent solution?

    B. 2.25%
  13. The keyhole theory indicates that the larger the side-chain attachment to a catechol base, the:

    B. greater B2 specificity
  14. Catecholamines are inactivated by:

    C. COMT
  15. Catecholamines should not be given by which of the following routes:

    C. oral
  16. Albuterol is available in which of the following forms?
    I. syrup
    II. nebulizer solution
    III. MDI
    IV. oral tablets
    V. DPI

    D. I, II, III, IV and V
  17. Salmeterol is:

    c. indicated for acute asthma attacks
    B. a long-acting B-adrenergic
  18. Long-acting B2 agonists are indicated for:

    A. maintenance therapy for asthmatics
  19. The bronchodilating action of adrenergic drugs is due to stimulation of:

    B. B2 receptors
  20. B1 receptor stimulation will:

    A. incr heart rate and contractile force
  21. Smooth muscle relaxation most likely occurs as a result of:

    C. an incr in intracellular cAMP
  22. Inhalation is the preferred route of administering catecholamines for which of the following reasons?
    I. rapid onset of action
    II. smaller dosage used
    III. reduced side effects
    IV. drug is delivered to target organ
    V. safe and painless route

    B. I, II, III, IV, and V
  23. Continuous nebulization of inhaled B agonists has been used for:

    A. severe asthma
  24. The dosage recommended by NAEPP EPR 2 for continuous nebulization of adrenergic agents is:

    D. 10-15 mg/hr
  25. Your patient is receiving her third continuous nebulizer of albuterol (15 mg/hr). Which potential complications should you be on the look out for?
    I. hypokalemia
    II. cardiac arrhythmias
    III. hyperglycemia
    IV. PVCs
    V. tremor

    D. I, II, III, IV, and IV
  26. All of the following are side effects that should be monitored in you patient when using sympathomimetic aerosol except:

    C. bracycardia
  27. You are ordered to extubate a mechanically ventilated patient who has recently undergone open heart surgery. On postextubation assessment you note that the patient has stridor with mild retractions. Pharmacologically, you would recommend:

    C. alpha adrenergic
  28. Which is the only B-agonist formulation that is a single isomer and is approved by the FDA for aerosol deliver?

    A. levalbuterol
  29. What is the rationale for using the single-isomer agent levalbuterol instead of racemic albuterol?

    A. the (S)-isomer is thought to promote bronchoconstriction
  30. What is the main difference between salmeterol and formoterol?

    B. formoterol has a quicker onset and peak effect than salmeterol
  31. What is the indication for use of a short-acing B agonist in asthma?

    B. rescue therapy in reversible airflow obstruction
  32. Is it appropriate to use formoterol as a rescue B-agonist bronchodilator?
    a. yes
    b. no
    • b. no
    • (because its a controller - up to 12 hours)
  33. Which procedure would tell you that a patient has reversible airway obstruction?

    D. pre- and postpulmonary function tests
  34. You receive an order to administer 5 ml of albuterol by SVN. You would:

    B. call the physician to confirm the medication dose
  35. You are administering an aerosolized bronchodilator to your patient. Her pretreatment pulse was 85 bpm. You would stop the treatment if her pulse reached:

    C. 110
  36. A 7-yr-old boy has been given multiple aerosolized albuterol treatments over the last several days. You enter the room and his father tells you that every time a therapist administers a treatment, a few minutes later the saturation falls. You explain to the father:

    c. that this is normal because you are giving the treatment with air
    C. that this is normal because of incr perfusion to poorly ventilated areas
  37. A patient with glottic edema is in mild distress. Which of the following medications would be of benefit in this situation?

    A. racemic epinephrine
  38. The only anticholinergic that is approved by the FDA for aerosolization is:

    A. ipratropium bromide
  39. Ipratropium bromide can be delivered by which of the following methods?
    I. tablet
    II. nebulizer
    III. injection
    IV. MDI
    V. nasal spray

    B. II, IV, and V only
  40. Atrovent is approved for:

    A. maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in COPD
  41. Combivent is a combination drug including which agents?

    D. albuterol and atrovent
  42. Cholinergic stimulation will produce which of the following effects?
    I. bronchoconstrictionn
    II. incr mucus secretion
    III. miosis
    IV. decr heart rate
    V. salivation

    A. I, II, III, IV, and V
  43. Mucociliary slowing, bronchodilation, and increased heart rate are all a result of:

    B. anticholinergic agents
  44. Quaternary ammonium compounds such as ipratropium:

    B. do not cross lipid membranes easily
  45. Ipratropium agents may be indicated to treat:

    D. all of the above
  46. Quaternary ammonium compounds cause bronchodilation by:

    D. blocking cholinergic sites
  47. Patients using ipratropium aerosols should be instructed to avoid allowing the aerosol in contact with their:

    A. eye
  48. Activating an atroven inhaler in the eye may cause:

    D. pupil dilation
  49. Cardiac effects of aerosolized apratropium bromide include:

    A. little or no effect
  50. Drugs that competitively block the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic postganglionic effector cell receptors are called:

    A. antimuscarinic agents
  51. The most common side effect of anticholinergic bronchodilators is:

    C. dry mouth
  52. Possible side effects of aerosolized atrovent include which of the following?
    I. flulike symptoms
    II. pharyngitits
    III. cardiac arrest
    IV. dry mouth
    V. dyspnea

    D. I, II, IV, and V only
  53. Results of your patient's PFT show that the peak flow rate increased the most when she inhaled an aerosolized sympathomimetic agent and an aerosolized parasympatholytic agent. You would recommend that she be given:

    D. combivent MDI
  54. What is the only once-a-day anticholinergic on the market?

    A. tiotropium bromide
  55. All of the following are true about piratropium, except:

    A. It is a leukotriene modifier used to treat step 3 asthma.
Card Set
Study Guide Chapter 6,7 Pharmacology
Part 1 of 3 for Test of Chapters 6-11