LAM-Ch11 Dog

Que. Order, suborder, family, genus and species of domesticated dog?

Que. The domesticated dog is descended from what ancestor?

Que. Genus/species of jackal, red wolf and gray wolf? Can dogs and wolves produce viable offsrping?

Que. The most common breed of dog used in biomedical research is the:

Que. Beagles are used most often in what types of research?

Que. What dog breed is used as a model of Duchenne muscular dystrophy in human children?

Que. What breed of dog has been used to study copper storage diseases (such as Wilson�s disease)?

Que. Dogs used for research are generally segregated into what two categories?

Que: What vaccines do purpose-bed dogs usually receive?

Que: What are purpose-bred dogs typically treated for prophylactically?

Que: Which dogs are not bred specifically for use in research?

Que: What are conditioned dogs?

Que: Can conditioned dogs be used on long-term studies?

Que: Why are conditioned dogs often tested for heartworm antigen?

Que: How useful are nonconditioned random-source dogs in research studies?

Que: What options are there for procurement of dogs for biomedical research?

Que: Dealers that purchase the dogs from other individuals (including unadopted animals from municipal pounds) and then resell them to research facilities are known as: Class A licensees or Class B licensees

Que: Breeders who raise all animals on their premises from a closed colony (suppliers of purpose-bred dogs) are known as: Class A licensees or Class B licensees

Que: What kinds of additional documentation are required by Class B dealers?

Que: Why do additional regulations apply to Class B dealers?

Que: What are the regulations regarding dale of pound dogs to research facilities or Class B dealers?

Que: What is the best source for identification of possible vendors for purpose bred and random-source dogs?

Que: What features does the �Buyers Guide� denote for purose bred and random-source dogs?

Que: What part of the 9 CFR specifically pertain to the care of dogs used in reresearch?

Que: Which Section of Chapter 1, of the 9 CFR describes primary enclosures and additional requirements for dogs?

Que: How does the housing requirement for dogs differ from other species?

Que: What section describes what dealers, exhibitors, and facilities must follow in order to provide sufficient exercise for dogs?

Que: What publication has ILAR written for dogs?

Que: What does the publication describe?

Que. Most commercially available balanced dog diets are �closed-formula� diets in which the labeled specific _________ requirements for protein and fat and the ________ values for ash and fiber are met. These diets do not necessarily provide the ________ composition of ingredients from batch to batch. Ingredient composition varies depending upon the _________ of various ingredients.

Que. An � open-formula� or �fixed formula� diet provides more precise dietary control. In these diets the ingredients are _________ and the percentage of each ingredient is kept __________ from batch to batch.

Que. __________ diets provide for the strictest control of ingredients and are formulated from the purified components: amino acids, lipids, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals.

Que. Diets are generally safe for consumption up to ________ months following the manufacture date when stored at room temperature.

Que. Recommendations for feeding the appropriate amount of diet are determined by the dog�s ______________.

Que. ___________ or the ________________ refers to the amount of energy expended following sleep, 12-18 hours after food consumption and during thermoneutral conditions.

Que. The _____________is the amount of energy used by a moderately active adult animal in a thermoneutral environment, which in the dog is approximately ____ times the BER

Que. For dogs weighing greater than 2 kg, the MER may be calculated using the following equation: ___________

Que. Fat provides three major dietary functions 1. Adsorption of ____________2. Enhancement of __________ and provision of _______________. Dietary fat is an excellent, highly digestible energy source, providing ______ times more energy on a per weight basis than either soluble carbohydrates or proteins. However, fats are not needed for this purpose when adequate carbohydrate and protein are present.

Que. Consumption of fat in excess of an animal�s ability to metabolize it results in ___________ and has been related to the development of ___________, whereas lack of dietary fat may lead to fatty acid/energy deficiency. Fatty acid deficiency is associated with _______, _________, __________, and __________.

Que. Dogs are considered ________ because they do not have as many absolute nutritional requirements as the cat. However, they do possess a unique requirement for certain ___________, a deficiency of which may predispose them to decreased growth rates and dermatologic abnormalities such as �hot spots�.

Que. Dogs require ___________ an essential fatty acid and it has been recently demonstrated that the _______, an essential fatty acid may play a role in maintaining healthy skin. Supplementation with a balanced essential fatty acid product may alleviate allergy-related __________. Essential fatty acid deficiency may occur in dogs receiving _____dry dog food that has been stored too long, particularly under warm, humid conditions.

Que. There are 22 ?� amino acids, _______ of which cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantity to meet a dog�s normal metabolic demands. These essential amino acids are required by all dogs and must be required in their diets.

Que. Chronic excessive protein intake may be detrimental to the __________ by contributing to accelerated __________ and __________. Conversely, inadequate protein intake results in __________ and ___________.

Que. In dogs, calorie needs must be met before ____ needs.

Que. A good quality _____ ____ for dogs will ensure nutritional stability and promote longevity.

Que. The fat-soluble vitamins include ___, ___, ___, and ___?

Que. The ovaries of the bitch are attached to the dorsolateral walls of the abdominal cavity caudal to the kidneys by the _____ ______ and are not palpable abdominally.

Que. When the bitch is in _______ and _________, the cervix can be distinguished during abdominal palpation as an enlarged, turgid, walnut-shape structure.

Que. The bitch has a _________ cycle, with clinical estrus occurring predominantly in _______ or _________ and again in ______or ______.

Que. Components of the canine spermatic cord include the _________.

Que. The ______ and ______ aid in thermoregulation of the testicles, which are maintained at ______ than basal body temperature.

Que. The accessory sex glands of the dog consist of ___________.

Que. The entire process from initiation of spermatogonial mitosis to delivery of mature sperm to the ejaculate is ___________.

Que. Factors affecting male fertility include ______, ______, _____ and _____.

Que. There is a positive correlation with the size of the testicles as measured by scrotal circumference and the _________.

Que. The normal dogs arterial pH _____, arterial PCO2 (mm Hg) _______ Arterial P O2 (mm Hg) _________, and arterial HCO3 (mEq/liter) _______.

Que. What is a good indicator of normal fertility for male dogs?

Que. In general, for dogs, erection, which involves muscular contractions and increased arterial blood flow to the penis is controlled by the ------- nervous system,, whereas ejaculation is under ------- control.

Que. Where does fertilization occur in female dogs?

Que. How long are canine oocytes viable, once ovulated?

Que. Based on vaginal cytology, early proestrus has what type of cells?

Que. Based on vaginal cytology, late proestrus has what types of cells?

Que. Based on vaginal cytology, estrus has what types of cells?

Que. Based on vaginal cytology, diestrus has what types of cells?

Que. Based on vaginal cytology, anestrus has what types of cells?

Que. What is the behavioral hallmark of canine estrus?

Que. What is canine flagging?

Que. In dogs, in order to maximize the conception rate, and the number of pups whelped per egg ovulated, it is recommended to breed the bitch on what days?

Que. In dogs, is there a correlation between the number of corpora lutea and the number of fetuses in the corresponding uterine horn?

Que. What are the various classification of the dog placenta?

Que. Why is the dog classified as endotheliochorial placentation/

Que. Why is the dog classified as zonary and deciduate placentation?

Que. What is the gestation length of dogs?

Que. What is the role of progesterone during gestation?

Que. What is the serum progesterone level during gestation?

Que. When can abdominal palpation of the uterus detect pregnancy in dogs?

QUE. Canine fetal skeletons become calcified and are radiographically evident by day _____.

Que. __________ does not predispose the bitch to reproductive disease or infertility.

Que. Reproductive performance in the bitch is optimal prior to __ years of age.

Que. Dogs are sexually mature by __ to __ months of age, but are not socially mature until 18-36 months of age.

Que. ________ _________ (ITB) is a highly contagious illness of the canine respiratory tract that usually manifests as an acute but self-limiting disease.

Que. Name 3 disease agents commonly associated with infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs.

Que. Clinical infectious tracheobronchitis can be subdivided into mild or severe forms. The ________ form is the more common presentation and is characterized by an acute onset of a loud, dry, hacking cough.

Que. The _________ form of infectious tracheobronchitis generally results from mixed infections complicated by poor general health, immunosuppression, or lack of vaccination.

Que. The natural reservoir for Bordetella bronchiseptica (in dogs) is considered to be what?

Que. The characteristic lesion from CPIV or CAV-2 infection (in dogs) is ___________.

Que. Name 3 (of 6) differential diagnoses for persistent cough of >14 days in a canine.

Que. Intranasal vaccine combinations for Bordetella bronchiseptica (in dogs) protect against both __________ and __________.

Que. Proper ventilation and humidity are important in controlling spread of infectious tracheobronchitis. ___________ air changes per hour and ________ relative humidity are recommended.

Que. How does infectious tracheobronchitis affect pulmonary studies?

Que. Beta Hemolytic Lancefield�s group C streptococcus (Strep zooepidemicus) is an etiologic agent for __________ and __________ in dogs.

Que. __________(Genus) __________(Species) is a ?-hemolytic Lancefield group _____ gram-positive non-spore forming coccus and an etiologic agent for pneumonia and septicemia in dogs.

Que. In dogs, Lancefield�s group C streptococcal epizootics have commonly been associated with recent __________, usually within the past 7 days.

Que. In the dog, a common pathologic finding of peracute Streptococcus zooepidemicus disease is ___________, occurring in many organs throughout the body.

Que. Several serovars of the spirochete __________(Genus) __________(Species) cause canine leptospirosis. Disease in dogs is primarily due to serovars canicola, icterohemorrhagiae, grippotyphosa, pomona, and bratislava.

Que: What are the clinical signs associated with pneumonic disease caused by ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: What are other clinical signs associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: Lancefield�s group C streptococci have been isolated in dogs as a commensal flora in what regions of the body?

Que: Epizootics in greyhounds and research colonies reported Lancefield�s group C streptococci are associated with what?

Que: What peracute pathologic findings have been associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: What type of hemorrhages associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs are seen on organs?

Que: What is the term used for the pathologic lesions seen in the lungs that is associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs and are characterized by areas of ringed pale areas and central ulcerations that ooze blood.

Que: The pathological findings associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs are characterized histologically by what lesions?

Que: What is the pathogenesis for the disease caused by Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: How is a definitive diagnosis made for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus?

Que: What the bacterial pneumonias or septicemia differentials for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: What are the nonbacterial differentials for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?

Que: How can Lancefield�s group C streptococcus be controlled?

Que: How can Lancefield�s group C streptococcus in dogs be treated?

Que: What is recommended for dogs due to the association of epizootics of the Lancefield�s group C streptococcus and transportation shipment?

Que: What is the etiologic agent associated with leptospirosis in dogs?

Que: What are the primary serovars associated with leptospirosis in dogs?

Que: What is the duration of leptospirosis in dogs?

Que: What are some nonspecific clinical signs associated with leptospirosis in dogs?

Que: Dogs with leptospirosis may be febrile and reluctant to move. What may be the cause for these clinical signs?

Que: What are some clinical signs associated with the cardiovascular system in dogs with leptospirosis?

Que. What two factors have markedly decreased the prevalence of leptospirosis in dogs over the last thirty years?

Que. Rats have been implicated as important in the transmission of leptospirosis in dogs. Name the serovars known to be associated with rats.

Que. True or false: transmission of leptospirosis is primarily from animal to animal.

Que. Describe the usual transmission of leptospirosis in the dog.

Que. What environmental conditions favor survival of leptospires?

Que. Which of the following has been documented as a means of leptospirosis transmission? More than one answer may be accepted. Close contact, Bites, Ingestion of infected meat, Transplacental, Venereal?

Que. What is the public health significance of leptospirosis?

Que. What other condition mimics the clinical syndrome of leptospirosis in dogs and should be included in the differential diagnoses?

Que. What is considered the most reliable means of definitive diagnosis of leptospirosis in dogs?

Que. True or false: immunization of dogs with the Leptospira bivalent vaccination will not prevent development of the carrier state.

Que. Besides vaccination, what other control measures should be considered for leptospirosis, especially for dogs with outdoor runs?

Que. True or false: most adult dogs with Campylobacter jejuni are asymptomatic carriers.

Que: What specimen is preferred for the diagnosis of Campylobacteriosis in dogs ?

Que: What is demonstrated for the presumptive diagnosis of Camplylobacteriosis in

Que: Campylobacter jejuni appear as _______________ when Gram stained.

Que: The differential diagnosis for diarrhea in dogs include:

Que: What clinical signs are produced by the enterotoxin produced by C. jejuni :

Que: What intestinal pathology is produce by C. jejuni infection ?

Que: C. jejuni can be a zoonotic agent, which persons are at greatest risk of infection

Que: What is the route of transmission of C. jejuni infection ?

Que: Which antibiotics are effective for treating C. jejuni infections in dogs ?

Que: The causative agent of Monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs is:

Que: What are the common names used for Monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs ?

Que: The classification of Ehrlichia canis is:

Que: What are the three phases of disease seen in dogs infected with Ehrlichia canis ?

Que: What are the clinical signs are associated with the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis

Que: What are the clinical signs are associated with the chronic phase of Ehrlichia

Que. Ocular clinical signs of monocytic ehrlichiosis consist of ____________ and ___________.

Que. ___________ ___________ is the most consistent laboratory abnormality noted for all 3 stages of ehrlichiosis.

Que. List 2 hematologic abnormalities associate with ehrlichiosis.

Que. ____________ may occur as a result of polyclonal or monoclonal gammopathy.

Que. Ehrlichia canis is an obligate intracellular parasite that infects __________ cells.

Que. The primary vector and reservoir of E. canis is __________ ___________. Give the common name of this vector.

Que. Ehrlichia is most prevalent in what geographic areas of the US?

Que. Within the tick population, E. canis is transmitted _____________.

Que. The primary mechanism of disease caused by Ehrlichia canis is _____________.

Que. Anemia develops in Ehrlichia infection as a result of what 2 things ?

Que. Breeds of dog most severely affected by ehrlichiosis include which of the following?

Que. True or False??? Infection with Ehrlichia canis confers protective immunity in dogs that recover from the disease.

Que. The most common gross lesions of ehrlichiosis consist of what two basic vascular changes?

Que. The most common histologic abnormality associated with ehrlichiosis is ________ _________ __________.

Que. What is the most sensitive and specific method used in the diagnosis of E. canis infections? What other assay can be used to identify E. canis?

Que. Other Ehrlichia sp. that may cross react during testing are ___________ and ___________.

Que. Titres greater than _______ are considered positive for infection.

Que. What stain can be used to demonstrate E. canis morulae?

Que. ____________ is the drug of choice for treatment of monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs.

Que. Tretracycline, chloramphenicol and enrofloxacin are all effective against Ehrlichia; however, ____________ should not be used in animals with cytopenias.

Que. With respect to Monocytic Ehrlichiosis (Ehrlichia canis), what is the most significant research complication?

Que. What is the etiological agent for Thrombocytic Ehrlichiosis?

Que. Is spontaneous bleeding a common symptom of Thrombocytic Ehrlichiosis?

Que. What is the etiological agent for Lyme disease?

Que. What is the most common clinical sign reported for Lyme disease in dogs?

Que. What is the characteristic rash seen in humans infected with Lyme disease called? and is it commonly seen in dogs?

Que. True or False. Lyme disease in dogs is an arthropod-borne disease.

Que. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted in dogs exclusively by what species of tick?

Que. Which tick is the prototypical vector of Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in North American dogs?

Que. What stages of ticks spread Borrelia burgdorferi spirochetes when they bite dogs?

Que. How do ticks become infected with Borrelia burgdorferi? (dog chapter)

Que. What is the drug of choice to treat Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in dogs?

Que. True or False. Antibiotic therapy used to treat Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in dogs results in resolution of clinical signs but may not result in elimination of the organism.

Que. In what types of studies are dogs that are clinically infected with Borrelia burgdorferi probably not appropriate models?

Que. Helicobacters are gram-__________, _______aerophilic, ________ bacteria that typically reside in and infect the gastrointestinal tract in dogs and many other species.

Que. What species of helicobacter that naturally infect dogs are considered zoonotic?

Que. What are the possible clinical signs you might see in dogs infected with Helicobacter spp.?

Que. The mechanism by which Helicobacter cause disease may be related to the host�s inflammatory response to colonization and the Helicobacter�s ability to produce __________.

Que. Definitive diagnosis of Helicobacter infections require either ________ or ______ followed by demonstration of the organism in biopsy samples by _________, __________ or _______________

Que. True or False. Combination therapy has proven to be the most effective method for treating Helicobacter spp infections in dogs.

Que. Clinical signs of canine parvovirus usually appear ___ days after inoculation by the ________ route.

Que. Puppies between ____ and ____ weeks of age appear to the most susceptible to parvovirus.

Que. Canine parvovirus has an affinity for rapidly dividing cells of the _________ and causes an acute, highly contagious enteritis with __________ necrosis and _______ atrophy.

Que. Prevention of transmission begins with isolation of affected animals and quarantine for _____week(s) after full recovery.

Que. Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) belongs to the family of __________, within the genus _______.

Que. The genus Morbillivirus includes the human ________ virus and _______ virus of ruminants.

Que. CDV is the most common cause of __________ in dogs less than 6 months of age.

Que. In CDV, an immune-mediated __________ ________ may develop on the abdomen and is usually a favorable prognostic sign, because dogs that develop ________ lesions often recover.

Que. What are general signs of canine herpesvirus (CHV) in newborn puppies (< 2 weeks), versus adults?

Que. What are some clinical signs of CHV in affected newborns? In adults?

Que. What are the routes of transmission of CHV?

Que. What are some path findings with CHV ? Differential diagnoses?

Que. Is an effective vaccine available for CHV? Do affected newborns usually live or die?

Que. In what family is rabies virus? What animals does it affect ?What are the stages of infection?

Que. What is the incubation period for rabies? How long do untreated animals live once the clinical signs of rabies have started, and what causes death?

Que. What is the pathogenesis of rabies virus?

Que. Voluminous, light-colored, foul smelling, soft to watery diarrhea is associated with what protozoan agent in dogs?

Que. What is the best method to prevent giardiasis within an animal research facility?

Que. What is the most common treatment for giardiasis?

Que: What intestinal coccidia have been associated with enteropathy in dogs?

Que: What are clinical signs associated with coccidiosis?

Que: How is cystoisospora oocysts usually transmitted in dogs?

Que: How can cystoisospora oocytes be transmitted indirectly?

Que: What is the lifecycle of Cystoisospora canis?

Que: What gross pathological findings are associated with coccidiosis in dogs?

Que: What histopathological findings are associated with coccidiosis in dogs?

Que: Are intestinal coccidia are opportunistic organisms. True or false?

Que: Intestinal coccidia do not typically cause illness unless other predisposing factors are present. Give examples of some of these clinical factors.

Que: What can promote clinical coccidiosis by providing a high population of infective oocyst to stressed animals?

Que: How can coccidian oocyst be diagnosed?

Que: Can coccidian oocyst be found in clinically healthy dogs, dogs with diarrhea, or both.

Que: How can coccidiosis be prevented?

Que: Why is treatment for coccidial oocysts of Cystoisospora infections often not necessary?

Que: What are possible choices of treatment for coccidial oocysts of Cystoisospora infections?

Que: What research complications can clinical coccidiosis cause?

Que: What is the most common ascarid in dogs

Que: What ascarid can infect both dogs and cats?

Que: What clinical signs can infestation of ascarids cause in dogs?

Que: What kind of appearance can puppies have with heavy ascarid infestations?

Que: Visceral larval migrans caused by Toxocara canis can cause what in dogs?

Que: How is Toxocara canis transmitted?

Que: What are the pathological findings associated with ascarid infestations?

Que. The infective stage of T. canis is the _________ stage larva.

Que. Infections of T. canis are initiated in 3 ways: _______ migration which leads to intestinal infection, ________ migration and _________ migration.

Que. Older dogs that become infected typically have an age related resistance to ________ migration. These larval migrations are often asymptomatic and progression of the L3 larva is ________ in the tissues. It is these larvae that become reactivated in a pregnant bitch, thus establishing the ________ and __________ routes of transmission.

Que. If the source of T. canis infection is transplacental, puppies may be born with L3 larvae in their ________, because larval migration is already in place.

Que. T. canis eggs are large ( __ to ___ um in diameter) and round and readily identified by standard fecal flotation methods.

Que. Monthly administration of _________ or ______ is recommended for prevention and control of canine ascarid and hookworm infestations.

Que. Most anthelmintics are effective for treatment of ascariasis and ______ and _______ are commonly used. Treatment should be started early in puppies at ____, _____, _____ and _____ weeks of age because of the possiblity of prenatal or neonatal infection.

Que. Pyrantel pamoate dosed at ______ mg/kg per os is safe for puppies and is also effective in treatment of ________

Que. In breeding colonies in which ascarid infestation is a known problem, treatment of the _____and _______bitch may be advantageous. Extended fenbendazole therapy ( ______mg/kg per os ______ for 14 days or ____ from day 40 of gestation) has been shown to be experimentally safe and effective in decreasing ascarid burdens in puppies.

Que. The most common and most pathogenic hookworm of dogs is ___________. Other, less pathogenic canine hookworms found in North America are ___________ which can be found in the American tropics and southern U.S. and _______ which is distributed in the northern U.S. and Canada. Only ________ results in clinical illness, because of the amount of blood it consumes.

Que. Infective larvae are ingested typically ingested by puppies and develop directly in the _______. Ingestion can be from the bitch�s milk (transmammary), food, objects contaminated with infective larvae or ingestion of a ____________. Transplacental migration ________ occur with A. caninum. Larvae can also penetrate intact skin, migrate to the _________ via somatic or circulatory routes and be coughed and swallowed to reach the ________. The prepatent period is ______ weeks.

Que. Infected puppies often have severe anemia and _______. The anemia can be from acute blood loss or be iron-deficiency anemia caused by chronic blood loss coupled with limited _____ reserves. ______ caused by hookworm attachment is evident on histopathologic examination.

Que. Adult A. caninum can consume _____ to ____ ml of blood. In contrast A. braziliense and U. stenocephala consume ____ to ____ ml per worm, respectively.

Que. Diagnosis of ancylostomiasis is by identification of eggs or larvae from fecal samples by either ______ or ________. _________ should be considered as a differential diagnosis for puppies with bloody diarrhea and _________ should be considered for a young dog with anemia.

Que. Unlike ______ eggs, hookworm eggs are readily killed by drying, sunlight or cold; however, they do survive readily in warm, moist environments.

Que. The larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis must be distinguished from larvae of __________ and hatched ____________?

Que. The adult whipworm typically resides in the ________ or _____________?

Que. __________ or _____________ is the only completely effective means to eradicate whipworm eggs from the environment.

Que. Have whipworm infestations been documented to interfere with research protocols?

Que. Heartworm disease of dogs is caused by the filarial worm, _______ _____.

Que. Adult heartworms reside in the _____ _____; severe infestations can result in the prescence of worms in the right ventricle and atrium.

Que. Microfilariae, the immature worms produced by the adult heartworms, circulate in the bloodstream until a _______ (intermediate host) ingests them.

Que. Microfilaria progress through several larval stages within the mosquito, eventually terminating in the _____ stage, which is then returned to the canine bloodstream during feeding.

Que. Use of adult heartworm antigen tests have virtually eliminated the historical status ______ heartworm disease, which was caused by infestation of adult worms without corresponding microfilarial circulation.

Que. Microfilarial detection can be done by microscopic examination of the buffy coat of a microhemtocrit tube or by concentration techniques, such as the modified ______ test and filter tests.

Que. Tests that examine for microfilariae have the inherent problem of false positives caused by the microfilariae of ________ _______, a non-pathogenic filarial worm.

Que. What is the differential diagnosis for symptomatic heartworm disease (coughing, dyspnea, and exercise intolerance)?

Que. What drugs are use as adulticidal and microfilaricidal agents for heartworm in dogs?

Que. What is the most consistent finding of the physiomodulative properties of heartworm infection?

Que. What is the most common species of tapeworm in dogs?

Que. Where do tapeworms parasitize the intestinal tract of the dog?

Que. What are the intermediate hosts of Dipylidium caninum?

Que. What are the intermediate hosts for Taenia pisiformis?

Que. What is the intermediate host for Echinococcus granulosus?

Que. What medications can be used in the treatment of Dipylidium caninum?

Que. Canine lung fluke infestation is caused by ___________ in the Western hemisphere.

Que. Eggs of Paragonimus infestation can be identified readily in either transtracheal washes or in _______.

Que. Identification from fecal samples of Paragonimus requires ________ techniques.

Que. The Demodex species of the dog is _____?

Que. Clinical demodicosis often presents which body sites?

Que. Localized ______ is typically seen in juvenile dogs (<18 months) and usually resolves without treatment as natural immunological control develops.

Que. ______ is readily identified from deep skin scrapings of lesioned areas.

Que. Dogs that receive _________ agents could develop generalized demodicosis as an unexpected consequence of the experimentation.

Que. Canine sarcoptic mange is caused by _____ ____ var. ____.

Que. Sarcoptes mites live their entire lives in the _____ _____ of the host animal.

Que. Many institutions use _______ as a means to control both endoparasites and ectoparasites.

Que. What is the genus and species of the sucking louse that infests dogs?

Que. What are is the genus and species of the two biting lice that infest dogs?

Que. Which of the dog lice species feeds on blood?

Que. Are lice host specific? Zoonotic?

Que. The most severe complication of infestations by the sucking louse is _________.

Que. How is pediculosis diagnosed?

Que. Which tick is host specific for the dog?

Que. Name two species of tick that produce a salivary neurotoxin that can cause an ascending flaccid paralysis (in dogs) aka tick paralysis.

Que. Which tick may reside within kennels (attics, bedding, wall insulation)?

Que. Dogs with tick-bite paralysis, once the tick has been removed, usually show improvement within _____ hours, with complete recovery within _____ hours.

Que. The most common flea to infest dogs is ________(Genus) _________ (species).

Que. Dogs that are hypersensitive to antigenic proteins in flea saliva often develop _________, which features pruritis, papules and crusting.

Que. Because fleas require host blood for food, they can survive off a host for only _____ to _____ months.

Que. Fleas can also transmit or serve as vectors for other pathogens. The genus of tapeworm that is transmitted by the flea is __________.

Que. What is considered the most effective method for treating canine housing areas for fleas?

Que. What other clinical condition may have to be treated in dogs infested with fleas?

Que. Name the three primary causative agents of ringworm in dogs in the United States.

Que. Define a kerion as part of a fungal skin infection in dogs.

Que. True or false: a dog with inflamed skin is more likely to contract a ringworm infection.

Que. What is the public health significance of ringworm infection in dogs?

Que. Name the histological stains used to best visualize the fungal elements of ringworm seen on a dog.

Que. Where do dermatophytes reside with respect to the hair shaft of the dog�s fur?

Que. What is/are the diagnostic method(s) used to determine ringworm infestation on a dog?

Que. Which ringworm species will not fluoresce under Wood�s lamp?

Que. List the active ingredients in shampoos, rinses, and creams most noted for topically treating ringworm in dogs.

Que: What is the differential diagnosis list for systemic fungal infection in dogs ?

Que: The majority of cases of canine hypothyroidism are due to:

Que: Lymphocytic thyroiditis is a major cause of hypothyroidism in which breed of dog?

Que: What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism in dogs ?

Que: What are the clinicopathologic abnormalities reported in a large percentage of

Que: What neurologic signs can be exhibited in hypothyroid dogs ?

Que: What are the causes of the myopathies associated with canine hypothyroidism ?

Que: What ECG abnormalities are exhibited in hypothyroid dogs ?

Que: What is the cause of the electrocardiographic abnormalities seen in hypothyroid

Que. The prevalence of hypothyroidism in the general canine population has been reported to be less than _____.

Que. __________ and ____________ are the two breeds with the highest incidence of hypothyroidism when compared with other breeds.

Que. Currently, the ability to diagnose hypothyroidism relies heavily on the measurement of serum total and free _____ or _______________.

Que. Drugs such as ___________ and ___________ can falsely lower values of serum total and free T4.

Que. The most biologically active form of thyroid hormone in the body is _____.

Que. ______________ can be responsible for false elevations in the concentrations of T3 and T4.

Que. The treatment of choice for hypothyroidism in the dog is _________________.

Que. Define obesity in the dog?

Que. In a United Kingdom study, what breed of dog was most likely to be obese?

Que. Does neutering promote weight gain?

Que. Define ideal body condition?

Que. At what site of the dog were ultrasound measurement taken of subcutaneous fat and reported to be a reliable measure for total body fat?

Que. To what percent of the calculated energy requirement to maintain ideal body weight, should intake be restricted for a suggested good weight loss program?

Que. At what rate should weight loss occur per week?

Que. What do studies indicate regarding increased fiber in the diet?

Que. Obesity in dogs over ten years of age appears to be related to what conditions?

Que. What factors must be considered prior to initiating traumatic wound care in dogs?

Que. The vast majority of wounds seen in dogs in the laboratory setting will fall into what contamination categories?

Que. Adequate tissue irrigation can be achieved by using a _____ ml syringe and an ____ or ____ gauge needle.

Que. ___________is an important part of initial therapy for contaminated or dirty wounds.

Que. True or False. Necrotic fat should be resected liberally, because it does not have a large blood supply and will provide an environment for infection.

Que. _____ wound closure is defined as closure of the wound at the time of initial wound therapy.

Que. ____________ primary closure occurs when wound closure within 3-5 days of wounding.

Que. ____________ healing involves allowing the wound to heal without surgical intervention.

Que. In skin wounds, infection with _________ spp are generally of concern.

Que. ________________ should be considered with infections of bite wounds.

Que. _______________ result from compression of the soft tissues between the hard surfaces due to vascular occlusion, ischemia and ultimately tissue death.

Que. Factors contributing to decubital ulcer formation include__________, ___________, _____________, __________, ___________, __________, and ________

Que. Part of the treatment for pressure sores should include

Que. Acral lick granuloma is a form of self-trauma called.

Que. The majority of acral lick granuloma cases are seen in dogs that are _______ and lack of _________ stimuli.

Que. Important aspects of preventing acral lick granulomas include ______.

Que. What is the prognosis for acral lick granluoma?

Que. What are elbow hygromas and what breeds are most commonly affected?

Que. Is this condition painful? What is the recommended treatment?

Que. What are signs of corneal ulceration? How are deep versus superficial ulcers treated?

Que. What is the leading complication associated with the use of indwelling vascular catheters in dogs?

Que. What type of material should indwelling vascular catheters in dogs be made of?

Que: What is an advantage for using vascular access ports that lie entirely under the skin?

Que: Long extension of tubing connected to the vascular port does what in regards to catheter infections?

Que: What is recommended for placement of indwelling catheters?

Que: The placement of the catheter should be verified by ____________.

Que: Catheters that are used for delivery of drugs or blood sampling should be placed in the ______ _____ and not in the __________ __________ minimizing trauma to the tricuspid valve.

Que: After catheter placement, how often is the animal observed for signs of local or systemic infection?

Que: What three things should be done to the catheter site every other day?

Que: If retention of a catheter is important, what is done to the catheter line if catheter infection is present?

Que: How often should the catheter line be disinfected with chlorine dioxide?

Que: If catheter infection occurs, what is usually done with the catheter?

Que: How is catheter wound irritation or infection treated locally?

Que: How long is systemic antibiotic therapy initiated for catheter infections?

Que: The drug of choice for catheter infections is based on what?

Que: What type of blood cultures should be performed in cases of catheter infections?

Que: How are localized abscesses or sinus tracks managed with catheter infections?

Que: Are there adverse effects associated with chlorine dioxide in catheters?

Que: How is the catheter line disinfected in cases of catheter infections?

Que: What is done with all extension lines and fluids used with a catheter that has become infected?

Que: Blood cultures should be repeated ______ days after antibiotic therapy has ceased?

Que: What have intestinal access ports been used for?

Que: What is the most frequently reported complication associated with catheters of intestinal access ports?

Que: What other complications have been associated with catheters an intestinal access ports?

Que: What has eliminated the complication of catheter dislodging from the intestinal tract?

Que: What may help form a firm adhesion with intestinal access ports?

Que: What adverse reaction can excess catheter length within the peritoneal cavity cause?

Que: Insufficient catheter length while result in what problem?

Que: How is patency of the catheters of intestinal access ports verified periodically?

Que: What is defined as the systemic response to infection?

Que: Most often, sepsis is a result of infection with _________ ____________.

Que: Sepsis may also be associated with _________ _________ and _________.

Que: What are the early clinical signs associated with sepsis in the dog?

Que: What are the latter clinical signs associated with sepsis in the dog?

Que: Cardiac output and blood pressure are _________ as shock progresses.

Que: What other clinical signs have also been reported in dogs with septic shock?

Que. The pathophysiology of sepsis is complex and mediated by _________ responses involving mediators such as cytokines, eicosinoids, complement, superoxide radicals and nitric oxide.

Que. If the body is unable to compensate the result is _______ collapse.

Que. The presumptive diagnosis of sepsis is made based on the occurrence of several in a group of signs including altered body temperature, increased respiratory and _______ rate, increase or decreased WBC, increased number of _________ neutrophils, decreased platelet count, _________ blood pressure, hypoxemia and altered cardiac output.

Que. However, __________ without infection may create signs similar to sepsis.

Que. The pathophysiology of sepsis is complex and mediated by _________ responses involving mediators such as cytokines, eicosinoids, complement, superoxide radicals and nitric oxide.

Que. If the body is unable to compensate the result is _______ collapse.

Que. The presumptive diagnosis of sepsis is made based on the occurrence of several in a group of signs including altered body temperature, increased respiratory and _______ rate, increase or decreased WBC, increased number of _________ neutrophils, decreased platelet count, _________ blood pressure, hypoxemia and altered cardiac output.

Que. However, __________ without infection may create signs similar to sepsis.

Que. All septic dogs should be treated with ______ to replace deficits and to maximize cardiac output.

Que. After the dog has stabilized, the treatment of sepsis should be aimed to removing the _____ _____.

Que. The final treatment for sepsis in dogs is aimed at blocking the _____ of the systemic response.

Que. Aspiration lung injury in canines demonstrates a bronchoaveolar pattern in the _____ lung fields on thoracic radiographs.

Que. Aspiration provokes an inflammatory response probably mediated by _________.

Que. Accidental burns usually result from thermal injury or harsh chemicals such as strong alkalis, acids, and _________?

Que. Deep burns develop a thick covering, or ________, composed of coagulating proteins and dessicated tissue fluid.

Que. Several drugs have been shown to cause problems when injected perivascularly, including ___________, thiamylal, thiopental, thiacetarsemide, vincristine, vinblastine, and doxorubicin.

Que. In most cases of perivascular extravasation, dilution of the drug with ________ injections of saline is recommended.

Que. Hepatic encephalopathy may be seen in young dogs with congenital ______ shunting of blood flow.

Que. Elevated levels of serum _____ ____ and blood ammonia also verify the loss of liver function.

Que. Most importantly, the treatment of dogs with hepatic encephalopathy must be aimed at ______________.

Que. Because protein metabolism is a major source of ______, all oral food intake should cease until the signs of hepatic encephalopathy have abated.

Que. The majority of the tumors in the dog were ________ and ________.

Que. Excisional biopsies surgical margins should extend at least _____ around the tumor, and ____ if mast cell tumors are suspected.

Que. What are the symptoms of multicentric lymphoma?

Que. What are the symptoms of alimentary lymphoma?

Que. The incidence of lymphoma is highest in dogs of what age group?

Que. Histologically, what is the most common lymphoma classification in dogs?

Que. What is the average survival time for dogs without treatment for lymphoma?

Que. What is the paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lymphoma?

Que. Where is the most common location for fibrosarcomas in dogs?

Que. What are the histological findings in canine fibrosarcoma?

Que. What is the pathogenesis of canine fibrosarcoma?

Que. Lipomas typically occur in which age of dogs?

Que. Histicytomas arise from __________ cells of the skin?

Que. Most common site of histiocytomas is the skin of _______.

Que. Most histiocytomas will __________ resolve.

Que. The most commonly observed skin tumor of the dog is the ________ tumor.

Que. ____ ____ tumors in the dog usually appear to be discrete masses, but they frequently extend deep into the surrounding tissues.

Que. In the mast cell tumor grading system, grade I has the ___ prognosis and grade III has the ___ prognosis.

Que. ____ ____ have been observed in large numbers (>75%) of dogs with mast cell tumors.

Que. Mast cell tumors can be distinguished from other round cell tumors by using _____ ___, which metachromatically stains the cytoplasmic granules of the mast cells red or purple.

Que. Because of the possibility of histamine release and tumor recurrence, dogs with ____ ___ ____ are not good candidates for research studies.

Que. Hemangiosarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from ______ cells.

Que. _________ lesions are most commonly found in the spleen and right atrium.

Que. ___________ is generally the first choice of treatment for hemangiosarcoma.

Que. What is a �sticker tumor?� (aka transmissible sarcoma, contagious venereal tumor)

Que. How is a sticker tumor transmitted?

Que. Where are sticker tumors located in males? In females?

Que. _______________ is the most common tumor seen on the penis of a dog.

Que. Surgery and radiation can be used for the treatment of transmissible venereal tumors, however, chemotherapy is more effective. __________ IV once weekly for 4 � 6 treatments will induce remission and cure in greater than 90% of the cases.

Que. Canine mammary gland tumors usually occur on the _____ and _____ pairs of mammary glands.

Que. Canine mammary tumors occur almost exclusively in female dogs, with most reports in male dogs being associated with endocrine abnormalities, such as estrogen-secreting _______________ tumors.

Que. True or false: approximately half of the reported mammary tumors in dogs are histologically benign (fibroadenoma, simple adenoma, benign mesenchymal tumor).

Que. Mammary tumors of the dog develop under the influence of __________.

Que. True or false: the risk of a bitch developing a mammary tumor markedly drops after the first and second estrus cycles.

Que. Besides neoplasia, what other clinical conditions must be included in the differential diagnoses for mammary masses in dogs?

Que. How may mammary tumors be prevented in the bitch?

Que. __________ is the treatment of choice for mammary tumors in dogs, because chemotherapy and radiation therapy have not been reported to be effective.

Que. If the fourth or fifth mammary glands are removed surgically in a bitch suspected of having mammary cancer, what else should also be excised at the same time?

Que. What canine breed has the highest prevalence of thyroid carcinoma?

Que. Why should thyroid carcinoma be on your differential list when a dog presents with facial edema?

Que. The mean age of dogs presenting with thyroid carcinoma is __________ years.

Que. True or false: male dogs more than females will present with thyroid carcinoma.

Que. Thyroid carcinomas in dogs are unilateral/bilateral twice as often as the other.

Que. What is the treatment of choice for a noninvasive thyroid carcinoma in a dog?

Que. What iatrogenic condition must be considered when surgically removing a bilateral thyroid carcinoma?

Que: What inherited and/or congenital disorders specifically occur in beagles ?

Que: What are the most common birth defects found by a commercial breeder of

Que: What is the cause of nuclear sclerosis ( an apparent opacification of the lens) ?

Que: What is the pathogenesis of diabetic cataracts ?

Que. Hip dysplasia is a degenerative disease characterized by laxity of the ______________ joint.

Que. Hip dysplasia is classically diagnosed by ________________ of the pelvis and hip joints.

Que. Radiographic calculation of the ___________ ___________ to measure joint laxity has proven to be a good means to predict future hip dysplasia before other radiographic changes are evident.

Que. Surgical treatments for hip dysplasia include ____________________ and _______________________.

Que. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an age-related condition in (neutered/intact) male dogs.

Que. Hyperplasia of prostatic glandular tissue is a response to the presence of both _______________ and ______________.

Que. Clinical signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) include: _______________, _________________, and __________________.

Que. BPH is characterized as (painful/nonpainful) (symmetrical/nonsymmetrical) swelling of the prostate gland.

Que. How can canine and human BPH be differentiated?

Que. The pathogenesis of BPH in older intact male dogs includes the following steps: increased production of estrogens (estrone and estradiol), combined with (increased/decreased) secretion of androgens, which sensitizes prostatic androgen receptors to dihydrotestosterone.

Que. What is the primary means for prevention of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Que. List some alternatives to castration for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Que. What lesion is consistent with Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome seen in young beagles?

Que. Clinical signs of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome include fever, anorexia, lethargy and reluctance to move the head and neck. Dogs seem to extend the neck ventrally. Dogs seem to be in pain. Remissions and relapses are characterized by 3-7 days/weeks of illness and 2-4 days/weeks of remission.

Que. What site is often affected in subclinical vasculitis of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome?

Que. What is the primary means for prevention of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Que. List some alternatives to castration for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Que. What lesion is consistent with Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome seen in young beagles?

Que. Clinical signs of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome include fever, anorexia, lethargy and reluctance to move the head and neck. Dogs seem to extend the neck ventrally. Dogs seem to be in pain. Remissions and relapses are characterized by 3-7 days/weeks of illness and 2-4 days/weeks of remission.

Que. What site is often affected in subclinical vasculitis of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome?

Que. True or False. It is consistent with juvenile polyarteritis syndrome in dogs to see the coronary artery surrounded by rings of inflammatory cells.

Que. True or false. There are prevention and control measures for Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome (JPS).

Que. _____________ is used to relieve clinical symptoms of JPS

Que. The common name for hyperplasia and/or prolapse of the nictitating membrane is ________

Que. True or False. Cherry eye is considered a congenital anomaly.

Que.The most effective way to treat �cherry eye� is by___________

Que. Interdigital cysts are chronic inflammation lesions, not ________.

Que. Interdigital cysts usually occur in the _____ and _______ interdigital spaces.