AAE Operations, Security & Maintenance

  1. When must an airport comply with part 139?
    If an airport is served by scheduled air carrier aircraft having a seating capacity of more than 9 seats, or is intending to be served by them, then the airport must fully comply with the requirements of 139.
  2. What are the components of part 139?
    Records, Personnel, Paved Areas, Unpaved Areas, Safety Areas, Signs Lighting and Markings, Snow and Ice Control Plan, ARFF, Hazmat, AEP, Self Inspections, Obstructions, Protection of NAVIDS, Public Protection, Wildlife Management, Construction
  3. Name the classifications of airports?
    • A Class I certificated airport would serve scheduled operations of
    • small and large air carrier aircraft, as well as those of small and large
    • unscheduled air carrier aircraft.

    • A Class II certificated airport is authorized to serve small scheduled
    • air carrier operations as well as a limited number of large unscheduled
    • air carrier operations.

    • A Class III airport is eligible to serve only small scheduled air carrier aircraft. It is not authorized to serve large scheduled or unscheduled air
    • carrier aircraft.

    • A Class IV airport cannot serve scheduled large or small air carrier
    • aircraft. Airports that tend to be resort destinations or seasonal in their
    • operation and receive large unscheduled air carrier aircraft can receive
    • certification under Class IV.
  4. When is an Airport Operating Certificate Needed?
    An AOC is required if the airport serves: (1) scheduled or unscheduled passenger operation of an air carrier with aircraft having a seating capacity of more than 30 passengers, or (2) scheduled passenger operations with aircraft having a seating capacity of more than 9
  5. What is the definition of a small and large aircraft under part 139?
    Small aircraft is with a seating capacity of 10 to 30 seats, Large are over 30
  6. For purposes of 139 compliance an air carrier operation covers what time period?
    An air carrier operation covers the period of time from 15 minutes before and until 15 minutes after the takeoff or landing of an air carrier aircraft.
  7. What is the reason for the Airport Certification Manual?
    • The reason for the ACM requirement is to have a mechanism by which the FAA can fulfill its safety oversight function without having to monitor on a daily basis all airports holding a Part 139 certificate.
    • The central purpose of the ACM is to be a useful working document and tool to instruct airport personnel on how to maintain a safe airport and comply with the federal regulations. How detailed an ACM will be is contingent upon the training and experience of the personnel it serves.
  8. What is the emphasis that is placed on the ACM?
    This is accomplished by identifying who will perform the task; what the task will consist of; how the task is to be performed; and when it will be accomplished.
  9. Approval of the ACM occurs at what levels?
    The airport operator level and (2) the FAA level, as indicated by appropriate signatures. An approved ACM generally results in the issuance of an Airport Operating Certificate (AOC).
  10. If a manager has to deviate from 139, does he have to notify the FAA?
    • Under Part 139, a deviation requires a manager to inform the FAA within 14 days of the occurrence.
    • Deviations are allowed for circumstances that primarily result from an aircraft emergency, such as allowing an air carrier to use a runway that does not meet the safety requirements of the ACM. Allowing air carrier operations while the airport’s firefighting equipment is participating in an off-airport training exercise is not a deviation, but a violation.
  11. What does a self inspection allow the airport to do?
    An effective self inspection program enables an airport operator to operate in compliance to Part 139 standards on a day-to-day basis.
  12. What is one of the most important parts of 139?
    One of the requirements of Part 139, and the most critical component for ensuring the safety of airport operations, is that the operator of each certificated airport regularly conducts a daily safety self inspection, to identify conditions that are hazards or have the potential to be hazardous to aircraft operation to ensure that prompt corrective action is taken to eliminate unsafe conditions on the airport.
  13. What are some components of the self-inspection?
    Primary attention in a self-inspection is given to operational items such as pavement areas, safety areas, markings and signs, lighting, aircraft rescue and firefighting, fueling operations, navigational aids, ground vehicles, obstructions, public protection, wildlife hazard management, construction, and snow and ice control.
  14. What are the key components of the self-inspection?
    • Regularly scheduled inspection.
    • Continuous Surveillance Inspection
    • Periodic condition inspection
    • Special inspection
  15. Airport personnel who conduct safety self-inspections should be familiar with what areas?
    • 1. Airport familiarization;
    • 2. The Airport Emergency Plan;
    • 3. NOTAM procedures;
    • 4. Procedures for handling pedestrians and ground vehicles in the movement area;
    • 5. Airport inspection procedures, techniques and discrepancy reporting procedures;
    • 6. Inspectors should know and use correct radio communication phraseology, procedures and techniques, as specified in the Aeronautical Information Manual.
  16. In 139 what records must be kept and for how long?
    • Training, inspection, conditions, incident and accident.
    • Section 303 requires personnel having access to the protected areas of the airport to receive initial training and recurrent training every 12 months. The records for these individuals must be maintained and kept for 24 months.
    • Self Inspections need to be kept for 12 months. Wildlife 12 Months. NOTAMS 12 Months. Accidents/Incidents 12 Months. ARFF Training 24 months, Hazmat training 24months.
  17. What are the two types of pavement categories at airports and what are the characteristics?
    • The two types of pavement, asphalt and concrete, have different characteristics.
    • Asphalt can be laid without expansion joints and is generally less expensive and faster than concrete to install, but requires higher maintenance. Since asphalt is primarily a petroleum product, it is susceptible to oxidation from the sun’s ultraviolet rays and the solvent action of fuel or oil.
    • Being more rigid, concrete is poured into distinctive slabs that require seams or joints to allow for expansion and contraction. This contributes to its higher cost.
    • The advantage of concrete, however, is that it can withstand much higher aircraft loads than an equivalent thickness of asphalt. It also resists weathering and oil or fuel spillage. Typically, it has twice the service life (40 years) of asphalt (15-20 years).
  18. What should a daily pavement inspection include?
    • The reporting and removal of pavement edges exceeding three inches between abutting pavement or other areas, and cracks or holes that could impair directional control. A hole is defined as an opening larger than five inches in diameter, exceeding three inches in depth with an inside side slope greater than 45 degrees.
    • When inspecting pavement surfaces, airport management should be looking for signs of surface deterioration or hazards to aircraft, which include spalling, raveling, and alligatoring, debris and/or foreign objects that could damage an aircraft.
    • Check for vegetation growth along runway and taxiway edges that may impede drainage from the pavement surface.
    • Report and monitor any cracks, holes, variations and vegetation that can cause loss of aircraft directional control or may cause pavement damage, including damage caused by damming or pooling water.
  19. What does a Pavement Management System help to accomplished?
    The establishment of a Pavement Management System (PMS) helps to guide airport management and FAA decisions on use of federal monies for maintenance. A PMS provides a consistent objective and systematic procedure for setting priorities and schedules, allocating resources, and budgeting for pavement maintenance and rehabilitation.
  20. What is the purpose of the PMS?
    Rehabilitating pavements at the 11-15 year mark is projected to take less time and extend pavement life at a lower cost than replacing the pavement at 20 years. Since 1995, federal law has required airport management seeking funding for pavement rehabilitation or reconstruction to have a Pavement Management System (PMS) in place as a grant assurance condition.
  21. When evaluating pavement, what are some key things to consider?
    Distribution of load, Type of Load, Material Quality, Climatic Effects, Traffic Mix, Roughness of Pavement, Maintenance Capabilities
  22. What are the ways you can test the pavement?
    Direct sampling and Non Destructive test which involves ground radar and infrared thermal graph.
  23. What are the two types of pavement friction testing?
    • Decelerometers, which can be either mechanical or electrical, are used primarily to assess friction properties of runways during winter operations. They are not approved for conducting runway pavement maintenance surveys or for providing consistent measurement of wet runway surfaces.
    • CFME devices provide a continuous graphic record of the pavement surface friction characteristics with friction averages for each one-third portion of a runway length.
    • Both DECs and CFMEs are eligible for federal funding under the AIP program.
  24. What are the two phases of the Snow and Control Ice plan?
    • Phase #1 addresses pre-and post-winter season subjects that prepare the airport operator for the new winter season. This phase may include revising the existing SICP after the winter season ends.
    • Phase #2 addresses the sequential actions, via instruction and procedures, taken by the airport operator for dealing with winter storms and notifying airport users in a timely manner when less than satisfactory conditions exist at the airport including the closure of runways
  25. How does Snow and ice degrade an aircraft’s performance?
    (1) surface maneuvering is impeded, (2) the generation of speed or lift is diminished for takeoff, or (3) braking action and stopping distance become marginal when landing
  26. The snow and ice control plan required in an ACM includes instructions and procedures for what?
    • 1. The prompt removal or control of snow, ice, and slush on each Airport Movement Area (AMA).
    • 2. The positioning of snow off AMA surfaces so that all air carrier aircraft propellers, engine pods, rotors, and wingtips will clear any snowdrift or snow bank.
    • 3. The selection and application of approved materials for snow and ice control.
    • 4. The timely commencement of snow and ice control operations.
    • 5. The prompt notification to all air carriers using the airport when there is less than a satisfactorily cleared AMA for the safe operation of aircraft.
  27. What are some Elements included in the snow plan?
    Preseason preparation, snow committee composition, snow desk or snow control center location, equipment, personnel training, weather reports, field condition reports, clearance criteria, clearance priorities, supervision, and communications. A snow plan needs to be flexible enough to allow snow and ice removal operations to change with weather and operational conditions.
  28. What are the Snow and Ice clearing priorities for the airfield?
    Priority 1: Primary runway(s) with taxiway turnoffs, access taxiways leading to the terminal, terminal(s) and cargo ramp(s), airport rescue and fire fighting (ARFF) station(s) and emergency service roads, NAVAIDs, and other areas deemed essential, such as fueling areas and airport security/surveillance roads.

    Priority 2: Crosswind/secondary runways and their supportive taxiways, remaining aircraft movement areas, commercial ramp areas, access roads to secondary facilities, and airfield facilities not essential to flight operations or not used on a daily basis.
  29. Pavement condition sensing instruments have what functions?
    (1) they provide a precise measure of the pavement temperature; (2) they indicate the presence of water, ice, or other contaminants; and (3) they transmit this information to the snow control center for incorporation into the decision-making process for the most appropriate snow and ice control strategy.
  30. How do anit-ice and de-ice materials work?
    Deicing chemicals and liquids work by lowering the freezing point of the water or liquid mixture. Anti-ice chemicals or fluids are applied prior to ice formation to prevent bonding of the ice to the pavement.
  31. Explain ARFF Index.
    • A – Below 90ft in length ie CRJ
    • B- Between 90ft and 126ft ie 737
    • C – Between 126 and 159ft ie 757
    • D- Between 159ft and 200ft ie 767
    • E – Over 200ft
  32. Explain how an extinguishing agent works.
    An extinguishing agent works by smothering the fire to prevent oxygen from mixing with hydrocarbons, by suppressing the release of fuel vapors, by separating the combustible materials, or by lowering the temperature through a cooling effect.
  33. What are the different types of extinguishing agents?
    Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) has become the most common extinguishing agent at airports. This is because of its abilities to seal and suppress the release of fuel vapors, to provide a cooling effect, to separate combustible materials, and to resist breakdown from other chemical agents. There is also Halon which is discounted. Halatron which has no residue. There is also Potassium based compounds and Sodium based compounds.
  34. What are the performance requirements for ARFF?
    • The performance requirements for ARFF response at certificated airports are for the first responding piece of ARFF equipment to reach the mid-point of furthest air carrier runway from its assigned post within three minutes from the time the alarm is sounded, to have all onboard personnel to be in full protective gear, and to begin application of firefighting agent. All other vehicles (if required) must reach the same point within four minutes. For all airports, the response must be available 15 minutes prior to the arrival of the air carrier aircraft, and remain for 15 minutes after it leaves.
    • Also, the crash phone must be tested daily and if it doesn't work a NOTAM must be issued.
  35. What are the requirements for Index A, B, C, D & E?
    • Index A
    • 1 Vehicle, 500lbs of dry chemical and 100 gallons of water.

    • Index B
    • 1 or 2 Vehicles 1500 gallons of water

    • Index C
    • 2 or 3 vehicles 3000 gallons of water

    • Index D
    • 3 vehicles 4000 gallons of water

    • Index E
    • 3 vehicles 6000 gallons of water
  36. What is the threshold for runway breaking action and rubber deposits?
    60 on the MU reading
  37. What are causes for rubber buildup on a runway?
    • #1 Mechanical wear and polishing action from aircraft tires rolling or braking on a runway
    • #2 Tires slowly wear away the surface of the runway along with leaving deposits behind
  38. What are some ways to remove rubber buildup on a runway?
    High pressure water blasting, Ultra high pressure water blasting, chemical removal, shot blasting, mechanical removal
  39. What is the requirement for ARFF personnel when it comes to training?
    • All rescue and firefighting personnel are required to participate in at least one live fire drill every 12 months.
    • In addition, at least one of the ARFF personnel on duty during air carrier operations is required to be trained and current in basic medical care. Part 139 regulations require airport ARFF crews to undertake continuous training and to maintain training records for 24 months. Every three years a Class I airport must conduct a mock full scale emergency exercise using those support agencies identified in the airport emergency plan. During the other years and for Class II, III, and IV airports, a tabletop classroom exercise must be conducted by all parties, which results in a discussion of various emergency scenarios in and around the airport.
  40. What are the requirements for fuel inspections?
    Certification Manual and inspections should be conducted every 90 days for compliance to the fueling fire safety standards listed in the ACM. Airports certificated under Part 139 are required to maintain a record of this inspection for at least 12 months.
  41. What is the primary purpose of the AEP?
    The primary purposes of an Airport Emergency Plan are to provide for (1) the delegation of authority, (2) the assignment of responsibilities, (3) the coordination of efforts by responding personnel, and (4) an orderly transition between normal and emergency operations.
  42. What are the hazards or risks that must be addressed in the AEP?
    (1)aircraft incidents and accidents, (2) bomb incidents, (3) structural fires, (4) fires at fuel farms and fuel storage areas, (5) natural disasters, (6) hazardous materials/dangerous goods incidents, (7) sabotage and hijacking incidents, (8) power failures, and (9) water rescue.
  43. What are the three phases of an emergency?
    Response Phase activities are focused on the dispatch and arrival of emergency first responders,initial fire suppression, rescue operations, and dealing with any hazardous materials issues.

    Investigatory Phase activities may require some type of activity specific to the gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of cause. The investigation is normally the responsibility of the NTSB. However, emergency first responders should adhere to the criteria contained in AC 150/5200-12

    Recovery Phase activities are focused on returning the airport to a normal operational condition as soon as possible. Describe the relationship between the AEP and other emergency response plans (e.g. the local jurisdiction(s) EOP) regarding aircraft accident response and recovery actions on the airport. Whenever possible, the wreckage should remain undisturbed until the arrival of the first NTSB accident investigator.
  44. What are the five phases of an accident?
    Discovery/Notification, Identification/Verification, Response, Resolution, Restoration
  45. What are the different types of alerts?
    • Alert I (Local Standby) An aircraft that is known or suspected to have an operational defect that should not normally cause serious difficulty in achieving a safe landing. This is notification only. No response is required. Response units involved will be manned and will standby in quarters.
    • • Alert II (Full Emergency) An aircraft that is known or is suspected to have an operational defect that affects normal flight operations to the extent that there is danger of an accident. All units respond to predesignated positions.
    • • Alert III (Aircraft Accident) An aircraft incident/accident has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport. All designated emergency response units proceed to the scene in accordance with established plans and procedures.
  46. What are the three major categories of emergency exercises?
    (1) tabletop exercise, (2) partial exercise, and (3) full-scale exercise
  47. What are the courses of action after an accident has happened?
    Discovery/notification, identification/verification, response, resolution, restoration
  48. What are the common elements of the AEP?
    • 1. A scope describing the extent of the plan and those involved in it.
    • 2. A description of the emergency communications network.
    • 3. A chain of command and identification of responsibilities for responders. An identification of specific action steps and procedures for selected emergencies.
    • 4. An agreement or description of what each supporting agency will provide. An airport grid map or other accident/event location identifier system.
    • 5. Other information and documentation that pertain to the AEP’s execution.
  49. What are the critical elements of the AEP?
    1) command, 2) control and 3) communication

    Command refers to the ability to act with clearly defined authority, to dominate the actions of the many elements involved so that the objective (resolving the emergency) is accomplished. More important, it defines who will assume authority and accept responsibility at the scene.

    The element of control means that a procedure has been established that coordinates the activities of the many participants so that the emergency is effectively resolved without duplication of limited resources.

    Communication is the element that acts as the “central nervous system” of the overall response. In the context of an emergency, communication refers to transmitting and receiving information without delay and without confusion. There are several ways to transmit information and instructions.
  50. When does part 139 require an airport to conduct a wildlife hazard assessment?
    • 1. An air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes.
    • 2. An air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife.
    • 3. An air carrier aircraft experiences an engine ingestion of wildlife.
    • 4. Wildlife of a size or in numbers capable of causing an accident event is observed to have access to any airport flight pattern or aircraft movement area.
  51. What does a wildlife hazard assessment consist of?
    Analyzing the events or circumstances that prompted the research; (2) identifying the species, numbers, locations, local movements, and daily and seasonal occurrences of wildlife observed; (3) identifying and locating features on and near the airport that attract wildlife; (4) describing the wildlife hazard to air carrier operations; and (5) recommended actions for reducing the identified hazards on air carrier operations.
  52. What are the basic ingredients in an effective wildlife control program?
    Wildlife control is based primarily on two approaches: (1) habitat modification and (2) active control.

    Habitat modification may require keeping grass at 10-14 inches for gulls, or 6 inches for other birds of prey. It could require removing trees, ponds, building ledges, and other unnecessary perches and roosting areas. Active control includes scaring, dispersal, trapping, and lethal control. Since birds are the primary hazard to aircraft, reducing the potential for bird strikes at airports involves one or more strategies
  53. What are the four types of NOTAMS?
    NOTAMs are classified into four types: (D) NOTAM, (FDC) NOTAM, Special Data or Pointer NOTAM, and Military NOTAM.
  54. What are important items to remember when issuing a NOTAM?
    • 1. Identification of the affected airport facility and component;
    • 2. Description of the affected component condition, which prompted the NOTAM;
    • 3. The effective time period the component will be affected;
    • 4. Name, address, and phone number of the person issuing the NOTAM;
    • 5. To whom copies are distributed.
  55. What is the purpose of the Airport Security Plan?
    The ASP describes how that specific airport will comply with the federal regulations and Security Directives (SD) relating to aviation security. Similar to an airport certification manual, the ASP explains the “who, what, when, where, why, and how” of the airport’s security functions. It should include the duties and responsibilities that are to be performed in order to comply with the federal regulations and which entity on the airport will carry out those functions, under both normal and emergency circumstances.
  56. What are some components of the Airport Security Plan?
    Airport Security Coordinator, Description of the Secured Areas, Description of the AOA, Description of the SIDA, Description of the Sterile Areas, Training Programs, Challenge Procedures, Escort Procedures, Law Enforcement Support, Contingency Plan, Posting for Public Advisories, Description of Facilities and Equipment used for screening, Storage of Security Plan
  57. What is the SIDA?
  58. What is the AOA?
  59. What is the Sterile Area?
  60. There are 28 disqualifying criminal offenses for receiving access to the SIDA, what are a few?
    (1) Forgery of certificates, false marking of aircraft, and other aircraft registration violation.(2) Interference with air navigation; 3) Improper transportation of a hazardous material; 4) Aircraft piracy; 5) Interference with flight crew members or flight attendants; 6) Commission of certain crimes aboard aircraft in flight; .(7) Carrying a weapon or explosive aboard aircraft; 8) Conveying false information and threats; 9) Aircraft piracy outside the special aircraft jurisdiction of the United States; 10) Lighting violations involving transporting controlled substances(11) Unlawful entry into an aircraft or airport area that serves air carriers or foreign air carriers contrary to established security requirements; 12) Destruction of an aircraft or aircraft facility13) Murder.(14) Assault with intent to murder.(15) Espionage.(16) Sedition.(17) Kidnapping or hostage taking.(18) Treason.(19) Rape or aggravated sexual abuse.(20) Unlawful possession, use, sale, distribution, or manufacture of an explosive or weapon.(21) Extortion.(22) Armed or felony unarmed robbery.(23) Distribution of, or intent to distribute, a controlled substance.(24) Felony arson.(25) Felony involving a threat.(26) Felony involving—(i) Willful destruction of property;(ii) Importation or manufacture of a controlled substance;(iii) Burglary;(iv) Theft;(v) Dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation;(vi) Possession or distribution of stolen property;(vii) Aggravated assault;(viii) Bribery; or
  61. Regarding a bomb threat, it is addressed (written form) in two areas, what are they?
    Airport Emergency Plan, and Airport Secuirty Plan
  62. Upon receiving a threat what must the airport operator do?
    • 1. Evaluate the threat in accordance with the Airport Security Program.
    • 2. Initiate appropriate actions as specified in the Airport Emergency Plan and the appropriate sections of the Airport Security Program.
    • 3. Immediately notify TSA of acts or suspected acts of unlawful interference to civil aviation operations, including specific bomb threats to aircraft and airport facilities.
  63. What are the GSC main responsibilities?
    • 1. Resolve conflicts between gate agents and passengers.
    • 2. Intervene in situations with disruptive passengers.
    • 3. Act as the primary point of contact for bomb threats and hijackings until relieved by higher authority. Oversee cargo and baggage acceptance procedures.
  64. What are the classifications of runways incursions?
    • A- extreme action required to avoid a collision or a collision takes place
    • B- Significant potential for a collision
    • C- Separation decreases but ample time to avoid collision
    • D- Little or no chance of collision but meets the definition
  65. What are the three types of runway incursions?
    ATC deviations, Pilot deviations, and Vehicle deviations
  66. What are the components of the CMMS (Computerized Maintenance Management System)?
    Work orders, Asset management, inventory control, scheduling of PM's, Inspections, can also contain safety records, historical records of parts and maintenance checks
  67. What are some energy saving techniques for airports?
    • Close doors half way to save on AC costs
    • Use solar power in flat open areas like parking
    • Hydrogen buses
    • Replace current light fixtures with LED lights
    • Install motion sensors for escalators of moving walkways and light fixtures
  68. What are some terminal materials, advantages, disadvantages?
    • High impact panels
    • Metal strips to protect wall corners Turozo flooring
    • Tile
    • Carpet
  69. What are the sidestep procedures and what are the minimums to conduct?
    ATC may authorize a side step maneuver to either one of two parallel runways that are separated by 1200 feet. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be based on non precision criteria or circling minimums.
  70. What are the procedures for disabled aircraft on runway?
    First close the runway, Issue NOTAM, transportation of passengers of the aircraft, notify the owner of the aircraft, notify the local FSDO, persimmon to remove the aircraft will come from FSDO, clear the runway by completing runway inspection and reopen runway
  71. What are some publications available for airport operators?
    Advisory circulars, FAA orders, FAR's, Airport Magazine, TSA security directives, TSA info circulars, AAAE, AOPA
  72. When does part 139 require airports to conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment?
    • # 1 An air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes
    • #2 An air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife
    • #3 An air carrier aircraft experiences an engine ingestion of wildlife
    • #4 Wildlife of a size or in numbers capable of causing an accident event is observed to have access to any airport flight pattern or aircraft movement area.
  73. What does a Wildlife Assessment consist of?
    • #1 Analyzing events or circumstances that prompted the research
    • #2 Identifying the species, numbers, locations, local movement, and daily and seasonal occurrences of wildlife observed
    • #3 Identifying and locating features on an near the airport that attract wildlife #4 Describing the wildlife hazard to air carrier operations
    • #5 Recommended actions for reducing the identified hazards on air carrier operations
  74. What are one of the three entries that are needed in the ACM related to wildlife hazards?
    • # 1 A statement of negativity activity
    • #2 A brief statement of the no-hazard findings of a Wildlife Hazard Assessment
    • #3 A Wildlife Hazard Management
  75. What is the basic ingredient in an effective wildlife control program?
    • #1 Habitat modification
    • #2 Active control
  76. What is a safety area?
    Safety areas are defined as ground surface areas around runways and taxiways that are prepared and suitable for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the runway. Safety areas are also designed to support snow and fire fighting equipment.
  77. Describe the part 139 FAA Inspection Process?
    • Usually the first thing will be to review the records, training for ARFF, airfield ops training, day to to inspections, wildlife reporting, fuel farm inspections, NOTAM records
    • Second they will test the ARFF responding units
    • Third they will want to visually inspect the runways, taxiways, ramps, signage, markings, objects that might effect navigable, obstacles that might be in the approach
    • They will inspect fuel farms, fuel trucks, make sure proper signage is in place, grounding cables, extinguishers are the right type and update, vegetation around fuel farms
    • They will also do a night inspection the signs and runway/taxiway markings
  78. When must a person notify the FAA is it relates to part 77?
    • #1 Any construction or alteration exceeding 200ft above ground level
    • #2 Any constriction or alteration: within 20,000ft of a public use or military airport which exceeds a 100:1 surface from any point on the runway
    • Within 10,000ft of a public use or military airport which exceeds a 50:1 surface from any point on the runway
    • #3 When requested by the FAA
    • #4 Any construction or alteration located on a public use airport
  79. Upon the receipt of any proposed construction, the FAA conducts a Part 77 study and can conclude with one or more six possibilities, what are they?
    • #1 The construction is hazard to air navigation
    • #2 The object or activity on or near the airport is objectionable
    • #3 The need exits to alter, removed, mark, or light the object
    • #4 The airport layout plan is approved
    • #5 The proposed construction, enlargement, modification to the airport would have adverse effect on the safe and efficient use of navigable airspace
    • #6 A change in operational procedure is feasible or required
  80. What form must be filled with the FAA when there is a proposed construction and what is the minimum around of time to do so?
    7460-1 and 30 days
  81. Does the FAA have the authority to prevent someone from constructing or altering a structure, who's ultimate responsibility is it?
    No they don't have authority and the protecting these areas is left up to the the states and local governments zoning policies. For this reason the FAA insists upon land sure planning in and around airports to protect the FAA's investment.
  82. What is a Runway Protection Zone?
    It is an area off the end of the runway designed to enhance the protection of the people and property on the ground. The RPZ begins 200 ft from the end of the runway and is required to be under the control of the airport. Its length can vary from 1000ft to 2500ft.
  83. What is the Object Free Area?
    The Object-Free Area (OFA) is a ground area centered on the runway, taxiway, or taxilane centerline that enhances the safety of aircraft operations. It is free of objects, except for those items needed for air navigation or aircraft ground maneuvering (i.e., antennas, lights, signs). The width of the runway OFA, centered on the runway center-line, varies from 250 feet to 800 feet, and its length varies from 240 to 1,000 feet past the end of the runway or stop-way, depending on the ARC. Taxiway and taxilane OFAs also vary in dimensions.
  84. What is the Obstacle Free Zone?
    The Obstacle-Free Zone (OFZ) is the airspace above the runway elevation at any point, but below the 150-foot floor of the horizontal surface area under Part 77. It extends 200 feet beyond each runway end and its width varies from 120 feet to 400 feet, depending on the visibility requirements and aircraft size. The OFZ is required to be clear of all objects, except for visual navaids mounted on frangible couplings that need to be functionally located in the OFZ. For runways having an approach lighting system or visibility minimums lower than 3/4-statute miles, an inner approach OFZ and inner transitional OFZ exists for each, respectively.
  85. What are the three differant types of hydroplaning?
    Viscous - Tire cannot penetrate the fluid and the tire rolls on top of the film

    Dynamic - As the speed of the aircraft and the depth of the water increases, the water builds up forming a wedge of water around the tire

    Reverted Rubber - Occurs durning heavy braking and only a thin layer is needed, the tire skidding generates enough heat to change the water in to a cushion
  86. What are the two types of load?
    • Static and Dynamic
    • Static load is load that is placed continously on pavement (tires sitting on ramp)
    • Dynamic is sudden and the load is spread out quickly (tire hitting runway)
Card Set
AAE Operations, Security & Maintenance
AAE Operations, Security & Maintenance