-
What does the pectoral girdle include?
Clavicle & scapula
-
Anteriorly the medial end of each clavicle meets the?
Sternum
-
The distal end of each clavicle meets the ________ laterally
scapulae
-
Each clavicle is cone shaped at it medial Sternal end which attaches to the
Sternal manubrium
-
Each clavicle is flattened at its lateral Acromial end which articulates with the
scapulae
-
Scapulae is the?
Shoulder blade
-
Describe the superior border of the scapula
is the shortest, sharpest boarder
-
Describe the medial or vertebral border of the scapula
parallels the vertebral column
-
Describe the lateral or Axillary border of the scapula
abuts the armpit and ends superiorly in a small shallow Fossa, the glenoid cavity
-
Pertaining to the scapula: The superior scapular angle border meets the medial border at the
superior angle
-
Pertaining to the scapula: The lateral border meets at the
lateral angle.
-
Pertaining to the scapula: The medial and lateral boarders join at the
inferior angle.
-
The glenoid cavity fits what?
Head of humerus
-
The anterior or costal surface of the scapula is concave and relatively featureless. On the posterior surface there a prominent _________that is felt easily thought the skin.
- spine
- On the posterior surface of the scapula there is a spine that end laterally in an enlarged roughened triangular projection called the
- Acromion
-
The acromion articulates with the Acromial end of the
Clavicle
-
Projecting Anteriorly from the superior scapular border is the
Coracoids process �little finger bent�
-
The coracoid process helps anchor the biceps muscle of the arm. It is bounded by the ________medially and by the glenoid cavity laterally.
Suprascapular notch
-
The_____________and __________ fossae are inferior and superior respectively to the spine.
infraspinous and supraspinous
-
The __________is the shallow concavity formed by the entire anterior scapular surface.
subscapular fossa
-
Infraglenoid tubercle is located where?
Bottom of the glenoid cavity
-
Supraglenoid tubercle is located where?
Top of the glenoid cavity
-
The______, the sole bone of the arm, is a typical long bone. The largest, longest bone of the upper limb, it articulates with the scapula at the shoulder and with the radius and ulna at the elbow.
Humerus
-
A the proximal end of the humerus is its smooth, hemispherical ________, which fits into the glenoid cavity of the scapula in a manner that allows the arm to hang freely at ones side.
Head
-
Immediately Anteriorly inferior to the head is a slight constriction called the
Anatomical neck
-
Just inferior to the anatomical neck on the lateral side is the
Greater tubercle
-
Just inferior to the anatomical neck medially is the
- lesser tubercle.
- The greater tubercle and the lesser tubercle are separated by the
- Intertubercular Sulcus or bicipital grove
-
Just distal to the tubercles is the
Surgical neck
-
About midway down the shaft on its lateral side is the
Deltoid tuberosity
-
Nearby the deltoid tuberosity is the _________ which runs obliquely down the posterior aspect of the shaft, marking the course of the radial nerve.
Radial grove
-
At the distal end of the humerus are two condyles. A medial ______, which looks like an hourglass on its side, and the lateral ball-like _______.
-
The trochlea articulates with the
Ulna
-
The capitulum articulates with the
Radius
-
Both of the epicondyles (trochlea and capitulum) are flanked by the
Medial and lateral epicondyles
-
The ulnar nerve which runs behind the _________ is responsible for the tingling sensation you experience when you hit your �funny bone�
Medial epicondyle
-
Superior to the trochlea on the anterior surface is the___________, and on the posterior surface is the_______.
- Coronoid fossa
- Olecranon fossa
-
A small________, lateral to the coronoid fossa receives the head of the radius when the elbow is flexed.
radial fossa
-
The proximal ends of the ulna and radius articulate with the
Humerus
-
The distal end of the ulna and radius articulate with the
Wrist
-
The radius and ulna are connected along their entire length by
Interosseus membrane
-
In the anatomical position, the radius lies_________ and the ulna __________.
- laterally (the thumb side)
- medially (pinky side)
-
The ulna has two prominent processes
Olecranon (elbow) and coronoid process
-
The olecranone and the coronoid processes are separated by a deep concavity, the _____.
Trochlear notch
-
On the lateral side of the coronoid process is a small depression, the _________, where the ulna articulates with the head of the radius.
Radial notch
-
Distally he ulnar shaft narrows and ends in a knoblike
Head
-
Medial to the ulnar head is the _______, from which a ligament runs to the wrist.
Styloid process
-
The radius is thin at its proximal end and wide distally, the opposite of the ulna. The ______of the radius is shaped somewhat like the head of a nail. The superior surface of it is concave and articulates with the capitulum of the humerus.
Head
-
Medially, the head articulates with the ______of the ulna.
radial notch
-
Just inferior to the head of the radius and the radius neck is the
Radial tuberosity
-
Distally, where the radius is expanded it has a medial
Ulnar notch
-
The ulnar notch articulates with the ulna and a lateral
Styloid process
-
The skeleton of the had includes the bones of the
- Carpus (wrist)
- Metacarpus (palm)
- Phalanges (bones of fingers)
-
The carpus consist of eight marble sized short bones or ____closely united by ligaments
Carpals
-
The carpals are arranged in two irregular rows of four bones each. In the proximal row (lateral to medial) are the:
- Scaphoid (boat shaped)
- Lunate (moon like)
- Triquetrium (triangular)
- Pisiform (pea shaped)
-
Only the _____ and ____ articulate with the radius to form the wrist joint
Schapoid and lunate
-
The carpals of the distal row (lateral to medial) are the:
- Trapezium (little table)
- Trapezoid (four sided)
- Capitates (head-shaped)
- Hamate (hooked)
-
-
-
How are the metacarpals numbered?
1-5 from thumb to pinky
-
The bases of the metacarpals articulate with the ________ proximally and each other medially and laterally. Their bulbous heads articulate with the proximal _______of the fingers.
-
The fingers of digits of the upper thumb are numbered 1 to 5 beginning with the thumb or pollex. In most people the third finger is the longest. Each finger has three phalanges:
- Distal, middle and proximal
- The thumb does not have which phalanx?
- Middle
-
How many bones in phalanges?
14
-
The _______ attached to the lower limbs to the axial skeleton, transmits the full weight of the upper body to the lower limbs and supports the visceral organs of the pelvis.
Pelvic girdle
-
The pelvic girdle is formed by a pair of hip bones called an
Os coxae or Coxal bone
-
The point of fusion of the ilium, ischium and the pubis is a deep hemispherical socket called the
Acetabulum
-
The ________ receives the head of the femur or the thigh bone, at this hip joint.
Acetabulum
-
The _____ is a large flaring bone that forms the superior region of the coxal bone.
Ilium
-
The _____ is where you rest your hands on your hips.
Iliac crest
-
Each iliac crest ends anterior in a blunt
anterior superior iliac spine.
-
Each iliac crest ends posteriorly in a sharp
posterior superior iliac spine
-
Inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine is the
Anterior inferior iliac spine
-
Inferior to the posterior superior iliac spine is the
Posterior inferior iliac spine
-
Just inferior to the posterior inferior iliac spine, the ilium indents deeply to form the
Greater sciatic notch
-
The medial surface of the ilium exhibits a concavity called the
- Iliac fossa
- Posterior to iliac fossa is the roughened
- Articular surface �ear shaped�
-
The _______forms the posteroinferior part of the hip bone.
Ischium
-
Roughly L or arc-shaped it has a thicker superior body adjoining the ilium and a thinner inferior
Ischial ramus
-
The ischial ramus joins the ______ anteriorly.
Pubis
-
The ______ projects medially into the pelvic cavity
Ischial spine
-
Just inferior to the ischial spine is the
Lesser sciatic notch
-
The inferior surface of the ischial body is rough and grossly thickened as the
Ischial tuberosity
-
The _____ forms the anterior portion of the hip bone.
Pubis
-
Escentiallly the pubis is V shaped with __________and ___________ issuing from its flattened medial body.
Superior and inferior rami
-
The anterior border of the pubis is thickened to form the
Pubic crest
-
The large opening in the hip bone is the
Obturator foramen
-
The bodies of the two pubic bones are joined by a fibrocatilage disc, forming the midline_______.
Pubic symphasis.
-
The _____ is the single bone of the thigh, it is the largest, longest and strongest bone in the body.
Femur
-
The ball like ____ of the femur has a small central pit called the ______.
-
The head of the femur is carried on a _______ that angles laterally to join the shaft.
Neck
-
At the junction of the shaft and neck are lateral ____________ and posteromedial ________.
- Greater trochanter
- Lesser trochanter
-
The two trochaners are connected by the _______________Anteriorly and by the prominent _______posteriorly.
- Intertrochantic line
- Intertrochantric crest
-
Inferior to the intertrochantric crest on the posterior shaft is the __________ which bends into a long vertical ridge the ________________________ inferiorly.
- Gluteal tuberosity
- Linea aspera
-
Distally, the femur broadens and end in a wheel-like _______and ______, which articulate with the tibia of the leg
Lateral and medial condyles
-
The ____________and __________ flank the condyles superiorly.
medial and lateral epicondyles
-
On the superior part of the medial epicondyle is a bump, the
Adductor tubercle
-
The smooth ________________, between the condyles on the anterior femoral surface, articulates with the patella.
Patellar surface
-
Between the condyles on the posterior aspect of the femur is the deep, U-shaped _________.
Intercondylar fossa
-
The two parallel bones, the tibia and fibula form he skeleton of the leg, the lower limb between the knee and ankle. These two bones are connected by ____________ and articulate with each other proximally and distally.
Interosseious membrane
-
The ____ is the shinbone, which receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot.
Tibia
-
At its broad proximal end are the concave _____ and ______, which look like two huge checkers laying side by side.
Medial and lateral condyles
-
The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia are separated by an irregular projection, the
Intercondylar eminence
-
Just inferior to the condyles, the tibia�s anterior surface displays the rough ________, to which the patellar ligament attaches.
Tibial tuberosity
-
Distally the tibia is flat where it articulates with the _____ bone of the foot.
Talus
-
The ________ forms the medial bulge of the ankle.
Medial malleolus
-
The _______, on the lateral surface of the tibia, participates in the distal tibiofibular joint.
Fibular notch
-
The ______ is a sticklike bone with slightly expanded ends. It articulates proximally and distally with the lateral aspects of the tibia.
Fibula
-
The proximal end of the fibula is its
Head
-
The distal end of the fibula is the
Lateral malleolus
-
Inferior to the talus is the
Calcaneus
-
The top part of the patella is the
Base
-
The bottom part of the patella is the
Apex
-
The _________ of the patella articulates with the femur.
Articular surface
-
The skeleton of the foot includes the bones of the
- Tarsus
- Metatarsals
- Phalanges
-
The tarsus is made up of 7 bones called
Tarsals
-
The talus is the _____ which articulates with the tibia and fibula superiorly and the strong ______ which form the ____ of the foot and carries the talus on the upper surface.
-
The tarsals include:
Cuboid, navicular, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform and lateral cuneiform.
-
The cuboid and cuneiform bones articulate with the _____________ anteriorly.
Metatarsal bones
-
The metatarsus consists of 5 small long bones called ________ numbered 1-5 beginning with the big toe side.
Metatarsals
-
There are 14 phalanges of the toes. There are three phalanges in each digit except the
Hallux which only has proximal and distal
-
The 3 phalanges are named as?
Proximal, middle and distal.
-
The arches of the foot are?
Articular angles of the tarsals and metatarsals
-
What does the medial longitudinal arch consist of?
Calcaneous , talus, navicular, 1-3 cuneiforms and the 1st three metatarsals
-
What does the lateral longitudinal arch consist of?
Calcaneus, cuboid, and 1-3 cuneiforms
-
What does the transverse arch consist of
Base of metatarsals, cuboid, and 1-3 cuneiforms
-
The arches of the foot are supported by
Ligament ands some muscular and tendon support
-
What do the arches do for the body?
Distribute weight evenly between the heel and the metatarsals.
-
Flat feet are a result of?
1 or more fallen arches due to excessive strain on tendons and ligaments.
-
What is an articulation?
- Joint
- Any junction between 2 components of the skeleton; bone-bone, bone-cartilage, bone-teeth
-
Joints are classified by
Structure and function
-
Name the three kinds of joints
- Fibrous joint
- Cartilaginous joint
- Synovial joint
-
Describe the fibrous joint
No cavity; fibrous CT
-
Describe the cartilaginous joint
No cavity; cartilage
-
Describe he synovial joint
Synovial cavity present; articular capsule
-
What does joint function mean?
Degree of movement
-
Name the three kinds of functions for joints
- Synarthrosis
- Amphiarthrosis
- Diarthrosis
-
-
Amphiarthrosis
Slightly movable
-
Diarthrosis
Freely movable
-
Name the specific types of fibrous joints
- Sutures
- Syndesmosis
- Gomphosis
-
Describe a suture
Immovable; short CT; sagital suture
-
Describe syndesmosis
- Slightly movable (to �immovable with give�);
- Degree of movement depends on length of CT fibers;
- Distal tibiofibular joint
-
Gomphosis
- Immovable; teeth in socket;
- Periodontial ligament (short CT)
-
What are the specific types of cartilaginous joints?
-
Describe snchondrosis
- Immovable;
- Hyaline cartilage;
- Epiphyseal plate and sternum and rib 1
-
Describe symphasis
- Slightly movable;
- Fibrocartilage;
- Pubic symphasis
-
______are those in which the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing joint cavity.
- Synovial joints
- glassy-smooth hyaline cartilage covers the opposing bone surfaces in a synovial joint as
- articular cartilage
-
The joint cavity is enclosed by two layers articular capsules, or joint capsules. The external layer is a ________.
Fibrous capsule
-
The fibrous capsule attaches to the
periosteum
-
The synovial membrane is formed by
Loose CT, elastic fibers and adipocytes
-
The synovial membrane produces
Synovial fluid
-
The synovial fluid functions include?
Lubrication of the joints and nourishes the cartilage
-
The intrinsic ligament is what and does what?
- Thickenings of the articular capsule
- Stabilizes the joint
-
The extra capsular ligament occurs where?
Outside the articular capsule and help stabilize the joint
-
Articular discs or cartilages (fibrocartilages), or menisci do what?
Extend inward from the articular capsule and partially or completely divide the synovial cavity into two, channel the flow of synovial fluid and allow for variations in articular surface shapes.
-
The labrum (fibrocatilage) � glenoid labrum do what?
Deepens the articular surface of the bones
-
What are the determinants of synovial joint movement?
- Structure or shape of articulating surface
- Strength and tension (tautness) of the joint ligaments
- Muscle arrangements and tension
- Apposition of soft parts
- Hormones
-
Flexion
Bending or decreasing the angle between bones or parts
-
Extension
Straightening of bent part of increasing the angle between bones or parts
-
Supination
- Rotates radius laterally around its long axis
- Palms faces anterior
-
Pronation
- Rotates radius medially around its long axis
- Palm faces posteriorly
-
Dorsiflexion
Upward movement of the foot or toes
-
Plantarflexion
Downward movement of the foot or toes
-
Eversion
Turning the plantar surface of the away from the median plane
-
Inversion
Turning the plantar surface of the foot toward the median plane
-
Abduction
- Movement of the digits away from the median plane
- (spread fingers or toes apart)
-
Adduction
- Movement of the digits toward the median plane
- (Bring fingers or toes together)
-
Rotation
Revolving of a part around its long axis
-
Lateral rotation/external rotation
Rotation away from the median plane
-
Medial rotation/internal rotation
Rotation toward the median plane
-
Protraction
Anterior of forward movement of the mandible
-
Retraction
Posterior of backward movement of the mandible
-
Elevation
Lifting, raising or moving a part (mandible ) superiorly
-
Depression
Lowering or moving a part (mandible) inferiorly
-
Glide
Side to side or back and forth
-
Circumduction
Movement if the body to create a �cone� in space
-
Bilateral contraction
Both side contraction
-
Unilateral contraction
One side contraction
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; Distal tibiofibular joint
- Tibia and fibula
- Fibrous; syndesmosis
- Amphiarthrosis
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; Intervertebral joint
- Between adjacent centra
- Cartilaginous; symphasis
- Amphiarthrosis
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; Pubic symphasis
- Pubic bones
- Cartilaginous; symphasis
- Amphiarothisis
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; skull
- Cranial and facial bones
- Fibrous; suture
- Synarthrosis
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; Sternalcostal joint
- Sternum and rib 1
- Cartilaginous; synchondrosis
- Synarthrosis
-
Bone; Articulating bones; Structural type; functional type; �The rest are�
Synovial and diarthrosis
-
Function of muscles?
- Motion
- Maintain posture
- Stabilize joints
- Generate heat
-
Muscles have properties of ?
Excitability
-
What is excitability?
Ability to receive and respond to stimuli
-
What is a stimulus?
Environmental change that is strong enough to initiate an action potential
-
What is contractility?
Ability to shorten
-
What is extensibility?
Ability to stretch when opposing muscles contract (antoginistic)
-
What is elasticity?
Ability to return to their original shape
-
Describe skeletal muscle tissue
Long cylindrical cells; Multi nucleated cells; Nucleus is peripherally placed; cross striations are obvious;
-
What are the functions of skeletal muscle tissue?
Voluntary movement ; Locomotion; manipulation of environment; facial expression; voluntary control.
-
What is the location of skeletal muscle tissue?
Attaches to bones
-
Describe cardiac muscle tissue
Branching, striated, generally uninucleated cells that interdigitate at specialized junctions (intercalated discs)
-
What is the function of cardiac muscle?
As it contracts it propels blood into the circulation; involuntary control.
-
What is the location of cardiac muscle?
The walls of the heart
-
Describe smooth muscle.
Spindle-shaped cells with central nuclei; no striations; cells arranged closely to form sheets.
-
What is the function of smooth muscle?
Propels substances or objects (foodstuffs, urine, a baby) along internal passageways; involuntary control.
-
What is the location of smooth muscle cells?
Mostly in the walls of hallow organs.
-
Bone formation and bone growth begins approximately the
6th or 8th week of development
-
Bone formation andbone growth involves a replacement of
Pre-existing connective tissue
-
What are the two pre-existing connective tissues
Mesenchyme and cartilage
-
What are the two methods of osteogenesis?
- Intermemranous bone formation
- Endochondral bone formation
-
Intermembranous bone formation is directly within
A membrane of primitive CT (mesenchyme)
-
Endochondrial bone formation is a
Replacement of pre-existing cartilage
-
Intermembranous bone formation is when a bone forms
Within a fibrous CT membrane
-
What are some examples of intermembranous bone formation?
- Flat bones of skull
- Clavicles
-
The precess of intermembranous bone formation begins where?
In a membrane of mesenchyme
-
In the process of the intermembranous bone formation he groups of mesenchmal cells differentiate into
Osteoblats
-
The area where the groups of mesenchmal cells differentiate into osteoblasts id called the
Primary ossification center
-
Osteoblasts secrete
Osteoid
-
What is osteoid?
Calcium and other minerals
-
This osteoid becomes?
Mineralized matrix
-
Osteoblasts become
Osteocytes
-
Still in the process of intermembranous bone formation, more osteoblasts are formed and they continue to secrete osteoid. This forms what?
Irregular plates of bone tissue
-
The irregular plates of bone tissue fuse together and this is the first what? Then what?
Immature one then spongy bone
-
This area of spongy bone is richly what? And what cells are present here?
- Vascularized.
- Bone marrow
-
Once the bone marrow cells move in, what forms?
Periosteum and endosteum
-
Once the periosteum and endosteum are formed what happens?
Surface layers of spongy bone are remodeled into compact bone.
-
Endochondral bone formation occurs where?
Within a hyaline cartilage model of the bone
-
By which method do most bones form?
Endochondrial bone formation
-
What gives rise to the hyaline cartilage model?
Mesenchyme
-
Once there is a hyaline cartilage model, what happens next?
Blood vessels pierce the perichondrium
-
Once the hyaline cartilage is in place, blood vessels are formed, what happens next?
Some perichondrial cells are stimulated to become osteoblasts (which secrete osteiod)
-
Once hyaline cartilage is in place, blood vessels are formed, perichondial cells become osteoblasts, what forms next?
Bone collar. Which is covered by periosteum.
-
Deep to the bone collar what forms?
Primary ossification center.
-
Many changes occur once the primary ossification center is in place. What happens to the chondrocytes?
- 1. They become large, accumulate glycogen & enzymes
- 2. They die and rupture; There are now empty lacunae; cartilage matrix calcifies
- 3. Calcified cartilage matrix prevents diffusion of nutrients and there for other chondrocytes die; calcified cartilage matrix degenerates; primary marrow spaces form (will enlarge to form the marrow cavity)
- 4. Blood vessels grow along these marrow spaces and bring osteogenic cells with them
- 5. Changes continue toward other epiphyses from the primary ossification center
-
What happens in the resting zone (zone of reserve cartilage) for endochondrial bone formation?
Hyaline cartilage. Function to anchor plate to bone of epiphysis; Reserve source of new cells.
-
What happens in the zone of proliferation for endohondrial bone formation?
Mitosis of chondrocytes; increases length of model aand replace cells that die
-
What happens in the zone of hypertrophy (endochondrial bone formation)?
Mitosis stops and chondrocytes enlarge
-
What happens ins the zone of calcification for endochondrial bone formation?
Chondrocyes die; cartilage matrix calcifies
-
What happens in the zone of ossification for endochondrial bone formation?
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are present; endosteum forms; bone marrow cells move in.
-
The bone collar continues to grow. The marrow cavity continues to enlarge. The series of changes in the epiphyseal plate continue. Now what happens?
Blood vessels enter the epiphysis
-
Once the blood vessels enter the epiphysis what happens?
The secondary ossification center forms; the process repeats itself � radial growth
-
Cartilage will be replaced by bone everywhere except?
- Articular surface (no perichondium therefore no bone collar)
- Epiphyseal plate (for a time)
-
When bone stops growing, the epiphhyseal plate becomes ?
The epiphyseal line
-
The diaphyseal shaft increases in length primarily as a result of ?
The epiphyseal plate
-
Long bone gets wider as a result of the apposition of bone by the
Periosteum
-
Growth is associated with:
- Partial removal (resorption) of performed tissue
- Deposition of new tissue
-
When the epiphyseal plate stops growing:
- No more longitudinal growth
- Reserve cartilage is replaced by bone (and epiphyseal line is formed)
-
Remodeling is a continual event which replaces old tissue with new tissue. Which involves?
Resorption and deposition
-
What are the functions of remodeling?
- Replaces warn or injured bone tissue with new;
- Exchanges minerals Ca++ bone with ?? blood
-
Resorption of bone tissues is through
Osteoclasts
-
What is the process of resorption of bone tissue?
- Proteolytic enzymes
- Acids
- Howships�s lacuna
-
Describe proteolytic enzymes
Digest collagen and other organic substances
-
Describe acids
May soluablize minerals
-
Describe howship�s lacuna
Site of active bone resorption
-
Parathyroid hormone..causes?
- Osteoclasts activity and numbers to increase
- Released from the parathyroid glans when blood calcium levels get too low
- The end result with the increase in bone resprption will increase blood calcium levels and increase enough to go back to normal range
- Deposition of bone tissues involves?
- Osteoblasts
- Calcitonin
- Decreased osteoclasts activity
- Increased osteoblast activity
- Matrix formation and calcium deposition increases as new bone is formed.
- Released from the thyroid gland when the calcium levels get to high in the blood
- The end result is increased bone deposition and decreased calcium levels in the blood
-
What is a fracture?
Structural discontinuity or break in a bone � caused by trauma or physical force
-
How are fractures classified?
- Amount of discontinuity
- Skin intregrity
- Angle of the break
- Alteration in alignment
-
Amount of discontinuity?
- Complete
- Incomplete or partial
-
What is complete ?
Broken into two separate places
-
What is incomplete or partial?
Broken incompletely
-
Skin integreity?
- Simple or closed
- Compound or open
-
What is simple or closed?
Doesn�t break thought the skin
-
What is compound or open?
Broken ends protrude thougth the skin
-
-
What is transverse?
At right angle to long axis
-
What is spiral?
Twisted apart
-
What is oblique?
At an angle (other then 90) across the bone
-
Alteration in alignment?
- Nondisplaced
- Displaced
- Comminuted
-
What is nondisplaced ?
Anatomical alignment preserved
-
What is displaced?
Anatomical alignment not preserved
-
What is comminuted?
Splintered at the sight of impact with fragments between two main pieces
-
Setting the fracture =?
Reduction
-
What does reduction mean in fracture resetting?
Making sure the bones are put in and held in proper alignment
-
What is closed reduction?
Without exposing the bones though surgery
-
What is open reduction?
Surgical exposure of bones to put back into alignment
-
Formation of a fracture hematoma?
Blood vessels at fracture site disrupted; blood accumulates as a fracture hematoma; with in 6-8 hours
-
Fibrocartilagenous callus formation involves?
- Capillaries regrow into the area
- Phagocytic cells clean-up
-
Periosteum and endosteum around the fracture site responds with:
- � Proliferation of fibroblasts
- � Differentiation of some fibroblasts into chondroblasts
- � Osteoblasts migrate into the fracture site
- � Mass of repair tissue = fibrocartilaginous callus (area with collage, cartilage and bone)
-
Proliferation of fibroblasts:
Forms a cellular tissue around the fracture and between the broken ends
-
Differentiation of some fibroblasts into chondroblasts:
Secrete cartilage matrix
-
Osteoblasts migrate into the fracture site:
Form spongy bone
-
Mass of repair tissue =
fibrocartilaginous callus (area with collage, cartilage and bone)
-
bony callus formation:
- 1. Osteoblasts in the more vascularized areas begin to form spongy bone
- 2. Trabeculae gradually fuse
- 3. Fibrocartilage is converted into spongy bone
-
Bone remodeling
- � Dead tissue is removed
- � Trabeculae are molded into compact bone
- � Original bone structure is restored
-
Epimysium
�outside the muscle� overcoat of dense irregular CT that surrounds the whole muscle. Deep fascia.
-
Endomysium
�within the muscle� sheet of CT that surrounds individual muscle fibers
-
Perimysium
Layer of fibrous CT that surrounds each fascicle
-
Fascicle
- A bundle of muscle fibers
- Sarcoplasm
- Cytoplasm of the muscle cell
-
Sarcoplasm reticulum
Endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cell
-
Sarcolemma
Plasma membrane of muscle cells
-
Myofibril
Rod like contractile elements that occupy most of the muscle cell volume. Composed of sarcomeres arranged end to end.
-
Sarcomere ?
- The smallest contractile unit
- Structural and functional unity of skeletal muscle
-
What is a striation?
Repeating series of light and dark bands
-
What are the dark bands called?
A-Bands
-
What are the light bands called ?
I-bands
-
The dark A band has a lighter region in its mid section called?
H zone
-
Each H zone is bisected vertically by a dark line called the?
M line
-
The Light I band has a midline, a darker area called the
Z disc or Z line
-
A sarcomere is a region of myofibril between what?
Two Z lines
-
Myofilaments are ?
Muscle equivalents of actin and myosin
-
The A band has what kind of myofilaments?
Think and thin
-
The I band only has what kind of myofilaments?
Thin
-
Titin or �elastic filament� is between
Z-line and M-line.
-
What is the function of titin?
May keep 3-d arrangement or may act in elastic recoil after being stretched
-
What is the name of the thin myofilament?
Actin
-
What kinds of acin is there?
- Globular and filamentous
- Two strands of globular subunits twisted together into a helix. Each subunit has a myosin binding site.
-
Tropomyosin � troponin complex is what? Describe shape.
A rod-shaped protein; two chains in a helix loosely attached to the Filamentis actin
-
What does tropomyosin help block?
Myosin site on actin
-
What is troponin?
Globular polypeptide complex with three subunits
-
What are the three subunits of troponin?
- Troponin T
- Troponin I
- Troponin C
-
What does troponin T do?
Bind to tropomyosin at regular intervals (TnT)
-
What does troponin I do?
Inhibitory subunit; blocks binding site on actin (TnI)
-
What does troponin C do?
Binds calcium (TnC)
-
What is the name of the think myofilament?
Myosin
-
Describe myosin.
- Rod-like tail of two polypeptide chains twister together into a helix
- Globular heads protrude from tails
-
Each myosin head has?
And ATP binding site and an Actin binding site.
-
Describe what is within a myofilament.
Within a thick myofilament, myosin molecules are arranged in parallel but staggered with tails in the central part of the myofilament and heads projecting outward at each end.
-
What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
- Modified smooth ER
- Network of membranous tubules that surround myofilaments
-
What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum consist of?
Terminal cisternae and sarcotubules
-
What is the job of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
To regulate the concentration of calcium within the sarcoplasm. It stores calcium when the muscle is relaxed and releases calcium in the initial steps of muscle contraction
-
Transverse Tubule (T tubule) is what?
- An invagination of the sarcolemma
- Can propogate an action poteniital in the cell
- Associated with the sarcoplasmic reticulum and forms a triad
-
What is a triad?
Terminal cisterna + T tubule + terminal cisterna
-
The summary of t tubules and sarcoplaamic reticulum Arrangment. Each sarcomere is associated with:
- � 2 t tubules (one at each AI band junction)
- � 4 terminal cisternae (2 around each t tubule)
- � 2 triads
-
What is an action potential?
Wave of negativity that propagates itself along the outside surface of an excitable membrane (muscle or nerve)
-
What does depolarized mean?
Outside goes from �+� to �-�
-
What does repolarized mean?
Outside goes back to �+� from �-�
-
Neuromuscular junction and motor unit. The muscle needs to be stimulated to contract the stimulus comes from the
Motor neurons
-
What is a motor unit?
- Motor neuron + all muscle cells that it innervates
- All muscle cells w/in a motor unit will all contract & relax together
-
Generation of a muscle contraction involves?
- � Interaction of actin and myosin (cross-bridge formation)
- � Energy source
-
When relaxed what does tropomyosin-troponin do?
It partially covers the myosin-biniding site on the actin.
-
When relaxed describe ATP concentrations
They are high and bound to the ATP-binding site on the myosin
-
When relaxed explain calcium ion concentrations
They are low in the sarcoplasm since they are being stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
When the action potential reaches the synaptic bulb what happens?
- Acetylcholine (A Ch) is released into the synaptic cleft
- And it binds to a receptor on the sarcolemma
-
What is the result of the the acetlcholine binding to a receptor on the sarcolemma?
- It alters the permiablity of the sarcolemma
- Depolarizes the sarcolemma
-
the action potential is propagated over the surface of the muscle fiber by the sarcolemma and into the muscle fiber by way of the
transverse tubule
-
Depolarization of the T tubule leads to what?
- Calcium ions released from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Which increases the calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm
- Once the calcium ion conc in the sarcoplasm is increased what happens next?
- Calcium ions and the myofilaments will now interact.
-
Calcium binds to the troponin C on the thin myofilaments this causes?
The tropomyosin-troponin complex to move and thus expose the myosin-binding sit on the actin
-
Simultaneous with the calcium/myofilament interaction, the myosin is being �energized�. When the action potential stimulated the muscle, a high energy form of
- Myosin(M*) is produced.
- M-ATP --?M* + ADP +Pi
-
When the myosin head is �energized�, it moves in an arc parallel to the long axis of the myofilament.
- Cross bridge formation; actin and myosin bind together
- A+M* ?A-M*
-
Energy stores in the �energized� myosin head is no discharged
- Powerstroke begins after the P is released, movement of the myosin head pulls the thin filament toward center of the sarcomere; ADP is released.
- A-M* ? A-M + powerstroke
-
Once the powerstroke is complete:
- � New ATP binds to the myosins ATP binding site
- o A-M + ATP ?A + M-ATP (cross bridge detachment)
- � �Cocking� of the myosin head
- o M-ATP ?M* + ADP + Pi(ADP and Pi remain attached)
- � Cycle now repeats itself farther down the myofibril
- o Sliding filament theory of muscle contraction
-
During contraction the I Band?
Decreases
-
During contration the A band?
Stay constant
-
During contraction the H Zone?
Decreases
-
During contraction the area of overlap?
Increases
-
During contraction the M line?
Decreases
-
During contraction the Z line ?
Constant but abuts thick myofilaments
-
During contraction the sarcomere?
Decreases
-
During contraction the muscle cell length ?
Decreases
-
During contraction the whole muscle?
Contracts
-
Events leading to relaxation?
- o Acetylcholine is destroyed by acetylcholineeastrease
- o No more nerve impulses to the scarolemma
- o Calcium ions are actively transoorted back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- o Restores the blocing action of the tropomyosin-troponin complex
- o ADP is resnthesized into ATP
- o ATP binds to the myosin head
- o Sarcomeres are returned to resting length
-
As the muscle relaxes the I band?
Increases
-
As the muscle relaxes the A band?
Is constant
-
As the muscle relaxes the H zone?
Increases
-
As the muscle relaxes the area of overlap ?
Decreases
-
As the muscle relaxes the M line?
Increases
-
As the muscle relaxes the Z line?
Is constant but no longer is next to the thick myofilaments
-
As the muscle relaxes the sarcomere?
Increases
-
As the muscle relaxes the cell length?
Increases
-
As the muscle relaxes the whole muscle?
Relaxes
-
Energy for contraction is?
Stored ATP = immediate, direct energy source
-
Pathway to get more ATP?
Direct phosphorlation of ADP by creatine phosphate (CP)
-
Creatine phosphate is a high energy molecule that is how mch more abundant then ATP in the stored muscle cell?
- 2-3 times
- Creatine phosphate + ADP (creatine kinase)-?creatine + ATP (no oxygen used)
- Quickly generates ATP
- Muscle contraction continues for about 10 more seconds
-
Another pathway to get more atp is anaerobic pathway involving glycolysis and lactic acid formation. Where does this happen?
- In the cytoplasm, no oxygen is used.
- Glucose in the blood goes to glycolysis which goes to ATP
- Glycogen --?glucose which goes to glycolysis which goes to pyruvic acid --?lactic acid
- Allows muscle to contact an additional 1-2 mins
- Good for intermediate length athletic activites that may need extra power
-
Anerobic pathway is about ____as fast as CP pathway and ___ times faster then aerobic pathway
-
Aerobic pathway (oxidative metabolism)
- Oxygen is required and it happens in the mitochondria
- Cellular foodstuffs (glucose, fatty acids, amino acids) + oxygen ?aerobic respiration ?lots of ATP+CO2 + water
- Adds hours of contraction
- Good for prolonged athletic events
-
All-or-none principle of Muscle Contraction
Once a threshold stimulus is applied, individual muscle fibers of motor units will contract to their fullest extenet or will not contract at all
-
Threshold stimulus ?
Weakest stimulus that can initiate a contraction
-
Sub threshold stimulus is?
Lesser intensity stimulus that alone cannot initate a contraction
-
A muscle as a whole structure may have �graded� contactions. There are many motor units in a muscle. If some motor units within that muscle are relaxed while others in that same muscle are contraction, then the muscle exhibits a ?
�graded� contraction
-
What is tension?
Force exerted on an object by the muscle
-
What is load?
Force exerted on a muscle by an object
-
Contraction is what?
An active process of generating a force within a muscle
-
How is a force generated?
By the sliding of the myofilaments
-
How is force exerted?
Parallel to the muscle fiber cell
-
Tension Vs. Load; To move an object?
Tension > load
-
Single twitch contraction � A twitch is?
A mechanical respoins of muscle fibers to a single action potential (threshold)
-
Experimental = In Vitro
Not in life = In Vivo
-
Single twitch contraction is recorded as a myogram. At time= 0, give a single threshold stimulus. What happens?
- Latent period = calcium is released
- Contraction period = repeated cross bridges and power strokes
- Relaxation period = calcium is back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Refractory period = lost irritability
-
Graded muscle response, variation in the degree of muscle contraction = graded contaction
- Change frequency of stimulation
- Change strength of stimulation
-
What happens if the frequency of stimulation increases?
Muscle contracts stronger (increase amount of tension/force)
-
Summation: adding together of individual muscle twitches to increase the intensity of the muscle contraction
-
Second stimulus given when the muscle is in a partially contracted state, what is going on?
- � Calcium is once again released into the sarcoplasm
- � Cross bridges can form;
- � Second tension �adds� onto the first
-
Incomplete tetanus (unfused tetanus). Describe.
- � Threshold stimulus
- � Constant strength
- � Rate is rapid
- � Partially relaxation �sustained but quivering� contraction on gross level
-
Complete tetanus (fused tetanus). Describe.
- � Threshold stiumuls
- � Constant strength
- � Rate is vary rapid
- � No relaxation
- � �smooth sustained contraction�
- � Plateau of maximum tension
-
Tetanus =
Smooth, sustained contraction produced by a series of vary rapid threshold stimuli; muscle�s maximal response to high frequency stimulation
-
Stimulus frequency for incomplete tetanus is less than that of
complete tetanus
-
Summation and tetanus occur because of:
The nature of the contractile process. The physical nature of muscles and its connective tissue structures.
-
With prolonged stimulation and continued strong contractions the muscle will fatigue. What is fatigue?
Fatigue = inability to continue contracting
-
What happens if strength of stimulation increases?
Recruitment (multiple motor units)
-
Threshold stimulus is the stimulus strength that produces the first observable muscle contraction.
Skeletal muscles contain many motor units and typically not all of the motor units are contracting or relaxing at the same time. Once a threshold stimulus is applied individual muscle fibers in a motor unit will contract to their fullest extent or not at all.
-
Skeletal muscles contain different types of muscle fibers (slow twitch red fibers, and fast twitch white) all muscles fibers within a motor unit are of
the same type
-
The number of activated motor units varies with stimulus strength (voltage). As the voltage of the stimulus increases, more and more motor units are activated until
a maximal stimulus is reached and a maximal contraction results
-
A weak threshold stimulus activates neurons with the
lowest threshold (more excitable neurons)
-
If increased stimulus to motor neurons, then more motor neurons with ___________ fire.
higher thresholds
-
A greater force of contraction occurs because more motor units are
contracting within that muscle
-
Low threshold motor neurons =
- fatigue-resistant, slow twitch fibers (slow twitch red fibers)=
- minimal force contraction
-
Medium threshold motor neurons =
- fatigue resistant, oxidative fast twitch fibers (fast twitch red fibers)
- =�medium� strength contraction
-
�high� threshold motor neuron =
- glycolytic fast-twitch fibers;
- fatigue quickly (fast twitch white fibers)=
- sustained, maximal contraction
-
As the stimulus intensity increases, larger motor units are recruited =
�size principle�
-
Asynchronous recruitment helps avoid
fatigue
-
Treppe:
- � Staircase phenomena of muscle contraction
- � Gradual increase in amount of contraction by a muscle caused by repeated threshold stimuli of the same strength
- � Muscle has been at rest for some time prior to the initial threshold stimulus and threshold stimulus are given after complete relaxation
- � Related to increased availability of calcium with addition contractions
- � �warm ups�
-
Muscle tone =
residual degree of contractility
-
Muscle tone
- � Muscles maintain a certain level of tautness
- � Muscle tone = residual degree of contractility
- � Constant, slightly contracts state
- � Due to a sustained partial contraction of some muscle parts
- � Alternatively activate some motor units while others are at rest
- � Tightens muscle w/o causing movement
- � Spinal reflexes & strengthens muscles *muscle spasm
- � Essential for maintain posture; keeps muscles firm and ready for action
-
Type of skeletal muscle fibers:
Two things to consider: myoglobin content & contraction velocities
-
Myoglobin �
- � reddish pigment
- � Similar to hemoglobin
- � Combines with oxygen and stores oxygen
-
Red muscle fibers (myoglobin content, capillary supply, and mitochondria)
- � Myoglobin content = high
- � Capillary supply = very rich
- � Mitochondria = abundant
-
White muscle fibers (myoglobin content, capillary supply, and mitochondria & other)
- � Myoglobin content = lower
- � Capillary supply = not as rich
- � Mitochondria = fewer
- � Other features = larger diameter; more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
Speed of contraction is related to?
related to ability to split ATP
-
Slow twitch fibers speed of contraction
� slowly splits ATP therefore slower contraction speed
-
Fast twitch fibers speed of contraction
� quickly splits ATP therefore faster contraction speed
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Color:
Red
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Myoglobin content:
High ammt
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Fiber diameter:
Small
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Mitochondria:
many
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Capillary supply:
many (rich)
- Slow twitch red fibers - Glycogen stores:
- low
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Speed of contraction:
slow
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Fatigue resistance:
high
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Location where fibers are abundant:
Erector spinae group; pectoral muscles of migratory birds
-
Slow twitch red fibers - Activities best suited for:
maintain posture and enduace activites; capable of continuous, vigorous activity
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Color:
Red/pink
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Myoglobin content:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Fiber diameter:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Mitochondria:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Capillary supply:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Glycogen stores:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Speed of contraction:
Fast
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Fatigue resistance:
intermediate
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Location where fibers are abundant:
leg muscles
-
Fast twitch red fibers - Activities best suited for:
sprinting and walking
-
Fast twitch white fibers �
fast glycolytic fibers � anaerobic � glycolysis
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Color: white/pale
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Myoglobin content:
low
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Fiber diameter:
large
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Mitochondria:
fewer
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Capillary supply:
fewer
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Glycogen stores:
high
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Speed of contraction:
fast
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Fatigue resistance:
low
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Location where fibers are abundant:
arm muscles, extraoculaar eye muscles; pectoral muscles of chicken and turkey
-
Fast twitch white fibers � Activities best suited for:
short bouts of very fast contractions
-
Most muscles have a mixture of muscle fibbers and this gives them a range of
contraction velocity and resistance to fatigue
-
All fibers in a single motor unit are of the
same type
-
Smooth muscle fiber characteristics - shape and nucleus location
Spindle-shaped cells with a centrally placed nucleus
-
Smooth muscle fiber characteristics. Are there striations and what does the sarcoplasm have?
- Not striated but the sarcoplasm does have thick and thick myofilamens that are arranged somewhat parallel to the long axis of the cell but not as orderly as in a skeletal muscle.
- Smooth muscle fiber characteristics - is there sarcomeres?
- No sarcomeres
-
Smooth muscle fiber characteristics - describe actin, and what it does from the smooth muscles.
- Greater actin overlap with myosin
- � Permits a greater degree of contraction in smooth muscles
- � Sliding filament theory
- What other filaments are present for Smooth muscle fiber characteristics. Describe what they are and where they attach.
- Intermediate filaments are also present
- a) Cytoskeleton elements
- b) Attach to dense bodies
- i) Structures that are similar to z-lines
-
Location of smooth muscles, and describe arrangement.
- 1) Walls of hallow organs � single layer or several layers
- 2) Arrector pili muscles � bundles
- 3) Walls of BV � layers
- 4) Iris of the eye � small groups
-
Contraction physiology of smooth muscles
- 1) Similar but slightly different then skeletal muscles
- 2) Role of calcium ions
- a) Regulates the contractile activity
- b) Excite contractions by activating the ATPase activity (myosin head)
- i) No effective troponin complex
- ii) Acts directly on myosin
- iii) ATPase ==?ATP breakdown + energy ==?contraction
-
Sources of calcium ions of smooth muscles � Dual
- 1) Some released from the poorly developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
- 2) Some enter the cell from the extracellular fluid
-
No T tubules � describe� smooth muscles
- 1) Cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum directly abut the sarcolemma
- 2) Membrane action potential is thought to cause the release of calcium ions from the cisternae
-
ATP Breakdown of smooth muscles
- 1) Much slower then in skeletal muscle
- a) Slows the overall speed of contraction � primarily anaerobic
-
Excitability of smooth muscles
- 1) Many smooth muscles cells undergo a continuous, low-level contractile activity without external stimuli which is called?
- a) Intrinsic rhythmicity
- b) Due to spontaneous activity in the cells
- c) Result of ion changes inside and outside the cell
- 2) Other causes of excitation
- a) Neurotransmitters fro the autonomic nervous system
- i) Epinephrine and norephrine � gut
- b) Hormones - oxytocin ?uetrus
- c) Rapid stretching � gut
- d) Local env changes � pH, oxygen, ions�
-
Two types of smooth muscle tissue arrangement
- 1) Single unit smooth muscle
- a) Stimulation in one cell spreads in waves to the other cells
- b) Synchronous activity
- i) Entire muscle responds as a single unit
- ii) Contract in sequence as impulses spread from cell to cell
- (1) Example:
- (a) Uterine smooth muscle; intestinal tract smooth muscle; small diameter blood vessels
- 2) Multiple unit smooth muscle
- a) Individual smooth muscle cells are innervates
- b) If stimulate a multiunit fiber; only that fiber contracts � no spread of inpulses
- i) Examples:
- (1) Large airways of the lungs; larger arteries; arrector pili; edge of iris
-
Cardiac Muscle
- 1) Principle constituent of the heart wall � myocardium
- 2) Fibers - �cells�
- a) Striated
- i) Sarcomeres are present
- b) Single central nucleus
- c) More sarcoplasm with more and larger mitochondria
- d) Larger T tubules at z lines
- e) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is less developed that in skeletal muscles
- f) Diads � not triads
- g) Fibers are branched to form a functional syncytium
- i) Mass of tissue that functions as a unit
- h) Individual cells are separated from each other by irregular thickenings of the sarcolemma called Intercalated Discs - I.D.
- i) Strengthens muscle tissue
- ii) Aids in impulse conduction
-
3) Contractions
- a) Moderate in speed and are rhythmical
- b) Can occur intrinsically
-
4)Physiological differences between cardiac and skeletal muscles
- a)Cardiac muscles require a constant oxygen supply - aerobic
- b)Autorhythmicity
- c)Calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the extracellular fluid - dual source
- i)Contractions are prolonged
- d)Long refractory period
- i)Can relax between beats and therefore avoids tetanus and death
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