Exam practice Q's

  1. antigenic drift involves small/large changes in the viron structure. Which size change?
  2. antigentic shift occurs because of mutation/aquisition of new genes. which is it?
    aquisition of new genes
  3. which one need's a co-infection to occur, antigenic drift of shift?
  4. which of the following is NOT considered a function of antibody?

    B. They can produce toxins and directly kill bacteria
  5. what type of immunity is produced by the body when a person recieves a vaccine?

    C. artificially acquired immunity
  6. what type of immunity is produced by the body when an infant recieves breastmilk?

    B. naturally required passive immunity
  7. what type of immunity is produced by the body when a prson recieves anti-toxin?

    C. artificially aquired passive immunity
  8. the humoral immune response is attributed action of?

    B. B cells
  9. Antigens are?
    specific molecules that the body recognizes as foreign
  10. pyrogens stimulate which of the following processes?

    A. fever
  11. which of the following is a type of phagocytic cell?

    A. neutrophil
  12. which cell leaves the blood stream to become a macrophage?

    C. monocyte
  13. which of the following cells increase in # during a helminth infection?

    C. eosiniphils
  14. is antibodies specific or nonspecific?
  15. is memory specific or non-specific?
  16. is plasma cells specific or non-specific?
  17. is lymphocytes specific or non-specific?
  18. is lysozyme specific or non-specific?
  19. is immediate specific or non-specific?
  20. is T helper cell's specific or non-specific?
  21. is skin specific or non-specific?
  22. is mucous membranes specific or non-specific?
  23. is a fever specific or non-specific?
  24. where is the lymphatic system found?
    throguh-out the body
  25. what is the function of dendritic cells?
    to grab bacteria (antigens) and present it to the immune cells.
  26. what are the 4 or 5 steps of phagocytosis?
    • 1.) chemotaxis
    • 2.) adherence
    • 3.) ingestion
    • 4.) digestion
    • 5.) excretion
  27. tell me the key words associated with the malaria cycle
    • 1.) sporognoic
    • 2.) injection
    • 3.) schizogony
    • 4.) exoerytherocytic
    • 5.)blood destruction
    • 6.) meroziotes
  28. whats the hallmark sign of malaria & why phisiologically does it occur?
    fever due to erythocytic phase of the malaria cycle
  29. viral infections can be any of the following except?

    B. temporary
  30. acute infections are represented by?
    rapid production of virus and rapid resolution of infection by host defense
  31. a person who is asymptomatic for viral infection is...
    infected but shows no symptoms of the infection
  32. cytotoic T cells can be killed by?
    fas molecules on the infected host cell
  33. what are the chacteristics of latent infections?
    • absense of a productive infection
    • reduced or absent immune response
    • viral genome remains intact
    • no large-scale production of virus
  34. latent viruses can integrate into
    the host chromosome
  35. what helps to determine viral pathogenesis?
    • ability of the infection to kill cells
    • interactions of the virus w/ the target cells
    • the host response to infection
  36. what is most improtant for a viral infection to occur?
    permissive host cell
  37. when a virus is released from the basement membrane of a host cell it will
    cause systemic infection
  38. iatrogenic transmission of virus is caused by?
    health care workers
  39. viral vaccines are usually composed of?
    non-virulent virus & attenuated virus
  40. waht are some things that can affect virulence of a virus?
    • route of infection
    • age of the host
    • sex ofthe host
    • ability of the virus to replicate
  41. the vaccine taht is most potentially dangerous contains?
    live attenuated virus
  42. what are the requirement s for an effective vaccine?
    • must be safe
    • must iduce a protective response
    • must be stable
    • inexpensive
  43. protozan parasites are?
  44. plasmodium falciparum is the most ___ of the malaria causing
  45. what do flagellates do?
    invade the blood and cause chronic illness
  46. protozoan parasites can be...
    • aerobic
    • faculative anaerobic
    • heterotrophic
  47. the body of a worm is covered by?
  48. what type of worm is a nematode?
  49. what type of worm is a tramatode?
  50. the severity of a helminth infection is directly related to?
    the # of worms that are present
  51. the organism that causes malaria is transmitted by?
    the bite of mosquito
  52. the intermediate host for plasmodium species is?
    a human
  53. merozoites of plasmodium are found in?
    human hepatocytes
  54. transmission of helminthic disease to human is usually by?
    gastrointestinal route
  55. what do tapeworms eat?
    intestinal contents
  56. Ringworm is caused by?
  57. what does mycology mean?
    study of fungi
  58. fungal plasma membranes cotnain?
  59. fungal cell walls contain?
    mannon & glucan
  60. the branching structures seen in fungi are called?
  61. succesful host defense against fungal infection are?
    a combonation of phagocytosis & the production of antibody, and T cell response
  62. the most commonly seen yeast infections are caused by?
    candida albicans
  63. what are non-specifc defenses?
    body's defense against any kind of pathogen
  64. the innate response includes all of the following except?

    E. production of antibody
  65. which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to protect the skin & mucous membranes from infection?

    C. gastric juices
  66. what is the purpose of the mucocillary escalator?
    to remove microorganisms fromthe lower respiratory tract
  67. what do tears cotnain?
    • lipocalin
    • lysozme
    • IgA
  68. persipiration inhibits bacteria because?
    it flushes them away & contains lysozyme
  69. toll-like receptors are responsible for all of the following except.

    A. recongition of host cell DNA
  70. what cells are involved in the innate response?
    • neutrophils
    • eosinophils
    • basophils
    • monocyes
  71. define diapedesis
    neutrophils attatch to the vascular linings & move out of the blood & into the tissues
  72. margination is the process in which WBCs...
    slow down, stop, and attach to vessel walls
  73. the primary phagocytes in the blood are?
  74. the most phagocytic WBCs are?
  75. what are the characteristics of cytokines?
    • regulate infalmatory response
    • secreted from WBCs
    • reaction w/ specific receptros on target cells
    • having overlapping function w/ other cytokines
  76. what mediators are released by mast cells?
    • histamine
    • serotonin
    • cytokines
    • proteases
  77. dendritic cells found in the skin are called?
    langerhans cells
  78. NKC's are involved in..
    survelliance & response to pathogens
  79. phagolysomes are formed during which phase of phagocytosis?
  80. the complement system is activated by...
    alternative pathway & lectin-binding pathway
  81. the classical pathway for activation of the complement system requires?
    antigen-antibody complexes
  82. gamma interferon is produced by?
    T lymphocytes and NKC's
  83. the antibody response is part of the?
    humoral response
  84. specifity is seen in each of the following except

    D. innate
  85. adaptive response relies upon distinguishing
    self from non-self antigens
  86. presentation of antigen is done by?
    macrophages and dendrtic cells
  87. antibody is produced by?
    plasma cells
  88. T cells mature in the?
  89. B cells mature in?
    bone marrow
  90. there are two classes of T cells called
    cytotoxic T and helper T cells
  91. clonal selection invovles of the following except

    A. reversible genetic rearrangements
  92. The thymus becomes filled w/ activated T cells when?
    puberty is reached
  93. antibody generally recognizes a specific
  94. the antibody that is found in colostrum (mothers milk) is?
  95. T cells that have not been presented w/ antigen are reffered to as?
  96. immunological memory
    • allows protection on re-exposure to a previous pathogen
    • is associate d w/ both T and B cells
    • is the responsibilty of long-lived T cells
    • is the responsibily of bone marrow B cells
  97. all of the following are examples of features of the immune response except

    A. inflamation
  98. HIV makes its entry form all of the following except

    D. respiratory
  99. the number of T cells drops bellow 200/cubic millimeter in which pahse of HIV infection?
    symptomatic phase
  100. major mode of HIV transmission is?
    sexual transmission
  101. intial symptom of HIV infection is?
  102. antigenic variation is caused by?
  103. latency is most often seen in?
    viral infections
  104. defects in antibody production can result in?
    frequent infection w/ capsulated bacteria
  105. which of the following immunoglobin molecules is associate w/ hypersensitivity and allergy?
  106. which cells are most prominently involved in hypersensitivity reactions?
    mast cells
  107. whcih of the following best describe the pattern of microbial death?

    E. the cells in a pop die at a constant rate
  108. bacterial death will result from damage of what structures?
    • plasma membrane
    • proteins
    • nucleic acid
    • cell wall
  109. sterilization involves?
    removal of all microbes and spores
  110. which factors affect the rate of bacterial cell death?
    • # organisms present
    • time of exposure
    • environment
    • endospose formation
  111. cidal/stasis of disenctant can be determined by?
    dilution method
  112. effectiveness of chemical disinfectants varies w/?
    • length of exposure
    • temperature
    • presence of organic material
    • ability to form endospore
  113. which of the following substances is the least effective antimicrobial agent?

    B. soap
  114. which of the following is unaffected by alcohol?

    A. endospores
  115. pasturization kills?
    only pathogens
  116. which of the following can sterilize?

    D. autoclaving
Card Set
Exam practice Q's
chapters 14-18 questions