1. 1. Most of the water of the hydrosphere

    a. was outgassed from the
    earth’s interior early in its history.

    b. is brought up from the mantle
    by volcanic activity.

    c. is being constantly created
    by chemical reactions occurring in the earth’s crust.

    d. is produced in the
  2. 2. The largest single reservoir in the hydrologic cycle is

    a. ground water.

    b. the atmosphere.

    c. the oceans.

    d. the polar ice caps.
  3. 3. All of the following processes add water to the atmosphere

    a. volcanic outgassing.

    b. transpiration from plants.

    c. evaporation.

    d. infiltration.
  4. 4. The geographic region from which a stream draws water is
    called its

    a. aquifer.

    b. drainage basin.

    c. recharge basin.

    d. reservoir.
  5. 5. The size of a stream may be described
    by its

    a. capacity.

    b. discharge.

    c. load.

    d. channel cross section.
  6. 6. The process of sediment transport in
    which particles move in short hops or jumps is called

    a. vaulting.

    b. meandering.

    c. saltation.

    d. skipping.
  7. 7. The lowest elevation to which a stream
    can erode its channel is called its

    a. terminal gradient.

    b. mouth.

    c. bed elevation.

    d. base level.
  8. 8. In temperate climates, as stream gradient decreases from
    source to mouth,

    a. sediment particle sizes

    b. total capacity decreases.

    c. total velocity decreases.

    d. total
    discharge increases
  9. 9. In the development of stream meanders, channel erosion is

    a. on the inside of curves.

    b. at the outside of curves on
    the upstream side.

    c. at the outside of curves on
    the downstream side.

    d. along the stream segments
    between meanders.
  10. 10. Meander cutoffs are called

    a. oxbows.

    b. levees.

    c. floodplains.

    d. retention ponds.
  11. 11. Compared to upstream floods, downstream

    a. are typically of brief

    b. are often the result of
    prolonged heavy rains over broad areas.

    c. affect only small, localized

    d. are caused by sudden, locally
    intense rainstorms.
  12. 12. On a hydrograph, an upstream flood
    appears as a

    a. gently upward sloping line.

    b. shallow dip.

    c. low, broad peak.

    d. high, sharp peak.
  13. 13. A flood-frequency curve for a certain
    stream indicates a recurrence interval of 12.5 years for a discharge of 400
    cubic feet/second. The probability
    of occurrence for a flood of this size for this stream would be

    a. 0.25%.

    b. 8%.

    c. 12.5%.

    d. 32%.
  14. 14. Most human activities tend to

    a. decrease the recurrence
    intervals of high-discharge events.

    b. increase the recurrence
    intervals of high-discharge events.

    c. not alter the recurrence
    intervals of high-discharge events.

    d. eliminate high-discharge
  15. 15. A disadvantage of both channelization
    and levees as methods for reducing flood hazards is

    a. the potential of trapping
    water outside the stream channel.

    b. the increased risk of
    downstream flooding.

    c. the restriction of navigation.

    d. the
    prevention of surface runoff from reaching the stream.
  16. 16. Which of the following is not a problem
    associated with flood control dams?

    a. displacement of
    people living in the area that will become inundated

    b. silting of the

    c. generation of

    d. impact on aquatic
  17. 1. Census data for the
    United States taken since 1940 show that the density of population in coastal
    counties is

    a. about the same as that in
    interior counties.

    b. slightly higher than that
    in interior counties.

    c. much higher than that in
    interior counties.

    d. lower than that in interior
  18. 2.
    The water molecules in a wave move

    a. in the same direction as the

    b. opposite
    to the direction of the wave.

    c. perpendicular to the
    direction of the wave and parallel to the shore.

    d. in circular orbits beneath
    the water surface.
  19. 3.
    The fjords of Scandinavian countries represent

    a. wave-cut platforms.

    b. ancient berms.

    c. sea cliffs.

    d. drowned
  20. 4.
    Construction of a breakwater can cause shoreline erosion

    a. down-current of the

    b. up-current of the breakwater.

    c. on the seaward side of the

    d. directly along the shore
    behind the breakwater.
  21. 5. The construction of the Galveston
    seawall has resulted in

    a. a reduced number of
    hurricanes in the Galveston area.

    b. the creation of longshore
    currents along the Galveston section of the Gulf Coast.

    c. loss of sandy beach in front
    of the seawall.

    d. decreased erosion along the
  22. 6. Coral reef communities off Waikiki
    Beach, Hawaii and off Miami Beach, Florida have been killed because of

    a. interference with
    sediment-laden waters due to the construction of breakwaters and marinas.

    b. the lowering of sea level due
    to tectonic processes.

    c. increased turbidity induced
    by beach-replenishment efforts.

    d. the loss of protective
    offshore barrier islands.
  23. 7. All of the following structures are
    used to stabilize shorelines except

    a. seawalls.

    b. jetties.

    c. wave-cut platforms.

    d. breakwaters.
  24. 8.
    The Zuider Zee in the Netherlands is an example of a

    a. drowned valley.

    b. partially filled estuary.

    c. steep-walled fjord.

    d. barrier island.
  25. 9.
    A probable cause of coastal erosion in the United States is

    a. the melting of polar ice.

    b. an increase in the number of
    hurricanes striking the United States coastline.

    c. the tectonic subsidence of
    much of the United States.

    d. the loss of barrier islands.
  26. 10. Unusually high tides associated with
    storms and strong onshore winds are called

    a. tsunamis.

    b. neap tides.

    c. flood tides.

    d. storm surges.
  27. 11. The best solution to the problems
    caused by the development of coastal areas is to

    a. construct breakwaters,
    groins, and other structures to stabilize eroding shorelines.

    b. maintain beaches by
    replenishing the sand.

    c. move buildings and highways
    farther inland as beaches erode.

    d. restrict the development of
    coastal areas.
  28. 12. In 1987, Hurricane Emily had maximum
    wind speed of 127 miles per hour.
    At the height of her fury, Hurricane Emily was a category ____________
    storm on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Scale.

    a. 2

    b. 3

    c. 4

    d. 5
  29. 13. In the United States, the risk of
    tsunamis is greatest for those states bordering the

    a. Great Lakes.

    b. Gulf of Mexico.

    c. Atlantic Ocean.

    d. Pacific Ocean.
  30. 14. Water levels in the Great Lakes

    a. have steadily increased since

    b. have declined rapidly for the
    past twenty years.

    c. fluctuate for a variety of

    d. have remained basically
    unchanged since the end of the Ice Age.
  31. 15. Most of the environmental problems
    associated with some estuaries have been caused by

    a. the daily
    cycles of rise and fall of the water level in the estuary due to tides.

    b. changes in the water
    chemistry due to pollution.

    c. a lack of
    adequate rain or snow in the surrounding region.

    d. excessive
    recreational fishing.
  32. 16. Barrier islands are particularly
    vulnerable to the fury of storm events because

    a. nature
    knows that the people living in these islands are rich and so can absorb the

    b. most
    barrier islands have a low relief to the sea level.

    c. we
    do not have enough money to build protective structures.

    d. tides
    tend to be higher around barrier islands.
  33. 1. Mass movements occur when

    a. the shearing stress on the material exceeds its
    frictional resistance (or shear strength) .

    b. the frictional resistance (shear strength) of
    the material exceeds its shearing stress.

    c. the angle of repose for the material reaches a

    d. geological materials are affected by the
    downward pull of gravity, regardless of their shear strength.
  34. 2. All else being equal, as slope
    steepness increases, the shearing stress of a material

    a. steadily decreases.

    b. steadily increases.

    c. first increases, then decreases.

    d. remains unchanged.
  35. 3. The rockslide that buried the town of Goldan,
    Switzerland in 1806 was probably caused by

    a. an earthquake.

    b. the steepness of slopes due to tectonic

    c. frost heaving.

    d. lubrication by water along bedding planes in
    layered rock.
  36. 4. Of the states listed, the one having
    the lowest overall landslide potential is

    a. West Virginia.

    b. Mississippi.

    c. California.

    d. North Dakota.
  37. 5. Which of the following materials would
    likely have the greatest angle of repose?

    a. a pile of marbles

    b. a pile of ball bearings

    c. a pile of apples

    d. a pile of concrete blocks
  38. 6. Which of the following conditions would
    be least likely to cause mass movements on a steep slope?

    a. removal of vegetation

    b. heavy rainfall

    c. reduction in pore pressure

    d. an earthquake
  39. 7. Quick clays

    a. are most commonly found in equatorial regions.

    b. are formed from weathered volcanic ash.

    c. are resistant to disturbance by seismic waves.

    d. consist of very fine particles held together by
    salty pore water.
  40. 8. The Vaiont Reservoir disaster was caused

    a. an earthquake.

    b. a landslide.

    c. undermining of the dam due to the presence of
    solution cavities in the bedrock.

    d. a
    poorly designed spillway
  41. 9. Soil creep is often triggered by

    a. earthquakes.

    b. frost heaving.

    c. the weight of surface vegetation.

    d. reduction in soil moisture.
  42. 10. The rate of motion of a landslide is
    commonly related to

    a. the weight of the material.

    b. the proportion of moisture within the material.

    c. the distance the material travels.

    d. the chemical composition of the material.
  43. 11. Scarp formation is often associated with

    a. slumps.

    b. rockslides.

    c. creep.

    d. rockfalls.
  44. 12. Snow avalanches, debris avalanches, and
    volcanic lahars are all examples of

    a. flows.

    b. slides.

    c. slumps.

    d. falls.
  45. 13. A flow involving a wide variety of
    materials is called

    a. a landslide.

    b. an earthslide.

    c. a debris avalanche.

    d. a pyroclastic flow.
  46. 14. Reducing the risk of a landslide on an
    unstable, steep slope can be accomplished by all of the following except

    a. reduction of slope angle.

    b. placement of additional supporting material at
    the base of the slope.

    c. reduction of slope load by the removal of
    material high on the slope.

    d. increasing
    the moisture content of the slope material
  47. 15. Signs of creep include all of the following except

    a. accumulation of talus at the base of the slope.

    b. curved or tilted tree trunks.

    c. cracks in the ground surface parallel to the

    d. slanted utility poles.
  48. 16. The possibility of mass wasting should
    be investigated on a site

    a. with more than a 15% slope.

    b. with much steeper slopes above or below it.

    c. in an area where landslides have occurred in
    the past.

    d. All of the above are correct.
  49. 1. The most extensive glaciers in the
    United States are found in

    a. Washington.

    b. Alaska.

    c. Wyoming.

    d. Montana.
  50. 2. The Antarctic ice sheet is an example
    of a/an

    a. alpine glacier.

    b. mountain glacier.

    c. continental glacier.

    d. valley
  51. 3. The formation of icebergs as the
    advancing edge of a glacier flows out over water is called

    a. calving.

    b. ablation.

    c. abrasion.

    d. plucking.
  52. 4. The landform that marks the farthest
    advance of a glacier is called

    a. an end moraine.

    b. a terminal moraine.

    c. a drift moraine.

    d. a boundary moraine.
  53. 5. Winds originate mainly in response to

    a. pressure differences in the atmosphere.

    b. the earth’s rotation.

    c. the evaporation of the world's oceans.

    d. alternating periods of day and night.
  54. 6. Ventifacts are formed by near-surface

    a. deflation.

    b. ablation.

    c. abrasion.

    d. drift.
  55. 7. Desert pavement

    a. is a hard surface of sun-baked clay that forms
    in desert areas.

    b. is formed of sand grains cemented together by
    calcium carbonate.

    c. consists of rocks that are resistant to the
    effects of wind erosion and surface runoff.

    d. is a layer of windblown sand overlying coarser
  56. 8. Which of the following conditions did
    not contribute to the Dust Bowl of the 1930s?

    a. overgrazing by livestock

    b. drought

    c. removal of native vegetation

    d. change in direction of the prevailing wind
  57. 9. The slip face of a migrating dune faces
    the southeast if the wind blows steadily from the

    a. southeast.

    b. southwest.

    c. northeast.

    d. northwest.
  58. 10. The loess that covers parts of the
    central United States

    a. was deposited by glacial melt water.

    b. was deposited during the Dust Bowl era.

    c. is an accumulation of windblown silt from the
    nation’s desert areas.

    d. is of volcanic origin.
  59. 11. Extremely arid lands or deserts cover percent of the world’s total land

    a. 4

    b. 7

    c. 11

    d. 30
  60. 12. All of the following are possible
    consequences of desertification except

    a. erosion.

    b. drought.

    c. loss of soil fertility.

    d. loss of soil structural quality.
  61. 13. The division of geologic time commonly
    called the Ice Age is the

    a. Pliocene Epoch.

    b. Miocene Epoch.

    c. Holocene Epoch.

    d. Pleistocene Epoch.
  62. 14. Evidence indicates that

    a. the earth has experienced a single Ice Age that
    ended about 10,000 years ago.

    b. ice ages are relatively recent events in
    earth's history.

    c. there have been at least six ice ages going
    back a billion years or more.

    d. the first Ice Age began with the breakup of
    Pangaea about 200 million years ago.
  63. 15. Atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide
    have risen primarily because of

    a. the use of chlorofluorocarbons.

    b. rising global temperatures.

    c. the explosive eruptions of large volcanoes.

    d. the burning of carbon-rich fuels.
  64. 16.
    Since the beginning of the Industrial Age, the amount of atmospheric
    carbon dioxide has increased about ____ percent.

    a. 6

    b. 15

    c. 25

    d. 50
  65. 17. If all the earth’s ice caps melted, sea
    levels could rise by as much as ____ meters.

    a. 4

    b. 23

    c. 75

    d. 250
  66. 18. Which of the following gases absorbs
    infrared radiation and thus enhances the greenhouse effect?

    a. carbon dioxide

    b. methane

    c. nitrous oxide

    d. All of the above are correct.
  67. 19. During the “Little Ice Age”

    a. glaciers covered much of northern North

    b. severe droughts occurred in many parts of the

    c. sea levels were significantly lower than they
    are today.

    d. winters in North America were actually warmer
    than those of today.
  68. 20. The suppression of deep, cold,
    upwelling ocean currents off the west coast of South America results in the
    event known as

    a. La Jornada.

    b. El Diablo.

    c. El Chichón.

    d. El Niño.
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