-
1. Most of the water of the hydrosphere
a. was outgassed from the
earth’s interior early in its history.
b. is brought up from the mantle
by volcanic activity.
c. is being constantly created
by chemical reactions occurring in the earth’s crust.
d. is produced in the
atmosphere.
a
-
2. The largest single reservoir in the hydrologic cycle is
a. ground water.
b. the atmosphere.
c. the oceans.
d. the polar ice caps.
c
-
3. All of the following processes add water to the atmosphere
except
a. volcanic outgassing.
b. transpiration from plants.
c. evaporation.
d. infiltration.
d
-
4. The geographic region from which a stream draws water is
called its
a. aquifer.
b. drainage basin.
c. recharge basin.
d. reservoir.
b
-
5. The size of a stream may be described
by its
a. capacity.
b. discharge.
c. load.
d. channel cross section.
b
-
6. The process of sediment transport in
which particles move in short hops or jumps is called
a. vaulting.
b. meandering.
c. saltation.
d. skipping.
c
-
7. The lowest elevation to which a stream
can erode its channel is called its
a. terminal gradient.
b. mouth.
c. bed elevation.
d. base level.
d
-
8. In temperate climates, as stream gradient decreases from
source to mouth,
a. sediment particle sizes
increase.
b. total capacity decreases.
c. total velocity decreases.
d. total
discharge increases
d
-
9. In the development of stream meanders, channel erosion is
greatest
a. on the inside of curves.
b. at the outside of curves on
the upstream side.
c. at the outside of curves on
the downstream side.
d. along the stream segments
between meanders.
c
-
10. Meander cutoffs are called
a. oxbows.
b. levees.
c. floodplains.
d. retention ponds.
a
-
11. Compared to upstream floods, downstream
floods
a. are typically of brief
duration.
b. are often the result of
prolonged heavy rains over broad areas.
c. affect only small, localized
areas.
d. are caused by sudden, locally
intense rainstorms.
b
-
12. On a hydrograph, an upstream flood
appears as a
a. gently upward sloping line.
b. shallow dip.
c. low, broad peak.
d. high, sharp peak.
d
-
13. A flood-frequency curve for a certain
stream indicates a recurrence interval of 12.5 years for a discharge of 400
cubic feet/second. The probability
of occurrence for a flood of this size for this stream would be
a. 0.25%.
b. 8%.
c. 12.5%.
d. 32%.
b
-
14. Most human activities tend to
a. decrease the recurrence
intervals of high-discharge events.
b. increase the recurrence
intervals of high-discharge events.
c. not alter the recurrence
intervals of high-discharge events.
d. eliminate high-discharge
events.
a
-
15. A disadvantage of both channelization
and levees as methods for reducing flood hazards is
a. the potential of trapping
water outside the stream channel.
b. the increased risk of
downstream flooding.
c. the restriction of navigation.
d. the
prevention of surface runoff from reaching the stream.
b
-
16. Which of the following is not a problem
associated with flood control dams?
a. displacement of
people living in the area that will become inundated
b. silting of the
reservoir
c. generation of
hydroelectricity
d. impact on aquatic
life
c
-
1. Census data for the
United States taken since 1940 show that the density of population in coastal
counties is
a. about the same as that in
interior counties.
b. slightly higher than that
in interior counties.
c. much higher than that in
interior counties.
d. lower than that in interior
counties.
c
-
2.
The water molecules in a wave move
a. in the same direction as the
wave.
b. opposite
to the direction of the wave.
c. perpendicular to the
direction of the wave and parallel to the shore.
d. in circular orbits beneath
the water surface.
d
-
3.
The fjords of Scandinavian countries represent
a. wave-cut platforms.
b. ancient berms.
c. sea cliffs.
d. drowned
valleys.
d
-
4.
Construction of a breakwater can cause shoreline erosion
a. down-current of the
breakwater.
b. up-current of the breakwater.
c. on the seaward side of the
breakwater.
d. directly along the shore
behind the breakwater.
a
-
5. The construction of the Galveston
seawall has resulted in
a. a reduced number of
hurricanes in the Galveston area.
b. the creation of longshore
currents along the Galveston section of the Gulf Coast.
c. loss of sandy beach in front
of the seawall.
d. decreased erosion along the
seawall.
c
-
6. Coral reef communities off Waikiki
Beach, Hawaii and off Miami Beach, Florida have been killed because of
a. interference with
sediment-laden waters due to the construction of breakwaters and marinas.
b. the lowering of sea level due
to tectonic processes.
c. increased turbidity induced
by beach-replenishment efforts.
d. the loss of protective
offshore barrier islands.
c
-
7. All of the following structures are
used to stabilize shorelines except
a. seawalls.
b. jetties.
c. wave-cut platforms.
d. breakwaters.
c
-
8.
The Zuider Zee in the Netherlands is an example of a
a. drowned valley.
b. partially filled estuary.
c. steep-walled fjord.
d. barrier island.
b
-
9.
A probable cause of coastal erosion in the United States is
a. the melting of polar ice.
b. an increase in the number of
hurricanes striking the United States coastline.
c. the tectonic subsidence of
much of the United States.
d. the loss of barrier islands.
a
-
10. Unusually high tides associated with
storms and strong onshore winds are called
a. tsunamis.
b. neap tides.
c. flood tides.
d. storm surges.
d
-
11. The best solution to the problems
caused by the development of coastal areas is to
a. construct breakwaters,
groins, and other structures to stabilize eroding shorelines.
b. maintain beaches by
replenishing the sand.
c. move buildings and highways
farther inland as beaches erode.
d. restrict the development of
coastal areas.
d
-
12. In 1987, Hurricane Emily had maximum
wind speed of 127 miles per hour.
At the height of her fury, Hurricane Emily was a category ____________
storm on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Scale.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
b
-
13. In the United States, the risk of
tsunamis is greatest for those states bordering the
a. Great Lakes.
b. Gulf of Mexico.
c. Atlantic Ocean.
d. Pacific Ocean.
d
-
14. Water levels in the Great Lakes
a. have steadily increased since
1987.
b. have declined rapidly for the
past twenty years.
c. fluctuate for a variety of
reasons.
d. have remained basically
unchanged since the end of the Ice Age.
c
-
15. Most of the environmental problems
associated with some estuaries have been caused by
a. the daily
cycles of rise and fall of the water level in the estuary due to tides.
b. changes in the water
chemistry due to pollution.
c. a lack of
adequate rain or snow in the surrounding region.
d. excessive
recreational fishing.
b
-
16. Barrier islands are particularly
vulnerable to the fury of storm events because
a. nature
knows that the people living in these islands are rich and so can absorb the
damage.
b. most
barrier islands have a low relief to the sea level.
c. we
do not have enough money to build protective structures.
d. tides
tend to be higher around barrier islands.
b
-
1. Mass movements occur when
a. the shearing stress on the material exceeds its
frictional resistance (or shear strength) .
b. the frictional resistance (shear strength) of
the material exceeds its shearing stress.
c. the angle of repose for the material reaches a
maximum.
d. geological materials are affected by the
downward pull of gravity, regardless of their shear strength.
a
-
2. All else being equal, as slope
steepness increases, the shearing stress of a material
a. steadily decreases.
b. steadily increases.
c. first increases, then decreases.
d. remains unchanged.
b
-
3. The rockslide that buried the town of Goldan,
Switzerland in 1806 was probably caused by
a. an earthquake.
b. the steepness of slopes due to tectonic
movements.
c. frost heaving.
d. lubrication by water along bedding planes in
layered rock.
b
-
4. Of the states listed, the one having
the lowest overall landslide potential is
a. West Virginia.
b. Mississippi.
c. California.
d. North Dakota.
d
-
5. Which of the following materials would
likely have the greatest angle of repose?
a. a pile of marbles
b. a pile of ball bearings
c. a pile of apples
d. a pile of concrete blocks
d
-
6. Which of the following conditions would
be least likely to cause mass movements on a steep slope?
a. removal of vegetation
b. heavy rainfall
c. reduction in pore pressure
d. an earthquake
c
-
7. Quick clays
a. are most commonly found in equatorial regions.
b. are formed from weathered volcanic ash.
c. are resistant to disturbance by seismic waves.
d. consist of very fine particles held together by
salty pore water.
d
-
8. The Vaiont Reservoir disaster was caused
by
a. an earthquake.
b. a landslide.
c. undermining of the dam due to the presence of
solution cavities in the bedrock.
d. a
poorly designed spillway
b
-
9. Soil creep is often triggered by
a. earthquakes.
b. frost heaving.
c. the weight of surface vegetation.
d. reduction in soil moisture.
b
-
10. The rate of motion of a landslide is
commonly related to
a. the weight of the material.
b. the proportion of moisture within the material.
c. the distance the material travels.
d. the chemical composition of the material.
b
-
11. Scarp formation is often associated with
a. slumps.
b. rockslides.
c. creep.
d. rockfalls.
a
-
12. Snow avalanches, debris avalanches, and
volcanic lahars are all examples of
a. flows.
b. slides.
c. slumps.
d. falls.
a
-
13. A flow involving a wide variety of
materials is called
a. a landslide.
b. an earthslide.
c. a debris avalanche.
d. a pyroclastic flow.
c
-
14. Reducing the risk of a landslide on an
unstable, steep slope can be accomplished by all of the following except
a. reduction of slope angle.
b. placement of additional supporting material at
the base of the slope.
c. reduction of slope load by the removal of
material high on the slope.
d. increasing
the moisture content of the slope material
d
-
15. Signs of creep include all of the following except
a. accumulation of talus at the base of the slope.
b. curved or tilted tree trunks.
c. cracks in the ground surface parallel to the
slope.
d. slanted utility poles.
a
-
16. The possibility of mass wasting should
be investigated on a site
a. with more than a 15% slope.
b. with much steeper slopes above or below it.
c. in an area where landslides have occurred in
the past.
d. All of the above are correct.
d
-
1. The most extensive glaciers in the
United States are found in
a. Washington.
b. Alaska.
c. Wyoming.
d. Montana.
c
-
2. The Antarctic ice sheet is an example
of a/an
a. alpine glacier.
b. mountain glacier.
c. continental glacier.
d. valley
glacier
c
-
3. The formation of icebergs as the
advancing edge of a glacier flows out over water is called
a. calving.
b. ablation.
c. abrasion.
d. plucking.
a
-
4. The landform that marks the farthest
advance of a glacier is called
a. an end moraine.
b. a terminal moraine.
c. a drift moraine.
d. a boundary moraine.
b
-
5. Winds originate mainly in response to
a. pressure differences in the atmosphere.
b. the earth’s rotation.
c. the evaporation of the world's oceans.
d. alternating periods of day and night.
a
-
6. Ventifacts are formed by near-surface
a. deflation.
b. ablation.
c. abrasion.
d. drift.
c
-
7. Desert pavement
a. is a hard surface of sun-baked clay that forms
in desert areas.
b. is formed of sand grains cemented together by
calcium carbonate.
c. consists of rocks that are resistant to the
effects of wind erosion and surface runoff.
d. is a layer of windblown sand overlying coarser
sediments.
c
-
8. Which of the following conditions did
not contribute to the Dust Bowl of the 1930s?
a. overgrazing by livestock
b. drought
c. removal of native vegetation
d. change in direction of the prevailing wind
d
-
9. The slip face of a migrating dune faces
the southeast if the wind blows steadily from the
a. southeast.
b. southwest.
c. northeast.
d. northwest.
d
-
10. The loess that covers parts of the
central United States
a. was deposited by glacial melt water.
b. was deposited during the Dust Bowl era.
c. is an accumulation of windblown silt from the
nation’s desert areas.
d. is of volcanic origin.
c
-
11. Extremely arid lands or deserts cover percent of the world’s total land
surface.
a. 4
b. 7
c. 11
d. 30
a
-
12. All of the following are possible
consequences of desertification except
a. erosion.
b. drought.
c. loss of soil fertility.
d. loss of soil structural quality.
b
-
13. The division of geologic time commonly
called the Ice Age is the
a. Pliocene Epoch.
b. Miocene Epoch.
c. Holocene Epoch.
d. Pleistocene Epoch.
d
-
14. Evidence indicates that
a. the earth has experienced a single Ice Age that
ended about 10,000 years ago.
b. ice ages are relatively recent events in
earth's history.
c. there have been at least six ice ages going
back a billion years or more.
d. the first Ice Age began with the breakup of
Pangaea about 200 million years ago.
c
-
15. Atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide
have risen primarily because of
a. the use of chlorofluorocarbons.
b. rising global temperatures.
c. the explosive eruptions of large volcanoes.
d. the burning of carbon-rich fuels.
d
-
16.
Since the beginning of the Industrial Age, the amount of atmospheric
carbon dioxide has increased about ____ percent.
a. 6
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50
c
-
17. If all the earth’s ice caps melted, sea
levels could rise by as much as ____ meters.
a. 4
b. 23
c. 75
d. 250
c
-
18. Which of the following gases absorbs
infrared radiation and thus enhances the greenhouse effect?
a. carbon dioxide
b. methane
c. nitrous oxide
d. All of the above are correct.
d
-
19. During the “Little Ice Age”
a. glaciers covered much of northern North
America.
b. severe droughts occurred in many parts of the
world.
c. sea levels were significantly lower than they
are today.
d. winters in North America were actually warmer
than those of today.
b
-
20. The suppression of deep, cold,
upwelling ocean currents off the west coast of South America results in the
event known as
a. La Jornada.
b. El Diablo.
c. El Chichón.
d. El Niño.
d
|
|
