1. Que. What is unique about rabbit alkaline phosphatase?
Ans. Rabbits have 3 isoenzymes (versus 2 - intestinal and liver/kidney/bone in most mammals; these 3 are: 1 intestinal form and 2 forms present in both liver/kidney. p. 335.
2. Que. For rabbits, list: avg. body weight, number mammary glands, heart rate, avg. lifespan?
Ans. 2-5 kg, 8 or 10, 200-300 BPM, 5-7 years. p. 335.
3. Que. What is a rabbit's natural diet - semiherbivorous, strictly herbivorous, omnivorous? What is composition of preferred diet (relative general ratios of fiber, protein and carbohydrates?)
Ans. Strict herbivores; prefer low fiber, high-protein and high-carb diets. p. 335.
4. Que. What is cecotrophy and what are its benefits?
Ans. It is the ingestion of "soft pellets" or "night feces"; provides supplemental B vitamins and protein. p. 335.
5. Que. Is obesity in lab rabbits common? How to prevent it?
Ans. Overfeeding resulting in obesity is common; can be prevented with high-fiber, low-energy maintenance diet. p. 335.
6. Que. In rabbits, calcification of soft tissues, including the liver, kidney, vasculature, and muscles can result from an excess of what in the diet?
Ans. Vitamin D, p336
7. Que. Infertility, muscular dystrophy, fetal death, neonatal death, and colobomatous micropthalmos in rabbits have all been associated with what vitamin deficiency?
Ans. Vitamin E, p336
8. Que. What is the daily water intake per kilogram of body weight in the rabbit?
Ans. 120 ml/kg, p336
9. Que. Rabbits prefer single or group housing when allowed to choose between the two.
Ans. group, p337
10. Que. The New Zealand White rabbit generally reaches puberty at what age range?
Ans. 5 � 7 months, p337
11. Que. Smaller breeds of rabbits typically reach puberty earlier or later than larger breeds of rabbits?
Ans. earlier, p337
12. Que. The breeding life of a doe typically lasts approximately how long?
Ans. 1 � 3 years, p337
13. Que. Do rabbits have distinct estrous cycles?
Ans. No, rabbits do not have distinct estrous cycles but rather demonstrate a rhythm with respect to receptivity to the buck., p337
14. Que. When does ovulation occur in the rabbit?
Ans. Ovulation is induced and occurs approximately 10 � 13 hours after copulation, p337
15. Que. In rabbit reproductive behavior, how often is the doe receptive to the buck?
Ans. Receptivity is punctuated by periods (1-2 days every 4 -17 days) of anestrus and seasonal variation, p337
16. Que. Ovulation can be induced in the doe with what three drugs?
Ans. LH, HCG or GnRH, p337
17. Que. When can pregnancy be confirmed in the doe and how?
Ans. At day 14 of gestation by palpation of fetuses within the uterus, p337
18. Que. How early can radiographic procedures determine pregnancy in the doe?
Ans. day 11, p337
19. Que. What is the gestation period in the doe?
Ans. 30 � 33 days, p337
20. Que. What type of relationship does ambient temperature have on the gestational period of the doe?
Ans. inverse relationship, p337
21. Que. What stimuli can induce pseudopregancy in the doe?
Ans. 1) mounting by other does, 2) sterile matings by bucks, 3) administration of LH, 4) presence of bucks nearby, p337
22. Que. How long does the corpus luteum persist in does with pseudopregnacy?
Ans. 15 � 17 days., p337
23. Que. In Pseudopregnancy in rabbits the ____________ secretes progresterone causing the uterus and mammae to enlarge. During pseudopregnancy does will begin to pull hair as a ritual ______________ behavior.
Ans. Corpus luteum or corpora lutea, nest building, p338
24. Que. Parturition is referred to as ______________ as it relates to relates to rabbits.
Ans. kindling, p338
25. Que. Impending parturition is often signaled by ___________ and ___________ food consumption during the preceding 2 to 3 days.
Ans. Nest building, decreased food consumption, p338
26. Que. _________ and _________ presentations are normal in the rabbit. Fetuses retained beyond _________ days generally die. The average number kits born is ___ to ___ per litter.
Ans. Anterior, breech, 35, 7, 9, p338
27. Que. Does usually have ____ or ____ pairs of nipples and bucks have _____.
Ans. 4, 5, none, p338
28. Que. Does normally nurses the kits ______ daily, milk yield is _____to ____ gm/day. Maximum output occurs at ___ weeks following kindling and declines during the ____ week. Rabbit milk contains approximately ____ % protein, ___% fat, ___% lactose, ___% minerals. Kits begin consuming solid food by ____ weeks and weaning occurs by ___ to ___ weeks of age.
29. Que. Minimum cage sizes for rabbits vary with the ______ of the animal. The Animal Welfare Act and the Guide require _____ ft2 floor space and ____ inches of cage height for rabbits weighing 2-4 kg.
Ans. Weight, 3.0, 14, p338
30. Que. The Guide recommends that temperatures in rabbit rooms be maintained between ___ to ___ degrees F.
Ans. 61, 72, p338
31. Que. Rabbits should have _______ hours of light and in breeding colonies females should be provide with _____ of light.
Ans. 12-14, 14-16, p338
32.Que. Ammonia production in rabbit rooms can be a significant problem, therefore rabbit rooms should be ventilated at ____ air changes per hour.
33.Que.Rabbit urine contains large amounts of _______ and _______ and
often forms deposits on cages and catch pans. It is common practice to
soak equipment having urine deposits in _______washes to remove the
scale before washing.
Ans.Protein, minerals, p338
34.Que.Pasteurellosis is a common disease of laboratory rabbits and is caused by _____ _____.
Ans.Pasteurella multocida, p339
35. Que. Clinical presentation for Pasteurellosis in rabbits include the following: rhinitis, sinusitis, pneumonia, otitis media, otitis interna, conjunctivitis, abscess formation, _____ _____ and ______.
Ans. Genital infection, septicemia, p339
36. Que. __________ with or without sinusitis is the most common clinical manifestation of pasteurellosis in rabbits commonly called _______.
Ans. Rhinitis, snuffles., p339
37. Que. Rabbits with rhinitis often develop an associated ___________.
Ans. Conjunctivitis, p339
38. Que. Otitis interna in rabbits can cause _________ in the neck.
Ans. torticollis, p339
39. Que. Rabbits that develop __________ _________generally die acutely without any clinical signs.
Ans. Pasteurella septicemia, p339
40. Que. Studies conducted in vitro have shown Pasteurella multocida is an adhesive organism and has____?
Ans. Fimbriae (pili), p 340
41. Que. __________ of the organisms is the most definitive means of diagnosis of pasteurellosis?
Ans. Culture, p 340
42. Que. The control of pasteurellosis in research facilities is most easily accomplished through the use of _________ from commercial vendors?
Ans. Pasteurella-free rabbits, p 340
43. Que. The most common research implication associated with pasteurellosis is infection of _____ of rabbits immunized with for production of polyclonal antisera?
Ans. Injection sites, p 340
44. Que. The etiologic agent of Tyzzer�s disease is ____?
Ans. Clostridium piliforme, p 340
1. What is used to culture Clostridium piliforme?
Ans. Embryonated eggs or tissue culture, p. 341
2. Tyzzer�s disease occurs most often in young animals, particularly around the age of?
Ans. Weaning, p. 341
3. Rabbits often die ___-___ days after exhibiting clinical signs of Tyzzer�s disease.
Ans. 1-2, p. 341
4. Outbreaks of Tyzzer�s disease occur most often in what age of rabbits?
Ans. 6-12 weeks, p. 341
5. Diagnosis of Tyzzer�s disease can be made by demonstrating characteristic intracellular bacteria in tissue sections stained with _______ or _______ stain.
Ans. Warthin-Starry or Giemsa, p. 341
6. Clostridium piliforme is most likely transmitted by what route?
Ans. Fecal-oral, p. 341
7. What methods are used to screen for latent carriers of Tyzzer�s disease?
Ans. Serum antibody titers or exposure of gerbils to rabbit feces, p. 341
8. The principal research complication associated with Tyzzer�s disease is?
Ans. Death of affected rabbits, p. 342
9. The primary causative agent of enterotoxemia in rabbits is?
Ans. Clostridium spiroforme, p. 342
10. Enterotoxemia can affect rabbits of what age?
Ans. Affect rabbits of all ages but is seen primarily in weanling rabbits, 9, p. 342
11. What gross lesion would one expect to see in the cecum of rabbits affected with Clostridium spiroforme?
Ans. Serosal paintbrush hemorrhages, p. 341
12. Young rabbits likely develop enterotoxemia due to?
Ans. Change in gut flora associated with weaning, p. 342
13. Clostridium spiroforme has what characteristic appearance in fecal smears or after growth in vitro?
Ans. Helically coiled, semicircular, p. 342
14. A definitive diagnosis of enterotoxemia can be made from?
Ans. The supernatant from centrifuged cecal contents can be analyzed for presence of the iota toxin (coupled with bacterial isolation), p. 342
15. What has been proposed for treatment of enterotoxemia because it binds bacterial toxins?
Ans. Oral cholestyramine (an ion exchange resin), p. 342
16. Name one of the more virulent strains that affects weanling rabbits with Escherichia coli?
Ans. RDEC-1 is now serotyped as 015:H, p. 342
17. Escherichia coli strains (many of which are in serogroup O103) express what gene, that is most common and are particularly pathogenic in rabbits?
Ans. eae gene, p. 342
18. What does the eae gene encode, and how is this important in rabbits?
Ans. It encodes intimin, an outer membrane protein required for development of attaching and effacing lesions, p. 342
19. What are the three clinical syndromes associated with colibacillosis depending on the infecting strain of bacteria?
Ans. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality; weanling diarrhea with high mortality; and weanling diarrhea with low mortality, p. 342
20. Colibacillosis typically affects what age of rabbits?
Ans. 4 � 6 week-old weanlings, but 1- to 2 week-old suckling rabbits can also be affected, p. 342
21. What serotype of Escherichia coli is associated with neonatal diarrhea with high mortality?
Ans. O109:H2, p. 343
22. What serotypes of Escherichia coli is associated with weanling diarrhea with high mortality?
Ans. O103:H2 or O15:H, p. 343
23. What serotypes of Escherichia coli is associated with weanling diarrhea with low mortality?
Ans. O123, O128, O132, p. 343
24. What histologic pathology is noted with E.coli infection?
Ans. Villus atrophy and fusion in the ileum, cecum, and colon. Epithelium is flattened and disorganized, and there is focal necrosis of the mucosal epithelium. Neuthophils are present in the lamina propria, and the submucososa is edematous. Colonies of coliforms may be found on the intestinal surface. Neutrophils and enterocytes may be present in the intestinal lumen. Attachment of coliforms to the intestinal mucosal suface and effacement of the epithelial cells lead to a loss of the microvillus border and secretory diarrhea, p. 343
25. Is a positive E. coli fecal culture a definitive diagnosis?
Ans. No, p. 343
26. What is the definitive diagnosis for E. coli infection in rabbits?
Ans. Somatic and flagellar serotyping to correlate the strain with known enteropathogenic strains, p. 343
27. What causes treponematosis in rabbits?
Ans. Treponema paraluis cuniculi, p. 343
28. What is the gross description of Treponema paraluis cuniculi and what other organism is it related to?
Ans. Gram negative, spiral-shaped rod and is closely related to T. pallidum, the causative agent of human syphilis, p. 343
29. What are the typical lesions of rabbit treponemal lesions and what is its progression?
Ans. Lesions occur in vulvar or preputial areas and begin with swelling and erythema, often with vesicle or papules. Progress to ulceration, followed by scaling and crusting over the ulcer. Regional lymph nodes may become enlarged. Lesions are chronic in nature but may resolve after many weeks, p. 343
30. Transmission of Treponema paraluis cuniculi occur during?
Ans. Breeding, p. 343
31. What stain is used for Treponema paraluis cuniculi?
Ans. Warthin-Starry stain, p. 343
32. What diagnostic techniques are used with treponematosis?
Ans. Spirochetes in the lesions, wet mounts of scrapings from lesions examined by dark-field microscopy, organism demonstrates corkscrew motility and serologic analysis used for T. pallidum infection in humans, p. 343
33. What are some of the serological diagnostic tests used to diagnose Trepenoma pallidum in rabbits?
Ans. Microhemmagglutination T. pallidum test, venereal disease research laboratory slide test (VDRL), and the rapid plasma regin card test (RPR), p. 344
34. What is the recommended treatment for rabbit syphilis?
Ans. Penicillin, p. 344
35. Which species of laboratory animals have developed clinical disease as a result of Lawsonia intracellularis infection?
Ans. Rabbits, rhesus macaques, hamsters, swine, and ferrets, p. 344/note
36. Proliferative enteropathy associated with Lawsonia intracellularis infection usually occurs in which age of rabbits?
Ans. Weanlings, p. 344
37. The most striking finding on gross pathology from Lawsonia intracellularis infection in the rabbit is?
Ans. Thickening and corrugation of the ileum, p. 344
38. Lawsonia intracellularis can be found most easily in what portion of the gastrointestinal tract of the rabbit?
Ans. Within the cytoplasm of immature crypt epithelial cells of the ileum, p. 344
39. Available diagnostic tests for Lawsonia intracellularis infection in the rabbit include?
Ans. Histopathology (ID of rod-shaped to curved, silver staining bacteria within the apical cytoplasm of crypt enterocytes), immunohistochemistry, and PCR, p. 344
40. Myxomatosis is endemic in which species of animal in the United States?
Ans. Brush rabbit (Sylvilagus bachmania), p. 344
41. Definitive diagnosis of myxomatosis requires?
Ans. Culture of virus from infected tissues, p. 344
42. Myxomatosis is transmitted in rabbits by?
Ans. Direct contact, mosquitoes and fleas, p. 344
43. How is fibroma-like lesions from Myxoma virus distinguished from those caused by rabbit fibroma virus?
Ans. Inoculating the fibroma material into Oryctolagus rabbits � death follows if Myxoma virus, p. 344
44. What rare disease induced by a poxvirus has caused outbreaks of fatal disease in laboratory rabbits in the United States and Holland?
Ans. Rabbit pox, p. 345
45. Characteristic _________ ________ seen in many poxvirus infections are rarely associated with rabbit pox.
Ans. Cytoplasmic inclusions, p. 345
46. Two herpesviruses have been isolated from rabbit kidney cultures. These are Leporid herpesvirus 1, ________ _____ (scientific name), isolated from cottontail rabbits, and Leporid herpesvirus 2, ________ _____, isolated from domestic rabbits.
Ans. Herpesvirus sylvilagus, Herpesvirus cuniculi, p. 345
47. The cottontail rabbit is the natural host of the _________ _______, which causes horny warts primarily on the neck, shoulders, and abdomen.
Ans. Cottontail (Shope) papillomavirus, p. 345
48. Which rabbit virus is used extensively as a model for the study of oncogenic virus biology and as a model for the induction of protective immunity against papillomaviruses.
Ans. Cottontail papillomavirus, p. 345
49. Rabbit oral papillomatosis in laboratory rabbits present with naturally occurring lesions that look like?
Ans. Small, white, discrete growths on the ventral surface of the tongue, p. 345
50. Rabbits of what age seem to be most susceptible to Rotavirus infection?
Ans. Weanling, p. 345
51. What viral disease in rabbits might be a model for the study of viral-induced cardiomyopathy?
Ans. Coronavirus (Pleural effusion disease/infectious cardiomyopathy), p. 345
52. Rabbit Hemorrhagic disease is caused by?
Ans. A calicivirus, p. 346
53. How can you confirm a diagnosis of rabbit hemorrhagic disease?
Ans. Negative-contrast electron microscopy of liver tissue, monoclonal antibody ELISA or hemagglutination inhibition, p. 346
54. What are the recommended control measures for rabbit colonies infected with rabbit hemorrhagic disease?
Ans. Quarantine, depopulate, then clean and disinfect environment, p. 346
55. Name a viral disease of hares that closely resembles rabbit hemorrhagic disease?
Ans. European brown hare virus (also a calicivirus), p. 346
56. Hepatic coccidiosis of rabbits is caused by?
Ans. Eimeria stiedae, p. 346
57. What host factor strongly affects coccidial parasite development in rabbits?
Ans. Age, p. 346
58. Most clinical signs of Eimeria infection are the result of interruption of __________ function and blockage of ____________?
Ans. Hepatic/liver; bile ducts, p. 346
59. Diagnosis of E. stiedae infection can be made utilizing what test?
Ans. Fecal exam (floatation or concentration), oocytes can also be detected within gallbladder exudates, p. 346