Chapter 4 Blue Book

Que. ______ _______ is the genus and species of the laboratory rat.

Que. The laboratory rat belongs to the order ________ and the family ______.

Que. The Norway rat, R. norvegicus, and the black rat, ______ _______, are the 2 species most commonly associated with the genus.

Que. Globally, the _______ rat has largely displaced the ______ _____, probably because of the former�s larger size and aggressiveness.

Que. A sport in whch individuals would wager on which terrier dog would most swiftly kill the largest number of rats confined to a pit is _____ ________.

Que. The _______ is second only to the mouse as the most frequently used mammal in biomedical and behavioral research

Que. Although rats, like most other species, can adapt to changes in temperature and humidity, room temperature and humidity, room temperatures within a range of ________and with a relative humidity of ____ are typically accepted as begin appropriate.

Que. There is sufficient evidence to indicate that light intensity at cage level should be between ________ and _______ Lux to prevent _______.

Que. Practice over many years has shown that, in general, ventilation rates of ______

Que. A stable photoperiod is necessary to avoid _____________.

Que. A cycle of _______ light and _______ dark is typically used for rats.

Que. Rat inbred strain used for congenital genitourinary anomalies, prostatic adenocarcinomas?

Que. Inbred rat strain used for Juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Que. Inbred rat strain used for inducible, transplantable myeloid leukemia, hydronephrosis, bladder carcinoma

Que. Inbred rat strain used as a model for, spontaneous autoimmune thyroiditis, host for transplantable Morris hepatoma.

Que. Inbred rat strain COP (Copenhagen) is a model for ________________.

Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for National Toxicology Program�s Carcinogen Bioassay Program and the National Institute on Aging?

Que. Inbred rat model for Multiple sclerosis, various experimentally induced autoimmune diseases.

Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for myeloma, production of IgG autoantibody.

Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for hypertension, cardiovascular research?

Que. Inbred rat strain for Mononuclear cell leukemia

Que. Which Inbred rat strain model is used for obesity?

Que. Mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for diabetes insipidus (autosomal recessive)

Que. Which mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for jaundice, kernicterus (autosomal recessive).

Que. Which mutant rat strain has the characteristics for T cell deficient (autosomal recessive)?

Que. Mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for Type 4 hyperlipoproteinemia (autosomal recessive)

Que. Is noise stressful to rats?

Que. The amount of cage space required for rats, whether group or individually housed, is a function of?

Que. Why should rats be housed in solid-bottom cages?

Que. What are the most frequently used materials used for solid-bottom cages?

Que. Which material is preferred for solid bottom-bottom cages for rats and why?

Que. Usually how many teats are present in a female rat.

Que. Rat�s eyes are _____ which increases the risk of injury from trauma and drying during anesthesia.

Que. On a rat, where is the location of the Harderian gland, and what does it secrete under what conditions?

Que. What is a good blood collection site located around the eyes?

Que. What is the hearing frequency range for rats?

Que. How many auditory ossicles do rats have?

Que. How many turbinates do rats have?

QUE. The vertebral column of the rat consists of ____ cervical, ____ thoracic, _____ lumbar, ____ sacral, and ______ caudal vertebrae.

QUE. Dental formula of the rat is ___ Incisors, ___Canines, ____ Premolars, and ___ Molars.

QUE. Only the ______ salivary gland of the rat secretes both a serous and mucous product.

QUE. In the neck of the rat, salivary tissue is sometimes confused with _________.

QUE. What anatomic structure of the rat is responsible for its inability to vomit?

QUE. How might one differentiate the ascending colon from rest of the colonic tissue?

QUE. T or F Rats have gall bladders.

QUE. What anatomic structure contains/houses Steno�s gland of the rat?

Que. The rat does not have an ______ nerve supply to the bronchial musculature, and bronchoconstriction is controlled by ____ ____.

Que. In the rat, the paired _________ glands at the base of the penis open into the dorsal surface of the urethral flexure.

Que. The large accessory sex glands found within the abdominal cavity surrounding the bladder are the ______ ______ .

Que. The rat prostate gland is composed of _________, _______ and ______ lobes.

Que. The female rat has a _______ _______ with two distinct ossa uteri and cervices.

Que. In the rat, the ______ ______ is more craniad than the left and has its cranial edge at the level of L1 vertebra and its caudal edge at the level of L3.

Que. Like the kidney of other rodents, the rat kidney is __________, making the rat useful for cannulization studies.

Que. The rat is widely used as a model for investigating nephron transport in an in vivo micropuncture system, because of the presence of ________ ______ in the renal cortex.

Que. The rat brain is notable for what gross anatomic characteristic?

Que. The rat brain has two __________ lobes of the cerebellum which lie in deep sockets of the periotic capsule of the skull.

Que. The ventricular system of the rat brain is similar to that of other animals, but lacks ________________.

Que. The heart of the rat is exposed to the left thoracic wall between the third and fifth ribs, making it a useful site for ______________.

Que. The blood supply to the atria of the rat, unlike that of higher mammals, is largely ______________.

Que. The three classifications of commercially available, nutritionally adequate diets for rats are_____________, ____________, and _____________.

Que. The most common type of rat diet used for most research applications is the _________________ diet.

Que. A natural ingredient diet which lists information on the amounts of each ingredient is known as what type of diet?

Que. A natural ingredient diet that is used for toxicological and other Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) studies where each lot is assayed for a set list of contaminants is known as what type of diet?

Que. What diet classification includes nutrient concentrations that are less variable because defined ingredients, each composed of a single nutrient or nutrient class (e.g., casein, sugar, starch, vegetable oil, cellulose), is used in the formulation?

Que. A frequently used purified diet for rats is __________.

Que. What diet classification is formulated with very basic defined ingredients (e.g., specific amino acids, sugars, triglycerides, and essential fatty acids)?

Que. In the rat, the vagina is closed at birth by compact epithelium, referred to as the vaginal plate. This begins to degenerate and cornify at 20-35 days of age and is completely open between _____ and _____ days of age.

Que. The estrous cycle of rats is most often _____ to _____ days in length.

Que. The gestational period in the rat is _____ to _____ days in length.

Que. Rat pups� eyes open at approximately _____ to _____ days of age.

Que. Rat pups are commonly weaned at _____ days of age.

Que. In the rat, daily food consumption is approximately _____ gm / 100 gm body weight.

Que. In the rat, water consumption is approximately _____ to _____ ml / 100 gm body weight.

Que. The approximate blood volume in the rat is _____ ml / 100 gm body weight.

Que. True or false: the estrous cycle of the rat is rarely seen post-partum.

Que. True or false: the estrous cycle of the rat is seasonally polyestrous.

Que. True or false: it is not uncommon for a rat to have a 6-day estrous cycle.

Que. In a 4-day estrous cycle of the rat, one day is spent in each of the four stages. Should the rat have a 6-day cycle, which stage(s) is/are extended beyond one day?

Que. Among serum sodium, potassium, chloride, and calcium values in the clinical chemistry for adult male Sprague-Dawley and Fisher 344 male rats, which parameter will differ notably between these two stocks?

Que. True or false: comparing the liver enzyme panel (ALT, ALP, AST, and LDH) of Sprague-Dawley and Fisher 344 adult male rats exemplifies the general rule that all rats have about the same liver chemistry values regardless of stock or strain.

Que: In the rat, ovulation occurs approximately how long after the onset of estrus.

Que. Coitus occurs most frequently during (light/dark) periods and most frequently during the (early/later) portion of the (light/dark) cycle.

Que. In rats, a single ejaculation with (fewer/more) intromissions is (more/less/equally) likely to impregnate the female.

Que. Coitus in rats can be confirmed by ____________.

Que. Implantation of the blastocyst in the rat occurs between ____________ after fertilization.

Que. What is the normal gestation of the rat?

Que. The �swayback� posture, lordosis, assumed by the female rat when the pelvic region is stimulated is known as the __________?

Que. What is the impedance meter used for?

Que. Pregnancy can be detected by careful palpation at 10 days gestation, and even more readily at day __________; mammary gland and nipple development are evident by day __________?

Que. Despite lack of seasonal variation in estrous cycle in the rat, both ovarian function and estrous cycles are influenced by light cycles? 1) continuous light = __________; 2) chronic exposure to even low level light during the dark cycle = __________; 3) caloric restriction = __________

Que. (High/Low) ambient temperature can result in male infertility.

Que. Female rats increase nest-building activity approximately _____ days prepartum and continue through ____________.

Que. Approximately ____ hours before the first rat pup is born, clear mucoid fluid discharges from the vagina.

Que. As rat pups are born, the female ______ the placenta from the birth canal and _________.

Que. Parturition in the rat averages ________ hours, varying with litter size.

Que. Strenuous maternal exercise in pregnant rats, i.e. running on a treadmill � has also been reported to ____________________________________________________.

Que. True or False. Dystocia is rare in rats.

Que. True or False. Cannibalism of rat pups is not frequently encountered.

Que. Rat pups are altricial and nidicolous. Define.

Que. True or False. There is an inverse relationship between rat fetal or birth weight and litter size.

Que. The external acoustic meati in a rat opens between __________ days of age.

Que. Rats appear to first be able to hear at about ____days of age, although they are able to ___________ from the time of birth.

Que. Rat Incisors erupt at _____ days of age, although molars do not erupt until ___________.

Que. The rat retina is poorly developed at birth, equivalent to a human fetus of _______ months.

Que. The eyelids in a rat pup open at about ______ days of age, although the retina does not fully mature until ______ days of age, and the final components in the angle of the anterior chamber are not fully formed until _______________.

Que. Synchronization of estrus in the rat can be accomplished by administration of ______________ in drinking water for _____days, followed by ______injection with one IU of ______________.

Que. Another way to synchronize estrus is by administering 40 micrograms of _________________. Five days later estrus can be confirmed by vaginal cytology.

Que. Artificial insemination (AI) in rats is complicated by the rapid _________________________________ , especially when semen is obtained by electroejaculation.

Que. Coagulation of semen is due to contributions of the ________________ and _____________________.

Que. To prevent the rapid coagulation of semen, the coagulating glands and seminal vesicles can be _______________________ .

Que. Another way to improve fertility rates with AI is to collect sperm by ___________ directly from the ________________. This procedure should not be done more than twice from each male rat.

Que. Sperm from the ____________ portion of the cauda epididymidis are reported to have greater fertility than sperm from the _________ or _________ portions.

Que. An essential step in assuring the success of AI is the induction of ________________ in the recipient female prior to mating with a vasectomized male, by _____________ stimulation of the __________, or by ______________ stimulation of the _______________.

Que. Embryo transfer in rats is used to ____________________ from breeding line and to study whether specific characteristics are due to, or modified by, the ___________ environment, in contrast to being soley determined by genetic factors.

Que. __________________ is the first step in cryopreservation.

Que. In embryo transfer, embryos are collected ________ days after the females are bred.

Que. Embryos are usually washed in ____________ and ______________, with or without added ______________.

Que. ______________ may more effectively remove pathogens than PBS alone

Que. Embryos are then suspended in _____ and _____ and ___________ and ________ transferred into the uterus or oviduct of the pseudopregnant recipient.

Que. Cryopreservation can serve as a fail-safe measure, should a strain become _____________________.

Que. Frozen embryos can be used to test ____________ reagents and __________- for humans.

Que. True or false. Rat behavior is not an important aspect of laboratory animal science.

Que. The two broad categories of rat behavior relevant to experimental design and disease status are _________________ and _________________.

Que. Rats are most active at ______________.

Que. Pain thresholds in rats are often determined by the ________ test.

Que. _________ rats have shorter tail flick response times in the middle of the dark period, as well as during estrus and metestrus.

Que. ________ rats are less likely to fight when housed together than male _______.

Que. __________ ________ is the streptococcus species of most historical concern in the rat.

Que. ________ are considered to be the natural host of Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted primarily via ________ route.

Que. Differentiation of Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococcal infections can be done using the __________ inhibition test.

Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a _______ hemolytic group streptococcus.

Que. Are Beta-hemolytic streptococci common in rats? Do they cause disease?

Que. How are these Beta-hemolytic strep. bacteria differentiated from each other, and what types are most common ?

Que. What causes "streptococcal enteropathy" ? What ages are affected and what are clinical signs ?

Que. Is control of Streptococcus spp. easy? Why or why not ?

Que. What organism causes pseudotuberculosis ? Describe the organism. Describe clinical signs. What age is most likely affected ?

Que. How is C. kutscheri transmitted ? What causes lesions ? What organ most likely affected in rat ?

Que. Describe gross lesions of C. kutscheri infection ? Histologic lesions?

Que. How is C. kutscheri infection definitively diagnosed ? From what site/tissue should samples be taken?

Que. What are differential diagnoses for multiple abscesses in rats?

Que. What organism causes Tyzzer's disease ? What was its former name? What is the host range for this disease?

Que. Particularly in the rat, what sign has been observed in weanlings with Tyzzer�s disease, although with low incidence?

Que. Tyzzer�s Disease in rats may cause a greatly dilated, flaccid, and hyperemic ileum, also termed _________________.

Que. The hallmark histopathological lesion of Tyzzer�s disease in the rat is _____________________.

Que. Special stains are usually necessary to detect Tyzzer�s disease. These include Giemsa, methylene blue, and the best method, _________________.

Que: What tissue stain is used to demonstrate Clostridium piliforme organism in tissue?

Que: What is a disadvantage to serological testing for Tyzzer�s disease?

Que: What is recommended as follow up tests in rats serologically positive for Tyzzer�s disease?

Que: Why are disease provocation tests and stress tests recommended in rats serologically positive for Tyzzer�s disease?

Que: What is the disadvantage when performing the stress tests that rely on chemical immunosuppression (usu. Cyclophosphamide) followed by histopathologic evaluation to detect Tyzzer�s disease?

Que: Why is it important to use the same species of sentinels when detecting Tyzzer�s disease?

Que: How does C. piliforme interfere with research?

Que: How is Pasteurella pneumotropica classified?

Que: How does P. pneumotropica grow on sheep blood agar?

Que: P. pneumotropica is considered to be of low significance in ___________ rats: immunodeficient or immunocompetent

Que: Where is P. pneumotropica commonly isolated ?

Que: The vast majority of rats infected with P pneumotropica show which of the following clinical signs?

Que: Is it necessary to implement control measures of P. pneumotropica in immunocompetent mice? Why or why not?

Que: What is true of P. pneumotropica transmission?

Que: Name four ways to control P. pneumotropica in the environment.

Que: What is the reason for implementing antibiotic treatment to infected dams prior to C-section when controlling P. pneumotropica from a colony of rats?

Que. __________ is composed of more than 2400 serovars.

Que. The bacterial disease __________ may be virtually nonexistent in laboratory rats, but because infection is thought to be prevalent among many other species of vertebrates, including wild rodents, the potential for introduction remains.

Que. Clinical signs of infection with S. enteritidis are __________ but may include a hunched posture, ruffled fur, lethargy, weight loss, and conjunctivitis. Soft stool and diarrhea may be observed, usually in less than 20% of the animals.

Que. Salmonellosis is an __________ so humans are not only at risk of infection from rodents but also may serve as a source of the agent.

Que. Gastrointestinal involvement, including mural thickening and mucosal ulcers in the cecum and ileum as well as splenomegaly and septicemia are clinical signs of __________ in the rat.

Que. __________ is diagnosed by culture of feces, mesenteric lymph nodes, liver, spleen or blood after the material is placed in enrichment broth and inoculated onto selective growth medium.

Que. A colony infected with Salmonellosis may have a low incidence of asymptomatic carriers, usually less than __________ percent. Detection of S. enteridtidis in these colonies may require repeated testing of significant numbers of samples.

Que. In addition to Salmonellosis differential diagnosis for __________ disease in rats include Tyzzer�s Disease, rotavirus infection, enterococcal enteropathy, cryptosporidiosis, and problems with feed and/or water.

Que. Once S. enteritidis is detected in a colony, all animals are usually __________ , and all surfaces and materials either sterilized or safely discarded. Treatment is not recommended, because a chronic carrier state may result and there is potential for zoonotic disease.

Que. Pseudomoniasis refers to clinical disease caused by __________ , a gram-negative bacillus of the order Eubacteriales, family Pseudomonadaceae.

Que. __________ is motile, aerobic, oxidase-positive, and widely distributed in water, soil, sewage, and the skin and gastrointestinal tract of many animals. It is considered as part of the common commensal flora of humans, domestic animals, and laboratory rodents and is more frequently isolated from animals and humans receiving antibiotics.

Que. __________ is rarely implicated in disease except in mammals with specific and severe host defense deficits, particularly hosts or tissues deficient in functional phagocytes. (i.e., macrophages and neutrophils and their serum opsonins)

Que. __________ has been reported as a consequence of infection of indwelling jugular catheters. The signs were those of septicemia and necropsy findings included vegetative valvular endocarditis and multifocal hemorrhagic pneumonia.

Que. How is Pseudomoniasis diagnosed?

Que. What is the best method to grow Pseudomonas?

Que. What are biofilms?

Que. P. aeruginosa colonization can be significantly by chlorination of water or acidification. Name the ppm of chlorination and the pH of acidification.

Que. ___________ __________ is commensal in wild rats, inhabiting the nasopharynx, middle ear, and respiratory tract and transmitted to humans by bite wounds, aerosols, and fomites.

Que. How are rat colonies monitored for Streptobacillus moniliformis?

Que. Streptobacillus moniliformis detection in a laboratory rat colony would indicate exposure to infected __________ ___________.

Que. All currently identified helicobacters of laboratory rodents are microaerophillic, gram-negative flagellated bacteria that may be _________, __________ or ________.

Que. Once established, infection by any Helicobacter species is typically_____?

Que. Key pathogenic factors for H. pylori include ______, _______, and the presence of a _______?

Que. Helicobacter infection should be a prime differential diagnosis when proliferative lesions of the ___ are observed in rats?

Que. Diagnosis of Helicobacter infection is best accomplished by______?

Que. Samples for diagnosis of Helicobacter infection most often use?

Que. CAR bacillus may be related to _________ and __________?

Que. CAR bacillus has been identified in________(more than one animal)?

Que. CAR bacillus is usually asymptomatic in which animal?

Que. _______may be observed on the surface of airway epithelium with CAR bacillus?

Que. With Warthin-Starry or methenamine silver stain, filamentous bacilli are readily observed among cilia or respiratory epithelium from the nasal cavity to the bronchioles in _____ _______ infections.

Que. In CAR bacillus infections the _____ respiratory tract is involved earlier in the course of infection than the _____ tract.

Que. CAR bacillus infection should be distinguished from ______, pneumonia due to other bacteria (i.e. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Corynebacterium kutscheri, etc.) and viruses.

Que. Colonies are best screened for CAR bacillus infection by serologic techniques, such as _______ or ______.

Que. There is sufficient evidence to indicate that light intensity at cage level should be between _________ and ____________ lux to prevent ___________.

Que. CAR bacillus false-positive reactions can occur; any positive results should be confirmed by a ______________ stain of tracheal mucosal scraping or histopathology with use of special stains.

Que. CAR bacillus infection is prevented by _______________.

Que. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis also known as __________ is caused by ______________.

Que. What are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma pulmonis in the older animals compare with younger animals?

Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis is transmitted horizontally by ___________, ________and vertically by ______________ transmission.

Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis possibly damages host cells by causing ____________.

Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis competes for the host _________ and _________ and may also produce toxic metabolites, such as peroxides and nonspecific mitogens.

Que. _______________ successfully evades the host�s immune defenses, so infection and some lesions (especially those in the upper respiratory tract) are persistent and often progressive.

Que. What are the gross lesions of MRM?

Que. What are the respiratory histological lesions of MRM in rats?

Que. What are the genital histiological lesions of MRM in female rats?

Que. What are the differential diagnosis for MRM?

Que. What are the diagnostic techniques for MRM?

Que. How does MRM interferes with research?

Que. What is the morphologic description of Haemobartonella muris?

Que. What order and family is Haemobartonella muris?

Que. What does Haemobartonella muris infect in rats?

Que. What are the clinical pathology symptoms of Haemobartonella muris infection in rats?

Que. How is Haemobartonella muris naturally transmitted to rats?

Que. How is Haemobartonella muris diagnosed in rats?

Que. How is Haemobartonella muris infection in rats?

Que. How does Haemobartonella muris effect research?

Que. What is Sendai virus, RNA or DNA?

Que. What is the genus and species of Sendai virus?

Que. What are the symptoms of Sendai virus infection in rats?

QUE. The draining lymph nodes of the _________ are the initial and major site of antibody production to Sendai infection in the rat.

QUE. In the rat Sendai infections can be worsened by coinfections with _______, ________, ______, and _______.

QUE. Which test is best for diagnosis of Sendai infection in rats?

QUE. Which two rat Coronaviruses cannot be differentiated from one another based on comparison of clinical signs or lesions?

QUE. T or F Clinically, RCV-SDA will not offer significant cross-protection to RCV-P and vice versa.

Que. Signs of Rat _________ infection include cervical swelling due to inflammation and edema of submaxillary glands, nasal and ocular discharges that are usually porphyrin stained, photophobia, corneal opacities, and corneal ulcers.

Que. In most rats, signs of coronovirus infection last for less than 2 weeks. However, chronic ______ and _________ may persist.

Que. Rat coronoviruses can be transferred to susceptible rats by _____ _____ with infected rats, and indirectly by _____ and _____.

Que. Under experimental conditions, it has been shown that rats are susceptible to reinfection by coronovirus as early as __ months after initial infection.

Que. Histological changes associated with _____________ in affected salivary and lacrimal glands include coagulation necrosis of ductal and acinar epithelial cells, followed by squamous metaplasia during the reparative phase that begins 7-10 days after infection.

Que. Diagnosis of _________ is best achieved by serological means using the ELISA method and histological examination of the Harderian glands and the submaxillary and parotid salivary glands.

Que. Eliminating rat coronavirus from a colony is achieved by allowing the virus to spread quickly to all animals, preventing entry of susceptible rats to the room, and _______ __ ______ and _______ of preweanlings.

Que. Parvoviruses are ______________ (type) viruses that have a predilection for mitotically active host cells.

Que. Name two of the three parvoviruses that infect rats?

Que. Clinical signs of RV usually occur in what age group of rats?

Que. Name two of three clinical signs in a colony associated with RV?

Que. RPV and H-1 infections are generally characterized as _____________ (clinical or subclinical).

Que. Rat virus is excreted via _____________ and is transmitted by ___________ through direct contact or fomites.

Que. In persistent infections, DNA and antigenic evidence of RV is most likely to be observed where?

Que. Rat virus induces a more severe and persistent infection in athymic or euthymic rats?

Que. What is the common sequence of tests used to detect and define a parvovirus infection in rats?

Que. Is there a PCR assay for the rat parvoviruses?

Que. The effect of RV infection on the immune system has been shown to be rat strain dependent for _____________ (which part of the immune system).

Que. Brown Norway rats that are infected with RV have _________ NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity; RV infected Wistar-Furth rats have _________ NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. (increased or decreased)

Que. What effects does RPV infection have on research?

Que. Pneumonia virus of mice (PVM) is a __________ (type) virus in the family ___________.

Que. Does PVM infect other species besides mice? If so what species?

Que. PVM is diagnosed using what test(s)?

Que. PVM does not cause clinical disease but prominent lesions seen in the acute phase of PVM include ____________, and ______________.

Que. The infectious agent, formerly known as infectious diarrhea of infant rats (IDIR), that causes diarrhea in suckling rats, villous atrophy, villous epithelial necrosis, and syncytial cell formation is __________. This agent was found to be associated with diarrhea in humans which suggests that under nonexperimental conditions there may be cross-infectivity between humans and rats.

Que. Hantaviruses are enveloped RNA viruses of the genus __________, family __________. In rodents, the disease is characterized by being chronic and subclinical, with virus being shed persistently in the __________ and __________.

Que. The natural host for the Seoul Hantavirus, causing hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) in humans is __________.

Que. The reservoir for a Hantavirus that has induced hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in individuals living in Florida is the __________.

Que. Protozoa are of little consequence in laboratory rats. Spontaneous disease due to any naturally occurring enteric protozoa of laboratory rats has not been reported. Nevertheless, protozoa considered to be of potential significance in rodent facilities include __________ and two enteric flagellates, __________ and __________, which may produce disease and alter immune responses in mice.

Que. Encephalitozoonosis is common in conventional rabbit colonies and most guinea pig colonies but is rare in rats. It is transmitted by ingestion, and possibly inhalation, of spores shed in __________.

Que. Describe the findings seen on histopath exam of rat brains infected with E. cuniculi.

Que. What other organs besides the brain and spinal cord of the rat may show lesions associated with E. cuniculi?

Que. In the brains of rats afflicted with E. cuniculi, what may be observed histologically next to or even in the lesions?

Que. True or false: Spores of E. cuniculi seen in rat neural tissue stain well with hemotoxylin and eosin.

Que. The spores of E. cuniculi found in rat neural tissue will stain as gram positive or gram negative?

Que. Diagnosis of E. cuniculi in rats is based on ___________.

Que. Screening of rat colonies for E. cuniculi is best done with what technique? Why is this best?

Que. If screening for E. cuniculi in rats is positive, what is the method for definitive diagnosis?

Que. What is the primary histopathologic differential diagnosis for E. cuniculi in rats?

Que. Describe the difference in size and staining attributes between Toxoplasma gondii and Encephalitozoan cuniculi.

Que. How is E. cuniculi controlled for in lab animal rats?

Que. What treatment for rats is available for E. cuniculi?

Que. What research complications have been reported using rats infected with E. cuniculi?

Que. True or false: toxoplasmosis develops into fulminant disease in rats, wiping out most colonies.

Que. Recall what the definitive host(s) of Toxoplasma gondii is/are.

Que. What role does the rat serve in the transmission of T. gondii?

Que. How does the rat become infected with T. gondii?

Que. True or false: rats may transmit T. gondii infection vertically.

Que. In order for a rat colony to remain chronically infected with T. gondii, cat feces would have to be: a) introduced only once into the colony; b) introduced to only pregnant dams in the colony; or c) introduced repeatedly into the colony.

Que. True or false: T. gondii is an organism of little current significance in research facilities.

Que. True or false: Of the flagellates Entamoeba muris, Spironucleus muris, and Giardia spp., S. muris presents the most significant health problem in rat colonies.

Que. Describe briefly the life cycle of the enteric flagellates in rats and list the mode of transmission.

Que. Besides rats, what other rodents will S. muris colonize?

Que. Where is S. muris usually found in the rat gut?

Que. True or false: like mice, rats under 6 weeks of age are more susceptible to S. muris infection.

Que. True or false: rats should not be housed with other rodent species largely because of easy transmission of S. muris within the colony.

Que. What types of environmental and chemical resistance have the cysts of S. muris demonstrated?

Que. How is Spironucleus muris infection diagnosed in the rat?

Que. True or false: the cysts of S. muris trophozoites may only be observed in wet mounts of duodenal tissue.

Que. Describe the physical attributes of a S. muris cyst seen on a wet mount.

Que. Besides rats, Giardia muris colonizes which other species?

Que. What is the Giardia species usually found in humans?

Que. How are G. muris and G. duodenalis related?

Que. Considering the close relationship between G. muris and G. duodenalis, is G. muris considered a zoonotic agent for humans?

Que. How do the trophozoites of Giardia spp. attach to the surface of the intestinal epithelial cells?

Que. For how long have Giradia spp. cysts remained infective in shed feces?

Que. True or false: no naturally occurring clinical disease has been reported in rats infected with G. muris.

Que. Rats infected experimentally with G. lamblia and G. duodenalis showed evidence of infection in what manner?

Que. How is Giardia spp. infection diagnosed in the rat?

Que. Describe the physical characteristics of Giardia spp. trophozoites seen on a wet mount of rat intestine.

Que: Three species of oxyurid nematodes (pinworms) occur in the rat, Syphacia muris, Syphacia obvelata and Aspicularis tetraptera. Which one occurs most frequently in the rat.

Que: What is the name of the trichurid nematode found only in the urinary bladder of the rat.

Que: There are four physical / physiologic differences which can be used to differentiate Syphacia muris and Aspicularis tetraptera. What are the four differences.

Que. For which of the following nematode rat parasites is the male anatomically degenerate and exists symbiotically in the vagina or uterus of the female ?

Que. Which of the following methods is purported to be most reliable in the diagnosis of Trichosomoides crassucauda infestation in killed rats?

Que. True or False ??? The etiologic role of high doses of saccharin in the diet causing bladder tumors in the rat has been supported in more recent studies.

Que. Proliferative changes in the uroepithelium of rats caused by Trichosomoides crassicauda infestation are identical to those produced early in carcinogenesis by chemical compounds such as ____________.

Which cestode of rats has an indirect life cycle, utilizes an intermediate host and is not zoonotic?

Which of the following can serve as an intermediate host for tapeworm infection?

Diagnosis of cestode infection is best achieved by which of the following techniques ?

Que. Infection with Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta is most common in recently weaned rats and (is / is not) zoonotic?

Que. Taenia taeniaformis , aka __________, is found in the livers of rats, mice, and hamsters and can be up to several centimeters in size. They are generally considered to be nonpathogenic but may be associated with __________. The definitive host is the __________.

Que. Numerous trematodes including , __________, __________, __________ are found in wild rats ( and can be zoonotic) but are NOT considered significant in lab rats?

Que. __________ is the only ectoparasite of rats likely to be encountered in a laboratory animal environment?

Que. Ivermectin can be used to eliminate Radfordia ensifera in the rat but is ineffective against which stage of this parasites life cycle?

Que. Pediculosis in the lab rat is rare and caused by __________, which is the vector for __________?

Que. Pneumocystis carinii is classified as a _________based upon DNA base sequences.

Que. P. carinii is latently present in the lungs of immunocompetent laboratory rats and what other species?

Que. The immunocompromised rat is commonly used as a model for what?

Que. True or False. P. carinii is naturally acquired by rats through airborne transmission.

Que. What stain would you use to demonstrate P. carinii fungal cysts within the alveoli of rats?

Que. List the four stages of Pneumocystis carinii�s life cycle in the rat.

Que. For which metabolic disease is the Zucker rat used as a model?

Que. Which strain/stock of rat is used as a model for diabetes?

Que. Which strains/stocks of rat are used as a model for hypertension?

Que. Control of P. carinii pneumonitis in immunocompromised rats can be achieved by treating with what medication?

Que. True or False. Dermatomycosis (ringworm) due to Trichophyton mentagrophytes has been reported in wild and laboratory rats.

Que. In rats, what is the clinical presentation of dermatomycosis?

Que. Dietary deficiencies are uncommon in rats due to the following reasons: __________________ and ability to store ___________ vitamins and vitamin B____, manufacture Vitamin ____ and can fulfill many of their requirements for other B vitamins by _____________.

Que. ____________ and _____________ can cause deterioration of diet preparations.

Que. True or false. Diets designed for maintenance of adult rodents may be used for optimal growth of young animals and successful reproduction.

Que. Sign of severe deficiency of Vitamin ____ would include squamous metaplasia of salivary ducts.

Que. Sign of severe Vitamin K deficiency would include ______________

Que. Signs of severe Vitamin E deficiency would include ___________ and ____________

Que. Besides calories and specific nutrients, other feed qualities that must be considered are ____________, __________, ____________ and __________.

Que. Categories of husbandry that can cause a number of health problems if not properly managed are ____________, ____________, _____________ and ______________.

Que. ______________content of bedding leads to rapid growth of bacteria, which can increase the incidence of urinary tract infections and, possibly, mastitis and skin lesions.

Que. ___________ bedding materials emit aromatic compounds that may increase hepatic microsomal levels.

Que. Air quality should include factors such as _____________, __________, ___________, ___________, ___________- and _____________

Que. Some bacterial species that can be transmitted to rats by humans include __________, _____________, ______________, ____________, ___________,

Que. Rats are sensitive to changes in their environment including the following: __________, __________, _____________, and ____________

Que. ____________ is primarily a condition of young rats due to relative humidity of _____________

Que. Hearing range of rats has been given as ___________ kHz and many vocalizations are in the _____________ range

Que. Rats, especially albino rats are susceptible to ______________ when exposed to ________light levels above a threshold of between 130 and 270 lux.

Que. Recommended room light levels are _________lux, measured at ______ above the floor.

Que. Exposure to very high light levels of 1600 lux for 12 hours each day for 8 days resulted in necrosis of ________________.

Que. Traumatic and iatrogenic diseases in rats can result in an ulcerative dermatitis caused by ______________.

Que. Adynamic ileus may be induced by the intraperitoneal administration of ________.

Que. The most frequent tumor observed in two-year-old male F-344 (CDF/CrlBR) rats are _________ cell tumors of the testis.

Que. The most frequent tumor observed in two-year-old female Sprague-Dawley (Crl:CDBR) rats are _________ of the pituitary gland involving the _______.

Que. The most frequently observed tumor in most stocks and strains of rats are _________ ________ tumors.

Que. Sprague-Dawley stocks have the highest incidence of mammary gland tumors whereas the _________, an inbred strain, has a relatively low incidence.

Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted primarily via ________ route.

Que. Among the environmental influences, diet has been found to be an extremely important factor in modulating tumor prevalence. A __________ reduction in food intake as found to significantly reduce overall tumor incidence in both male and female Wistar rats.

Que. What is the most common testicular tumor in rats? What do they look like? Are these tumors common in rats? What strains most susceptible?

Que. Are pituitary tumors common in rats ? Which strains most susceptible ? What is most common tumor type and what does it look like ? What clinical signs can they cause ?

Que. In general, are Sprague-Dawley rats more or less susceptible to adrenal gland, pancreatic and pituitary tumors than F-344 rats?

Que. What is the incidence (approx.) of the following tumors in Sprague-Dawley rats: pituitary, pancreatic adenoma, mammary fibroadenoma ?

Que. What strain/stock of rats is most susceptible to developing large granular lymphocytic leukemia (a lymphoreticular system tumor)? What is the approximate incidence ? Are other tumors of this system common in rats ?

Que. What agent is thought to be the cause of large granular lymphocytic leukemia ?

Que. In rats, hydronephrosis affects the (right/left) kidney more than the (right/left).

Que. The most common congenital/hereditary anomaly of the central nervous system of the rat is ______________________.

Que. Seizures have been reported most frequently in various Wistar rat stocks. Wistar rats are especially used in investigation of what type of seizure?

Que. Albino rats are predisposed to development of retinal atrophy as a result of their lack of what structure?

Que. Eosinophilic granulomatous pulmonary inflammation has a high incidence in what type of rat?

Que: What is the most important age-related disease of rat kidneys and is among the most common cause of death in a rats lifetime studies?

Que: Name other synonyms for CPN.

Que: What sex is more commonly predisposed to CPN?

Que: Gross lesions of CPN are observed in what age group of rats?

Que: What is hypothesized to greatly reduce the incidence and severity of CPN in rats?

Que: What is defined as the deposition of calcium phosphate in renal tissue?

Que: In rats, what sex is more commonly predisposed to nephrocalcinosis?

Que: What rat strain has an especially high incidence of nephrocalcinosis?

Que: What dietary manipulations may increase the incidence and severity of nephrocalcinosis?

Que: Nephrocalcinosis in rats most frequently has mineral deposition in what area of the kidney?

Que: An age-related disease that is a major cause of death in aged male rats with gross lesions of an enlarged heart with occasional visible pale streaks is most likely due to what condition?

Que: What are other synonyms for chronic myocardial disease?

Que: What are the most commonly affected sites in chronic myocardial disease of rats?

Que. As is with chronic progessive nephropathy, the incidence of chronic progressive cardiomyopathy can be dramatically __________ at any age by moderate dietary restriction.

Que. Changes in skin and pelage are often observed but rarely reported in __________ laboratory rats.

Que. The most common geriatric change is thinning or loss of hair and it is especially common in the __________ rat.

Que. Old albino rats also have a more yellow appearance at times because of the accumulation of __________ in the skin.

Que. The rings of scales covering a rat�s tail increase in number with age to __________ at 1 year.

Que. Yellowish material which accumulates on the tail of the rat and adjacent to the ear also may become black with time, probably from ___________ and/or bacterial action.

Que. Male rats accumulate brown-pigmented foci on skin, termed __________ which can be detached and can overlay skin of normal color. They are found on the dorsum, with some on the tail and perineum.

Que. Scale formation can be abrogated by __________ .

Que. __________ is a very common incidental finding in the lung of aging rats of many stocks and strains.

Que. Alveolar histiocytosis should not be mistaken for ___________ pneumonia of rats, because affected animals are seronegative, and any lymphoid infiltrate is slight and localized to the areas of macrophage aggregation.

Que.Grossly, __________ is visible as white to pale tan foci, usually 1 mm in diameter, visible on the pleural surface. Microscopically clusters of alveoli contain increased numbers of large, pale, foamy-appearing macrophages. Occasionally, cholesterol clefts may be visible in the more dense aggregates of macrophages.