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1. What is the etiological agent of rolling disease?
Ans: Mycoplasma neurolyticum (p 83)
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2. Rolling disease is associated with experimental inoculation or?
Ans: Exotoxin (p 83)
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3. CAR bacillus in rats produces clinical disease and lesions that closely resemble?
Ans: MRM (p 83)
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4. In mice, CAR bacillus is an __________ ______________?
Ans: Opportunistic pathogen (p 83)
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5. Diagnosis of CAR bacillus uses __________ ___________ to visualize argyrophilic bacilli adherent to the ______________ membranes of bronchial respiratory epithelium?
Ans: Warthin-Starry stain; apical (p 83)
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6. Tyzzer�s disease is caused by ______________ _______________ and was first diagnosed in? (p 83)
Ans: Clostridium piliforme; Japanese Waltzing mice
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7. What is required for in vitro growth of Tyzzer�s disease?
Ans: Living cells (p 83)
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8. Name three diagnostic stains used for Tyzzer�s disease?
Ans: Silver stains (Warthin-Starry), Giemsa, or periodic acid-Schiff (p 84)
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9. The causative agent of Transmissable Murine Colonic Hyperplasia is?
Ans: Citrobacter rodentium (p 85)
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10. Surprisingly Citrobacter rodentium does not utilize _________?
Ans: Citrate (p 85)
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11. The characteristic gross finding of Citrobacter rodentium is?
Ans: Severe thickening of the descending colon (p 85)
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12. Attachment to the mucosa of the colon is accompanied by ____________ of the microvillus border and formation of __________ structures?
Ans: Effacement; pedestal-like (p85)
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13. Transmissable Murine Colonic Hyperplasia must be differentiated from other diarrheal diseases of mice. What are they?
Ans: Coronavirus, rotavirus, adenovirus, reovirus, Salmonella, C. piliforme, and Helicobacter spp. (p 85)
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14. Colonic hyperplasia due to Transmissable Murine Colonic Hyperplasia has been shown to increase the sensitivity of colonic mucosa to?
Ans: Chemical carcinogens (p 86)
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15. Pseudomonas infection is not part of normal flora and infections are almost always silent except in?
Ans: Immuncompromised animals (p 86)
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16. Pseudomonas aeroginosa carrier mice can be detected by?
Ans: Nasal culture or by feeding sterile, nonacidified, nonchlorinated water for 24-48 hours and then culturing sipper tubes (p 87)
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17. Pasteurella pneumotropica may complicate pneumonias due to?
Ans: Mycoplasma pulmonis or Sendai virus (p 87)
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18. Pasteurella pneumotropica should be excluded from colonies that contain?
Ans: Immundeficient mice or breeding colonies (p 87)
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19. Name the six species of Helicobacter that infect mice?
Ans: H. hepaticus, H. bilis, H. muridarum, H. rappini, H. rodentium and H. typhlonius (p 88)
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20. Helicobacter organisms are most commonly ureas ____, catalase _____, and oxidase _____?
Ans: Positive; positive, positive (p 88)
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21. H. hepaticus can cause inflammatory bowel disease, which may present as _________ and/or diarrhea?
Ans: Rectal prolapse (p 88)
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22. H. hepaticus can persist in the GI tract, particularly?
Ans: cecum and colon (p 88)
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23. What strain of mice infected with H. hepaticus show elevated liver enzymes?
Ans: A/J Mice (p 88)
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24. Helicobacter spp. colonize which portion of the GI tract?
Ans: Crypts of the lower intestine (p 88)
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25. Which Helicobacter spp. are associated with hepatomas and hepatocellular carcinomas and what sex and strains of mice are involved?
Ans: H. hepaticus; male A/JCr and B6C3F1 (p 88)
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26. An increase in hepatic haemangiosarcoma due to H. hepaticus has been noted in?
Ans: Male B6C3F1 mice (p 88)
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27. What strains of mice are resistant to H. hepaticus hepatitis?
Ans: C57BL/6 mice
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28. What strains of mice are susceptible to H. hepaticus hepatitis?
Ans: A/JCr, C3H/HeNCr, and SJL/NCr mice
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29. PCR does not differentiate Helicobacter spp. What method is used for molecular speciation?
Ans: Restriction fragment length polymorphism (p 88)
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30. What treatment regimen has been used to successfully treat Helicobacter infection?
Ans: Amoxicillin, metranidazole, and bismuth q 2 weeks daily gavage (p 90)
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31. What is the genus and species for the disease Salmonellosis?
Ans: Salmonella choleraesuis (p 90)
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32. Salmonella enteritidis is a gram-negative rod that rarely ferments?
Ans: Lactose (p 90)
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33. What nutritional deficiency has an attenuating effect on Salmonella infection in mice and how does it appear to promote bacterial growth and enhance virulence?
Ans: Iron; iron overload (p 90)
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34. What Salmonella organism has been associated with chronic arthritis?
Ans: S. enteritidis (p 91)
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35. _______________ lesions are particularly characteristic of chronic salmonellosis, especially of the liver?
Ans: Granulomatous (p 91)
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36. What tissue for culture may be more reliable for detecting Salmonella?
Ans: Mesenteric lymph nodes; fecal shedding is intermittent (p 91)
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37. Streptobacillus moniliformis is known to cause?
Ans: Rat bite fever; Haverhill fever (p 91)
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38. Streptobacillus moniliformis has an affinity for?
Ans: Joints (p 91)
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39. Which Corynebacterium spp. has been associated with hyperkeratosis?
Ans: C. bovis (p 92)
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40. Corynebacterial keratoconjunctivitis has been reported in which strain of mice?
Ans: C57BL/6 (p 92)
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41. Which Corynebacterium spp. is associated with cervical lymphadenopathy and arthritis?
Ans: C. kutscheri (p 92)
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42. Hyperkeratosis due to C. bovis is typically more severe in ________ mice than in ______mice?
Ans: glabrous; haired (p 92)
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43. Which species of Staphylococcus is nonpathogenic?
Ans: S. epidermidis (p 93)
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44. Pathogenic staphylococci are typically coagulase ___?
Ans: Positive (p 93)
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45. Which Staphylococcus is coagulase-negative?
Ans: S. xylosis (p 93 note) (Staph. epidermidis is coagulase negative too).
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46. Which strains of mice are most susceptible to Staphylococcus spp.?
Ans: C57BL/6, C3H, DBA, and BALB/c mice (p 93)
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47. Most streptococcal infections in laboratory mice are caused by what
- (classification) Streptococcus?
- Ans: ?-hemolytic, Lancefield�s group C (p 94)
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48. What Streptococcus spp. has been isolated from visceral abscesses of immunocompetent mice?
Ans: S. equisimilis (p 94)
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Infection with ?�hemolytic streptococci can cause inflammatory lesions affecting _________ and __________?
Ans: Kidney; heart (p 94)
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49. E. coli must be differentiated from?
Ans: Citrobacter rodentium and MHV, especially in immunodeficient mice (p 94)
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50. Name the two Klebsiella organisms found in mice?
Ans: K. pneumoniae and K. oxytoca (p 95)
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51. Name the two mycobacteria known to be pathogenic for laboratory mice?
Ans: M. avium-intracellulare and M. lepraemurium (p 95)
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52. Which species of mycobacteria has been a historical model for human leprosy?
Ans: M. lepraemurium (p 95)
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53. What is the histologic hallmark for M. lepraemurium?
Ans: Perivascular granulomatosis with an accumulation of large, foamy epithehoid macrophages (lepra cells) packed with acid-fast bacilli (p 95)
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54. What organ is commonly affected by Proteus miribilis?
Ans: Kidney (p 95)
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55. Name the genus, species and serovar of Leptospirosis that has been reported on several occasions in laboratory mice?
Ans: Leptospira interrogans serovar ballum (p 95)
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56. The primary natural vector of Eperythrozoon coccoides is?
Ans: Polyplax serrata (p 96)
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57. Eperythrozoon coccoides can be transmitted to mice from contaminated?
Ans: biological products such as transplantable tumors or blood products (p 96)
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58. How is Eperythrozoon coccoides diagnosed?
Ans: Romanowsky stain or indirect immunofluorescence (p 96)
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59. Eperythrozoon coccoides potentiates coincidental viral infections in mice. Name three agents that demonstrate this?
Ans: MHV (clearly) and LCMV and LDV (suspected) (p 96)
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60. Nigg agent is thought to be responsible for a noteworthy infection in mice. What infectious agent is it associated with?
Ans: Chlamydia trachomatis (p 96)
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61. Chlamydia trachomatis produces what type of inclusion bodies?
Ans: Glycogen-positive intracytoplasmic inclusions (p 96)
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62. Pneumocystis carinii is a significant disease threat to?
Ans: Immunodeficient mice (p 97)
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63. Pneumocystis carinii is clinically severe in immunodeficient mice because they are lacking in what cell?
Ans: T lymphocytes to suppress infection (p 96)
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64. Gross lesions of Pneumocystis carinii are?
Ans: Lungs are rubbery and fail to deflate (p 96)
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65. What is the most common fungal agent of mice?
Ans: Trichophyton mentagrophytes (p 98)
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66. Describe the appearance of Giardia muris?
Ans: Pear-shaped flagellated organism with an anterior sucking disk (p 98)
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67. Giardia muris infects the __________ of _______, _______, and __________?
Ans: Duodenum; mice, rats and hamsters (p 98)
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68. Giardia muris organisms can be recognized on wet mounts by what characteristic movements?
Ans: Rolling and tumbling (p 98)
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69. Describe the appearance of Spironucleus muris?
Ans: Elongated pear-shaped bilaterally symmetrical flagellated protozoan that is small than Giardia muris and lacks an anterior sucking disk (p 98)
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70. Spironucleus muris infects the __________ of _______ and __________?
Ans: Duodenum, usually the crypts of Lieberk?hn; mice and hamsters (p 98-99)
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71. Spironucleus muris organisms can be recognized on wet mounts by what characteristic movements?
Ans: By their small size and horizontal or zigzag movement (p 99)
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72. What protozoal organism that infects mice, increases sensitivity to irradiation?
Ans: Spironucleus muris (p 99)
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73. Tritrichomonas muris resides in the ________, ________, and _______ _________?
Ans: Cecum, colon, and small intestine (p 99)
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74. Tritrichomonas muris affects _______, ________, and _________?
Ans: Mice, rats and hamsters (p 99)
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75. Name the coccidial agent that occurs in the epithelial cells of the large intestine of mice?
Ans: Eimeria falciformis (p 99)
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76. Name the agent that causes renal coccidiosis?
Ans: Klossiella muris (p 99)
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77. Entamoeba muris resides in the ________ and _________?
Ans: Cecum and colon (p 99)
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78. Entamoeba muris affects _______, ________, and _________?
Ans: Mice, rats and hamsters (p 99)
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79. Encephalitozoon cuniculi affects what species?
Ans: Rabbits, mice, rats, guinea pigs, dogs, NHPs, humans, and other mammals (p 99)
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