-
Fetal retinoid syndrome is caused by?
isotretinoin( retinoic acid )
-
*Thalidomide syndrome causes what?
malformed limbs
-
Thalidomide was used as what?
Sedative
-
Accutane is also known as?
isotretinoin
-
Development is controlled by?
Morphogens
-
What is responsible for the decrease in plasticity of cells?
Epigenetic programming
-
Isotretinoin is also known as?
Retinoic acid
-
Ability to compensate for loss or injury of cells is called?
Regulative development
-
Ability to compensate for loss or injury of cells is seen when?
during early embryogenesis
-
Inability to compensate for loss or injury of cells is seen in what type of development?
Mosaic development
-
Natural reprogramming is seen in what organism?
salamander
-
What are the 3 axis?
- cranial-caudal
- dorsal ventral
- left right
-
What type of genes in development have homeodomains?
Hox Genes
-
What genes regulate mophogenesis?
Hox Genes
-
3' hox genes code for what part of the embryo?
cranial end
-
5' hox genes code for what part of the embryo?
caudal end
-
Mutation in HoxD13 causes what?
Synpolydactyly
-
What is the human homolog of hedgehog?
sonic hedgehog
-
What morphogen induces formation of floor plate?
sonic hedge hog
-
What secretes hedgehog?
Notochord
-
What is responsible for different expressivity in defects of hedgehog signaling?
concentration of the morphogen
-
What is lissencephaly?
Smooth Brain
-
Miller-Dicker Syndrome is caused by a mutation of what gene?
LIS gene
-
Defective cell migration results in what 2 syndromes?
- Hirshsprung
- Waardenburg syndrome
-
Loss of PAX3 leads to what syndrome?
Waardenburg syndrome
-
What is heterochromatic Irides?
2 different colored eyes
-
DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a deletion of what gene?
TBX1 gene
-
Tbx4 gene codes for what?
hindlimbs
-
Tbx5 codes for what?
forelimbs
-
What are the defects caused by a 22q11 deletion?
- cleft palate
- abnormal facies
- thymic aplasia
- cardiac defects
- hypocalcemia--due to parathyroid aplasia
-
What is the HLA haplotype associated with DM1?
HLA-DR3 and 4
-
What is the HLA haplotype associated with Ankylosing Spondylosis?
HLA-DR 27
-
What is AGE?
Advanved glycosylated end product
-
Insulin has what type of a disulfide bond?
single intrachain
-
Regulated development?
- taking a cell out of an embryo and testing for a condition
- cells have high plasticity so the fetus is not affected
-
When is amniocentesis performed?
at 16th week
-
How is gestation period determined?
from the last menstrual cycle
-
What protein is used to screen for neural tube defects?
alpha- fetoprotein
-
3 types of ?
- malformation
- dysformation
- distruction
-
In what conditions is alpha-fetoprotein increased?
neural tube defects
-
What is responsible for nuchal translusency?
- fluid accumulation--edema
- symptomatic of Down Syndrome
-
What are the 4 markers that are sampled in second trimester?
- unconjugated estriol
- AFP
- Free Beta Hcg
- Inhibin A
-
In what disorder is Inhibin A elevated?
Trisomy 21
-
What are the 3 markers sampled in first trimester?
- Nuchal Translucency
- PAPP-A
- Free beta hCG
-
What is used to determine fetal age?
Ultrasonography
-
How can Nuchal Translucency be detected?
thru ultrasonography
-
What TF is used for proximal limb?
TBX5
-
What TF is used for hindlimb?
TBX4
-
What finds are seen in ch 22 q11 deletion?
- cleft palate
- abnormal facies
- thymic aplasia
- cardiac defects
- Hypocalcemia
-
What technique is used to look at embryo's genome during invitro fertilization
-
In order to be called true mosaicism what must be present?
multiple colonies from several primary cultures
-
How would pseudomosaicism present?
a single unusual Cell
-
Methylmalonic aciduria is seen in what catabolic pathway?
Odd chain FA degradation
-
What are the advantages of placental cord blood transplantation over bone marrow transplantation?
- immunocompatibility
- low risk of graft vs host disease
- widely available..from relatives
-
What is the option of treatment of cystic fibrosis and alpha one antitrypsin deficiency?
liver transplantation
-
Gene therapy is used in what types of cell lines?
- somatic cells
- NOT GERM Cells
-
What is the difference between cDNA and Genomic DNA?
- cDNA only mRNA only exons
- Genomic DNA---mRNA---i.e...exons plus introns
-
What are the two ways of introducing genes?
-
What removes a gene from a persons DNA?
restriction endonuclease
-
What condtitions could be caused by transposons?
- DM
- Neurofibromatosis
- Duchene muscular dystrophy
-
In gene therapy what is the gene targeted in?
- Hemophilia A--factor 8
- Hemophilia B--Factor 9
- Cystic Fibrosis--CFTR
- Familial hypercholesterolemia---LDL receptor
- Alpha one antitrypsin--alpha one antitrypsin gene
- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy--dystrophin gene
-
What drug should be prohibited in Porphyria?
phenobarbital
-
Penicilamine is used to treat what conditon?
Wilsons disease
-
What is accumulated in Refsum's disease?
Phytanic acid
-
Refsum's disease is caused by a deficiency of what enzyme?
alpha hydroxylation
-
HbF is advantageous in what condition?
Sickle cell
-
Antagonists of tumor suppressors are ?
tumore suppressors
-
What are 6 tumor suppressor genes?
- Gate keepers
- RB1
- p53
- Caretakers
- BRCA1, BRCA2
- MLH1, MSH2
-
Tumor suppressors usually require how many mutations to become oncogenes?
2
-
What is lost in tumor suppressor genes?
heterozygosity--familial case
-
Pre-replicative damage is accomplished by what protein?
p53
-
What does p53 do?
allows for transcription of p21
-
What tumor suppressor is located on ch 13?
Rb1
-
-
Anti-apoptotic gene?
bcl2
-
What occurs in a person that inherits a defective retinoblastoma in order for the person to get retinoblastoma?
the person gets a mutation on the other gene
-
What inactivates E2F?
phosphorylation
-
Normally Rb is bound to what?
E2F
-
Li-Fraumeni is inherited in what fashion?
Autosomal Dominant
-
p53 is located on what chromosome?
17
-
What is the mode of action of p53?
- p53 binds to damaged DNA
- induces p21 transcription
- p21 inhibits activity of cdk2
-
What are the the functions of p53?
- stops G1-S progression
- induces apoptosis
-
NF1 is found on what chromosome?
17
-
In order for Ras to be active it needs to bind what?
GTP
-
2 genes involved in breast cancer?
-
What are the genes located on chromosome 17?
-
DSB is done in what 3 ways?
- end-join repair
- homologous recombination
-
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis is inherited in what fashion?
autosomal dominant
-
HNPCC are caused by what genes?
-
MLH1, MSH2 are involved in what type of repair?
mismatch repair
-
Hypermethylating does what to genes?
shuts down transcription
-
What is the hall mark of reduced penetrance?
skipped generation
-
p53 check point in G1/S checks for what?
pre-replicative DNA damage
-
What are the 2 functions of p53?
- -controls G1/S
- - apoptosis
-
Lish nodules and cafe au leit spots are characteristic of what condition?
neurofibromatosis
-
What genes of importance are located on ch 17?
p53, NF1, BRCA1
-
What genes of importance are located on chromosome 13?
-
BRCA involved in what kind of repair mechanism?
Double strand break
-
What keeps beta catenin under control?
APC
-
Aflotoxin B1 is produced by what?
Aspergillus Flavus Oryzae
-
Treatment for Urea cycle disorder?
Na benzoate
-
When is chorionic villi sampling performed?
week 11
-
Epstein-Barr virus causes what cancer in african children?
Burkitt's lymphoma
-
Pregnancy at what maternal age is the risk of fetal abnormalitites equal to the risk posed by performing amniocentesis?
35
-
Alpha feto protein are obtained by what two routes?
- fetus--amniocentesis
- mother-serum
-
When is amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling performed respectively?
- amniocentesis-->16th week
- chorionic villus sampling--->10th week
-
What is cordiocentesis?
sampling of umbilical cord blood
-
When are chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, cordiocentesis performed?
- chorionic villus samling--10th week
- amniocentesis--16th week
- cordiocentesis--20 th week
-
What is used to test for open NTD?
maternal serum Alpha feto-protein
-
What marker is increased in all aneuploidies?
nuchal translucency
-
In what trisomy is hCG increased?
down syndrome
-
Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP) is depressed in which aneuplodies?
all of them
-
hcG is depressed in all aneuploidies except what?
Down syndrome
-
Inhibin A is depressed in all trisomies except what?
Trisomy 21
-
Alpha feto protein is elevated in what condition?
NTD
-
What are two amniotic markers elevated for Down Syndrome?
- human chorionic gonadotropin
- Inhibin A
-
Which procedure allows for biochemical analysis for metabolic diseases?
chorionic villi sampling
-
Malformations are caused by what kind of factors?
- intrinsic
- during 1st trimester
-
Dysformations are caused when?
during second trimester
-
Disruptions result from what?
destruction of normal fetal tissue
-
Pax6 is a TF needed for the development of what?
eye
-
DiGeorge syndrome is caused by the deletion of what gene?
TBX1
-
What is Lissencephaly?
What is it caused by?
Accompanies what syndrome?
- smooth brain
- failed cell migration
- Lis Gene
- Miller-Dicker syndrome
-
PAX3 is involved in what syndrome?
What are the symptoms?
- Waardenburg syndrome
- deafness
- pigment malformations
-
Hirshsprung disease involves what gene?
RET
-
Hirshsprung disease results from faulty migration of what type of cells?
neural crest----absence of parasympathetic ganglions
-
What gradient establishes the anterio-posterior axis?
shh
-
Fetal retinoid syndrome is caused by what?
use of isotretinoin
-
Thalidomide causes what kind of birth defects?
limb defects
-
Epiblast of the inner cell mass will become what?
embryo
-
Hypoblast of the inner cell mass will become what?
placenta
-
Ability to compensate for loss of cells is called what type of development?
regulative development
-
Patterning involves what genes?
HOX genes
-
Hox genes code for what?
TF
-
-
-
Greig-cephalopolysyndactyly is caused by what gene?
GLI
-
Rubestein-Taybi syndrome is caused by what?
CBP mutation
-
Most animal cell proliferation is regulated at what stage?
G1
-
What cells are controlled in G2 phase?
oocytes
-
MCM bind where?
origin of replication
-
Mutation in ATM causes what?
Ataxia Telangiectesia
-
Double stranded breaks are recognized by what ?
ATM
-
p21 inhibits what CDK and cyclin?
CDK2/cyclin E
-
What factors stimulate the synthesis of cyclin D?
Ras
-
What inhibits bcl2/bclx and activates bax and bak?
nuxa, puma
-
in the apoptotic pathway what activates puma, noxa?
p53
-
In the FAS induced apoptotic pathway, what activates bax?
bid, bad
-
Normally bcl-2 is bound to what?
bax
-
Puma/Noxa binds to what? releasing bax?
bcl-2
-
What repairs double strand breaks?
BRCA
-
What genes play a role in regulating estrogen and androgen receptors?
BRCA
-
What syndrome is produced by a microdeletion of the p arm of chromosome 5?
Cri-du-chat
-
What is the only condition which has been treated by gene therapy?
SCID
-
Patients with retinoblastoma are at risk for developing what?
osteosarcoma
-
Blood transfusions in thalasemia may produce what adverse effect?
iron overload
-
Ornithine Transcarbamoylase deficiency is treated with what?
sodium benzoate
-
How is familiar hypercholeserolemia treated?
by introducing bile acid binding agents
-
Phlebotomy is used to treat what?
Hereditary hemochromatosis
-
Peniciliamine is used to treat what condition?
copper accumulation if Wilson's disease
-
Treatment for gout?
Allopurol
-
What is used to prevent the degradatio of the defective CFTR protein in mice?
circumin
-
PEG helps to improve symptoms of what ?
adenosine deaminase deficiency
-
How is Gaucher's disease treated??
by targeting glucosyl ceramidase to lysosomes where it is deficient
-
How are premature stop codons treated?
by incorporating tyrosine and allowing for translation to continue
-
In what disease are stop codons treated by gentamycin?
Cystic Fibrosis
-
What condition is treated by increasing gene expression?
hereditary angioedema
-
Decitabine (Cytidine analog) treats Sickle cell how?
by promoting the the production of HbF which impedes polymerization of Hbs
-
RNAi is used to degrade RNA that synthesizes long polyglutamine tract in what condition?
Huntingtons
-
When are cancers occuring at an earlier age, bilateral and multiple?
When they are hereditary
-
What oncogene causes Hereditary Papillary Renal Carcinoma?
MET
-
What causes Mutliple Endocrine Adenomatousus?
RET
-
RET and MET are both what?
tyrosine receptor kinases
-
What tumor suppressor gene is involved in Li Fraumeni cancer?
p53
-
What is the 2 hit hypothesis of cancer?
both alleles need to be mutated in order to get a tumor
-
What are 3 gate keepers who are tumor suppressors gene?
-
Loss of what gene leads to accumulation of beta catenin and its inducing of cell division?
APC
-
MLH1 and MSH2 participate in what?
DNA mismatch repair
-
What 2 conditions are caused by a faulty nucleotide excision repair system?
- Cockanye syndrome
- Xeroderma Pigmenotosa
-
Loss of function of Ras mediated apoptosis leads to what condition?
Hereditary Lymphoma
-
Aflotoxin causes mutation of what tumor suppressor?
p51
-
Type II hypercholesterolemia is caused by a mutation on what gene?
19
-
The gene for Friedrich's Ataxia is located on what chromosome?
9
-
The gene for Myotonic Dystrophy is located on what chromosome?
19
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