RegReview

  1. Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?



    C. Percutaneous angioplasty
  2. The housing surrounding an x-ray tube functions to
    1. retain heat within the glass envelope.
    2. protect from electric shock.
    3. keep leakage radiation to a minimum.




    B. 2 and 3 only
  3. To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient




    C. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.
  4. What does the number 8 in Figure A identify?
    Image Upload 1



    A. Medial malleolus
  5. A compensating filter is used to



    B. even out widely differing tissue densities.
  6. Which of the following
    information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kVp, using the
    appropriate x-ray tube rating chart?
    1. mA and exposure time
    2. Focal spot size
    3. Imaging-system speed




    B. 1 and 2 only
  7. High-kilovoltage exposure factors are usually required for radiographic examinations using
    1. water-soluble, iodinated media.
    2. a negative contrast agent.
    3. barium sulfate.




    A. 3 only
  8. The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the



    D. trapezium.
  9. Late or long-term effects of radiation exposure are generally represented by which of the following dose-response curves?



    C. Linear nonthreshold
  10. When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the
    1. male pelvis is deeper.
    2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°.
    3. female greater sciatic notch is wider.




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  11. The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses



    D. exposure in air.
  12. In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, the
    1. tibiofibular joint is visualized.
    2. talotibial joint is visualized.
    3. plantar surface should be vertical.




    C. 2 and 3 only
  13. In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the



    D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
  14. In classifying intravenous (IV) contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines



    B. osmolality.
  15. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?



    D. Voiding cystourethrogram
  16. The rate of chemical replenishment in automatic processing is based on



    B. amount of film processed.
  17. Patient dose increases as fluoroscopic



    A. FOV decreases.
  18. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed



    A. 15° cephalad to C4.
  19. The function of the 5-minute fluoroscopy timer is to



    D. alert the fluoroscopist that 5 minutes has elapsed.
  20. If the radiographer
    performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought
    against the radiographer?



    B. Battery
  21. Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to man-made radiation?



    C. 90%
  22. In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure A made?
    Image Upload 2



    • B. 45° medial oblique
    • The fact that the distal tibiofibular articulation is visualized is evidence that this is a 45° medial (internal) oblique. A 15° to 20° oblique is performed for the ankle mortise (joint) and would demonstrate some superimposition of the distal tibia and fibula.
  23. Which of the following would be the safest interval of time for a fertile woman to undergo abdominal radiography without significant concern for irradiating a recently fertilized ovum?



    C. The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
  24. Protective or "reverse" isolation is required in which of the following conditions?
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Burns
    3. Leukemia




    D. 2 and 3 only
  25. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine was made at 40 inches using 100 mA and -second exposure. If it is desired to increase the distance to 72 inches, what
    should be the new mA, all other factors remaining the same?



    D. 300
  26. The carpal scaphoid may be demonstrated in the following projection(s) of the wrist:
    1. PA oblique
    2. PA with ulnar flexion/deviation
    3. PA with forearm elevated 20°




    A. 1, 2, and 3
  27. Early symptoms of acute radiation syndrome include
    1. leukopenia.
    2. nausea and vomiting.
    3. Cataracts.




    A. 1 and 2 only
  28. Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
    1. Intercondyloid fossa
    2. Intertrochanteric crest
    3. Intertubercular groove




    D. 1 and 2 only
  29. The operation of personnel radiation monitoring devices depends on which of the following?
    1. Ionization
    2. Luminescence
    3. Thermoluminescence




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  30. All of the following have an effect on patient dose except



    D. focal spot size.
  31. With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20° cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?



    C. Rami
  32. A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed



    A. an ampule.
  33. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?



    D. LPO
  34. What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a -mm lead equivalent apron at 100 kVp provide?



    D. 75%
  35. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images seen below?
    Image Upload 3
    1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
    2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
    3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.




    A. 2 and 3 only
  36. Which of the following is the correct formula for determining heat units for a three-phase, 12-pulse x-ray machine?



    A. mA x time x kVp x 1.41
  37. Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure A?
    Image Upload 4



    B. Zygomatic arch
  38. A minor reaction to the intravenous (IV) administration of a contrast agent can include
    1. a few hives.
    2. nausea.
    3. flushed face.




    D. 1, 2, and 3
  39. Which ethical principle is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them?



    D. Autonomy
  40. Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of HU
    produced with a given exposure using three-phase, six-pulse equipment?



    C. mA x time x kVp x 1.35
  41. In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?



    C. tangential metatarsals/toes
  42. A grid is usually employed
    1.when radiographing a large or dense body part.
    2.when using high kilovoltage.
    3.when less patient dose is required.




    A. 1 and 2 only
  43. The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is



    D. emphysema.
  44. Which of the following examinations might require the use of 120 kVp?
    1. AP abdomen
    2. Chest radiograph
    3. Barium-filled stomach




    C. 2 and 3 only
  45. Which of the following body parts is (are) included in whole-body dose?
    1. Gonads
    2. Blood-forming organs
    3. Extremities




    A. 1 and 2 only
  46. The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that is responsible for radiographic contrast but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is



    C. the photoelectric effect.
  47. Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for



    B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage.
  48. As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected?
    1. Magnification increases
    2. Brightness decreases
    3. Quality increases




    A. 1, 2, and 3
  49. Underexposure of a radiograph can be caused by all of the following except insufficient



    A. SID.
  50. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is



    A. proximal.
  51. To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm,
    1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation.
    2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation.
    3. perform the examination in the recumbent position.




    C. 1 and 3 only
  52. All of the following are related to recorded detail except



    C. grid ratio.
  53. In radiography of a large abdomen, which of the following is (are) effective way(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR?
    1. Use of close collimation
    2. Use of compression devices
    3. Use of a low-ratio grid




    A. 1 and 2 only
  54. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as



    C. neurogenic.
  55. A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all of the following procedures, except



    D. upper GI series.
  56. A patient with an upper respiratory tract infection is transported to the radiology department for a chest examination. Who should be masked?
    1. Technologist
    2. Transporter
    3. Patient




    B. 3 only
  57. The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is



    D. hemoptysis.
  58. Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position?



    D. Orthopnea
  59. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?



    A. Ulnar flexion/deviation
  60. Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include
    1. increased urination.
    2. sweet-smelling breath.
    3. extreme thirst.




    B. 1, 2, and 3
  61. Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include
    1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb
    2. both joints must be included in long bone studies
    3. two views, at 90° to each other, are required




    B. 2 and 3 only
  62. CPR procedure for infants differs from that of adults with respect to
    1. hand placement.
    2. number of compressions.
    3. volume of air delivered.




    C. 1 and 3 only
  63. The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and film is



    C. tomography.
  64. Which of the following will result as tube current increases?



    D. An increase in x-ray photon quantity
  65. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the



    D. gastric or bowel mucosa.
  66. Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to which of the following examinations?
    1. Double-contrast GI
    2. Oral cholecystogram
    3. IV urogram




    B. 1 only
  67. What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to CFR 20?



    D. 0.25 mm Pb
  68. The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the



    B. nasal cannula.
  69. Recorded detail is directly related to
    1.source-image distance (SID).
    2.tube current.
    3.focal spot size.




    D. 1 only
  70. Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients?



    B. Geriatric patients
  71. Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?



    D. Myelogram
  72. Focal spot blur is greatest



    B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam.
  73. Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart?
    1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
    2. Medical history
    3. Informed consent




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  74. Which of the following functions to increase the mA?



    A. Increase in heat of the filament
  75. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
    1. Scapular Y projection
    2. Inferosuperior axial
    3. Transthoracic lateral




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  76. The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography?
    1. High-ratio grid
    2. Fractional focal spot
    3. Direct exposure film




    A. 2 only
  77. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?



    C. Medial oblique
  78. All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except



    A. pancreatic function.
  79. All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except



    B. weight bearing.
  80. Which of the following cell types has the greatest radiosensitivity?



    C. Lymphocytes
  81. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
    1. Intervertebral disk spaces
    2. C3–7 cervical bodies
    3. Apophyseal joints




    C. 1 and 2 only
  82. In which of the following ways can higher radiographic contrast be obtained in abdominal radiography?
    1.By using lower kilovoltage
    2.By using a contrast medium
    3.By limiting the field size




    A. 1, 2, and 3
  83. Fractional-focus tubes, with a 0.3-mm focal spot or smaller, have special application in



    D. magnification radiography.
  84. The photoelectric effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and



    C. an inner-shell electron.
  85. Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body



    A. in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface.
  86. What is the effect on RBE as LET increases?



    A. As LET increases, RBE increases.
  87. The focal spot-to-table distance, in mobile fluoroscopy, must be



    D. a minimum of 12 inches.
  88. A parallel-plate ionization
    chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel through
    it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?




    B. Automatic exposure control
  89. The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the
    1. patient.
    2. fluoroscopist.
    3. technologist.




    D. 2 and 3 only
  90. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of



    D. invasion of privacy.
  91. The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
    1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.
    2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.
    3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).



    C. 1 and 2 only
  92. The term spectral matching refers to the fact that film sensitivity must be matched with the



    A. proper color screen fluorescence.
  93. The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?



    D. Right iliac
  94. Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from



    A. Compton scatter.
  95. The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate



    D. hiatal hernia.
  96. A radiolucent contrast agent
    1.absorbs a high number of x-ray photons.
    2.causes anatomy to appear dark on the radiograph.
    3.is composed of elements with low atomic numbers.




    C. 2 and 3 only
  97. Which of the following developing agents has the biggest impact on the shoulder of the characteristic curve?



    A. Hydroquinone
  98. Which of the following is likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose?
    1. Beam restriction
    2. Low kV and high mAs factors
    3. Grids




    C. 1 only
  99. The primary center of ossification in long bones is the



    D. diaphysis.
  100. If 0.05 second was selected for a particular exposure, what mA would be necessary to produce 30 mAs?



    C. 600
  101. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways?



    A. Recorded detail is directly related to SID.

    As the distance from focal spot to IR (SID) increases, so does recorded detail.
  102. A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations, is the



    A. phototimer.

    AEC devices (phototimers and ionization chambers) automatically terminate the x-ray exposure once a predetermined quantity of x-rays has penetrated the patient, thus ensuring consistent results.
  103. How is the mAs adjusted in an AEC system as the film–screen speed combination is decreased?



    D. The mAs remains unchanged as film–screen speed decreases.

    If a slower-speed screen cassette–image receptor is placed in the Bucky tray, the AEC has no way of recognizing it as different and will time the exposure for the system that it is programmed for.
  104. Cassette front material can be made of which of the following?
    1. Carbon fiber
    2. Magnesium
    3. Lead




    B. 1 and 2 only
  105. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the



    A. epiphysis

    The secondary ossification center, the epiphysis, is separated from the diaphysis in early life by a layer of cartilage, the epiphyseal plate. As bone growth takes place, the epiphysis becomes part of the larger portion of bone and the epiphyseal plate disappears
  106. The biologic effect on an individual is dependent on which of the following?
    1. Type of tissue interaction(s)
    2. Amount of interactions
    3. Biologic differences




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  107. The patient positioned for a T-tube cholangiography is in a



    C. 15° to 20° RPO.

    A slight oblique (15° to 20°) will allow visualization of the biliary tract free of superimposition from the vertebrae. The LPO would place the biliary vessels over the spine.
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70888
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RegReview
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