Which of the following can be described as a change in tissue type from one adult form to another due to an adaptation to stress?
A. transformation
B. hyperplasia
C. agenesis
D. metaplasia
Metaplasia
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present or associated with the early stage of accute inflammation?
A. hyperemia
B. fibroblastic proliferation
C. increased neutrophils
D. tissue exudates
Fibroblastic proliferation
Pedal edema is a prominent feature of which condition?
A. cirrhosis
B. nephritic syndrome
C. kwashiorkor
D. right heart failure
Right heart failure
Red infarcts are found in all of the tissues EXCEPT following:
A. heart
B. lung
C. liver
D. intestine
Lung
What is the pathogenetic mechanism of ischemia?
A. anemia
B. reduced arterial blood flow
C. carbon monoxide poisoning
D. cardiorespiratory failure
Reduced arterial blood flow
Which is characterized by localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced, acute, necrotizing vasculitis?
A. arthrus reaction
B. serum sickness
C. anaphylaxis
D. tuberculin reaction
Arthrus reaction
Mask-like face, claw-like fingers, fibrosis of the esophagus, and hypertension characterize which condition?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. scleroderma
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Sjogren's syndrome
Scleroderma
Which condition affects both arteries and veins?
A. atheroslerosis
B. Monckenberg's sclerosis
C. varicosity
D. Buerger's disease
Buerger's disease
Which is a functional vasospastic disorder which affects the small arteries of the extremities?
A. carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Raynaud's disease
C. arteriosclerosis obliterans
D. Buerger's disease
Raynaud's disease
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either hematemesis or melena is most common caused by ________.
A. hiatal hernia
B. peptic ulcer
C. espophageal trauma
D. gastritis
Peptic ulcer
Which of the following is the joint disease in which the articular cartilage is the primary tissue involved?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lyme disease
C. ochronosis
D. osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis
Periosteal reactive bone formation on the external surface is characteristically seen in:
A. osteochondroma
B. enchondroma
C. osteosarcoma
D. nonossifying fibroma
Osteosarcoma
Which of the following is the benign tumor of striated muscle?
A. lipoma
B. leyomyoma
C. lymphoma
D. rhabdomyoma
Rhabdomyoma
Which of the following is associated with Parkinson's disease?
A. there is amyloid angiopathy with frontal and temporal cortical atrophy
B. there is a spongiform vacuolar cortex with putamen degeneration
C. there are senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles with astrogliosis
D. Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
Which of the following is NOT true regarding multiple sclerosis?
A. it is an auto-immune disease
B. it is a demyelinating disorder
C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
D. it is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes involving the brain and spinal cord
There are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
Postinfectious ascending paralysis and radiculoneuropathy are characteristics of what condition?
A. Guillian-Barre sysndrome
B. myasthenia gravis
C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. multiple sclerosis
Guillian-Barre syndrome
In males, which of the following is the most common cause of both bilateral hydroureters and hydronephrosis?
A. acute pylonephritis
B. benign prostate hyperplasia
C. stones in the renal pelvis
D. hypospadias
Benign prostate hyperplasia
What is the characteristic pathological feature of malignant mesothelioma?
A. primary related to smoking
B. histologiacally, it is adenocarcinoma
C. a localized focal lesion in pleura
D. accompanied by pleural effusion
Accompanied by pleural effusion
The primary cause of endometrial hyperplasia is a high serum level of which hormone?
A. progesterone
B. dihydrotestosterone
C. estrogen
D. adrenocortocotrophic homone
Estrogen
What is the main cause of anemia in chronic renal failure?
A. deficiency of vitamin B12
B. deficiency of erythropoietin
C. deficiency of folic acid
D. deficiency of hematopoietic stem cells
Deficiency of erythropoietin
Which of the following is indicative of left heart failure?
A. pitting pedal edema
B. neck vein distention
C. orthopnea
D. ascites
Orthopnea
What is happmark of hypocalcemia?
A. bone pain
B. nephrolithiasis
C. tetany
D. peptic ulcers
Tetany
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency may lead to which of the following?
A. chronic bronchitis
B. bronchial asthma
C. emphysema
D. cystic fibrosis
Emphysema
Which of the following pathologies is responsible for left cardiac concentric hypertrophy?
A. pulmonary emphysema secondary to smoking
B. thrombus-induced pulmonary artery obstruction
C. sustained diastolic pressure over 90 mm Hg
D. myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
Sustained diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg
Which is NOT true of giant cell arteritis?
A. it is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
B. it involves inflammation of the temporal artery
C.it may lead to visual loss
D. the condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
The condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
In what form is most body fat stored? (Which form of energy has almost unlimited capacity for storage in teh body?) A. fatty acids
B. triglycerides
C. cholesterol
D. phospholipids
Triglycerides
In order for fatty acids to be oxidized in the mitochondria they need to be converted to what compound?
A. glycerol
B. pyruvate
C. acetyl-CoA
D. triglyceride
Acetyl-CoA
Ketones are produced from
A. cholesterol
B. hormones
C. amino groups
D. acetly-CoA
Cholesterol
Which hormone is condsidered to be an antagonist of lipolysis (Which hormones below have similar functions regarding energy metabolism?) A. insulin
B. epinephrine
C. glucagon
D. thyroxine
Insulin
What organ provides the major sites for lipprotein formation from exogenously derived lipids? (endogenously?) A. pancreas
B. adipocytes
C. intestine
D. liver
Liver
Branched chain amino acids are metabolized mainly in:
A. liver
B. muscle
C. kidney
D. heart
Muscle
Extracellular amonia is transported to the liver by?
L-glutamate
What is the molecule that the enzymes work on called?
Substrate
Product of Pyruvate?
Acetyl-CoA
Where does the conversion of pyruvate to its product tak place?
PDC=Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex
What structure does the following represent:
C-OOH
/
C=O
/
C
/
C
/
C-OOH
Ketopentose
Nitrogenous wastes are converted to urea in what organ?
Liver
Pantothenic acid is needed for the production of?
Co Enzyme A
A deficiency of B5 causes:
Burning Foot Syndrome
As the density of lipoproteins goes up, _________ goes down and __________ goes up.
down=Triglycerol
up=Protein
What vitamin is responsible for carboxylation?
B7 Biotin
What vitamin is responsible for De-carboxylation?
B1 Thiamine
Most active form of folate?
Tetrahydrofolate
What is an important adjunct in the absorption of glucose?
Achromion
B-oxidation occurs in ___________ and is a _________process
Mitochondia, oxidative
What is needed for the uptake of lipoproteins in the small intestine?
Vitamin K
Megaloblastic anemia is a result from the deficiency of?
B9
Iron deficient anemia equals
Hypochromic Microcytic
What process forms D-oxyribose from RNA?
Oxidation
What kind of process is RNA to DNA?
Reductive
Which cycle contains CoEnzyme Q?
ETC
Anaerobic Glycolysis yields:
2 ATP's
Ketones result from:
Incomplete oxidation of fats
What are the 3 types of ketone bodies produced?
Acetone, acetyl acetate, Beta Hydroxybuterate
What are the Purines?
Adenine and Guanine
What are the Pyrimidines?
Thymine, Uracil and Cytosin
What type of bonds hold DNA strands together?
Hydrogen bonds
What type of bonds hold neucleotides of a single strand together?
Ester bonds
What type of bonds hold base pairs together?
Hydrogen bonds
What is the limiting enzymes in grains?
Lysine
What is the limiting enzyme in corn?
Tryptophan
What is the function of ascorbic acid?
Increase iron absorption collagen formation
What is the most active form of iron?
Fe3+: Ferric
What is the most easily absorbed form of iron?
Fe2+:Ferris
Malate is oxidized to:
Oxaloacetate
What is the most oxidized intermediate in the TCA cycle?
Oxaloacetate
What provides nicotinamide in the body?
Serotonin
*made by tryptophan
What froms melanin
Tyrosine
An amino acid @pH 7 has its isoeletric point at pH 6, it is:
Negatively charged
Every 10 kg of body weight requires _____ g of dietary protein/day?
8 grams
Sucrose can be broken down into:
Glucose and fructose
Most active form of vitamin D?
1,25 dihydroxychole-calciferol
What is the most dominant form of vitamin D in the plasma?
D3
What is the regulating enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?
HMG-CoA Reductase
What is the regulating enzyme of cholemicron biosynthesis?
Lipidprotein Lipase
What is the specific for the elongation of fatty acids in fatty acid biosynthesis?
NADPH
Where is DANPH made?
HMP Shunt
What is the reducing agent in fatty acid biosynthesis?
NADPH
Oxidation of a fatty acid yielding CO2 and H2O also goes through:
Krebb's Cycle and ETC
Most cells can readily synthesize aspartate from:
Oxaloacetate
Branch chain amino acid =
Leucine
Derivatives of tyrosine include:
Thyroxine, epinephrine, norepi and melanin
Greatest source of pectin:
Fruit
A reaction uses glycerol dehydrogenase yields:
Glycerol phosphate
What is responsible for producing endogenous triglycerides?
VLDL
By which mechanism do we eliminate cholesterol?
Feces
What is a sulfur containing polypeptide hormone?
Insulin
What types of bonds are between amino acids?
Peptide bonds
What is a characteristic of spontaneous reactions?
Gibb's Free Energy is negative
How many bases make up a codon?
Three
Acetyl CoA carboxylase catylizes acetyl CoA into?
Molanyl CoA (in fatty acid synthesis)
What is the product of pyruvate that enters the TCA cycle?
Acetyl CoA (from Krebb's cycle/TCA)
Purine nitrogen is derived from ______ and excreted as ________?
Amino acid and uric acid
Protein metabolism is excreted as?
Urea
Muscle metabolism is excreted as?
Creatine
+RNA is responsible for?
Supplying amino acids to complete a specific protein chain
Amino acids are _________ molecules, making them the most powerful and abundant buffers in the body.
Amphoteric
What type of glycocidic bonds are found in glycogen?
Alpha-1, 4 (also Alpha-1, 6 @ branches)
Reverse transcriptase is:
RNA to DNA
Lack of B12 results in a deficiency of?
Methionine
Methionine is used for the remethylization of what?
Homocysteine
What amino acid is converted to indole in the intestines/
Tryptophan (then serotonin)
What carbon source provides a glycerol portion in triglycerides for lipogenesis?
Glucose
What is a 4-carbon glucose precursor?
Fumarate
What is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
ATP
What are the products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
Ribose sugars
What are the products of fatty acid biosynthesis
NADPH
What are mucopholysaccharides?
Glycoseaminoglycans
What type of mucopolysaccharides are found in cartilage?
Chondroitin sulfate
What type of mucopholysaccharides are found in synovial joints?
Hyaluronic Acid
What distinguishes starch from cellulose?
Starch is digestable, cellulose is not.
The biosynthesis of cholesterol begins with?
Acetyl CoA
The reductive steps of fatty acid biosynthesis require?
NADPH
What is the final stage in the complete metabolism of fat?
TCA Cycle
What is the significant intermediate in the cytoplasmic biosynthesis of fatty acids?
Malonyl CoA
Free radicals are the highly reactive substances that result from?
Peroxidation of lipids
Components of triglycerides include?
A glycerol back bone and 3 fatty acids
Homocystine is a product of the demethylization of:
Methionine
How does hydrogenation of vegetable oils affect the melting point?
Raises it
To generate an unsaturated fatty acid, a saturated fatty acid must undergo?
Oxidation
Cholesterol is not a component of:
A. bacon
B. beef fat
C. peanuts
D. port
Peanuts
What is the intermediate in the formation of palmitic acid from Acetyl CoA?
Malonyl CoA
What is the secondary messenger for epinephrine?
Cyclic ANP
Name a sulfur containing amino acid.
Cysteine
What is initially involved in cholesterol synthesis?
Acetyl CoA
What is used with selenium?
Glutathyinperoxidase
Dietary intake of 10g of protein provides __________ kilocalories
10
Carbs provide ________ cals/g
4
Fats provide ________ cals/g
9
Alcohol provides __________cals/g
7
Fructose is a?
The endproduct of anaerobic glycolysis is?
Lactate
Insulin contains?
Sulfur
An endogenously produced carbohydrate polymer comprised of repeating disaccharide units which contain glucosamine is?
Hyaluronic acid/chondroitin sulfate
UDP Glucase is a major intermediate in?
Glycogen synthesis
DNA replication is done in the?
Nucleus
RNA to DNA translation takes place in the?
Cytoplasm
The precursor to prostaglandin?
Arachidonic acid
Linoleic acid is an?
Omega 6 EFA
Arachidonic acid is an?
Omega 6 EFA
Oxidative phosphorylation generates about _____% of ATP produced from glycolysis.
90%
Alpha-ketoglutarate is an interrmediate of?
TCA Cycle
+RNA is part of?
Translation
Loss of lipoprotein lipase results in?
High cylomicrons after a fatty meal
Serotonin and niacin come from?
Tryptophan
Up to 90% of serotonin is made where?
In the gut
What binds to ATP and makes a negative complex?
Magnesium
Selenium is an?
Antioxidant
What helps insulin uptake of glucose?
Chromium
DNA polymerase is needed for?
DNA synthesis
DNA to mRNA is done in the _________, and needs __________ to take place.
Nucleus and RNA polymerase
What inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis?
Cholesterol
What is the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of purines?
Xanthine oxidase
What process causes the formation of pyruvate and oxaloacetate from alanine and aspartate?
Transamination
Transamination requires what vitamin?
B6
What is a high energy compound?
Creatine phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate
Ornithine is an intermediate in which cycle?
Urea cycle
What inhibits fat metabolism?
Insulin
What type of bonds link nucleotides in a single strand?
Ester bonds
Maltose is produced by enzymatic hydrolysis of?
Starch
What carbohydrate by product is derived from the HMPshunt?
Ribose-5-Phosphate
What ion transmits impulses along an axon?
Na+
Vitamin D is important in the absorption and metabolism of?
Ca++ and phosphorus
Most amino acid metabolism requires a coenzyme provided by the bioactive form of?
Pyridoxine
What mechanism causes the greatest loss of sterols?
Intestinal excretions (via feces)
The hydrolysis of lactose yields?
Glucose and galactose
What coenzyme is used with glutathione peridoxase?
Selenium
A diet high in polyunsaturated fat needs ________ to combine to prevent free radicals.
Tocopherol (vitamin E)
Poor appetite, high pyruvic acid in the blood, irritability, tingling in the arms and legs with uncoordination is the definition of?
Beri Beri
Folate deficiencies result in?
Neural tube defects and megoloblastic anemia
Niacin deficiency causes?
Pelegra and 4 D's
A deficiency of riboflavin causes?
Purple tongue and cracks at the corner of mouth
What are the 2 types of Beri Beri?
Wet: Cardiovascular Sy
Dry: PNS
NADH + H2O + 1/2O2 becomes NAD +?
H2O
Triglycerides contain what type of bonds?
Ester
What is responsible for glycogenolysis in the liver?
Glucagon
Phosphate groups are transferred to other compounds by?
Kinase
What is the funtion of phosphatase?
Removes a phosphate group
What is the function of phosphorylase?
Add a phosphate group
Cereal is low in?
Lysine
Corn is low in?
Tryptophan
Ingested cholesterol travels from the digestive tract to the liver in the form of?
Chylomicrons
Undigested cholesterol is carried from the periphery to the liver in the form of?
HDL
What type of bonds link nucleotides in DNA strands?
H+ bonds
The major product of Beta Oxidation is?
Acetyl CoA
The peptide linkage of any peptide bond is between?
Carbon and nitrogen
What are the constituents of a nucleotide?
Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate
A nucleotide consists of?
Nitrogen base and pentose sugar
Km is the measure of?
Affinity an enzyme has for a substrate
Glycogen is monosaccharides held together by:
Alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycoside bonds
Epinephrine causes the hydolysis of glycogen. What causes the cessation of this process and return to the synthesis of glycogen?
High glucose-6-phosphate
What substance has the highest energy per gram?
Fat
GNG in the liver does not include:
Citrate synthase
The most highly oxidized TLA intermediate is?
Oxaloacetate
Dietary lipids usually circulate as?
Chylomicrons through the lymphatics
What base is in DNA but not RNA?
Thiamine
FAD comes from?
Riboflavin
NAD comes from?
Niacin
What are the three ketone bodies?
Acetone
Acedo acetate
Hydroxybutarate
The amino acid precursor of carnitine is?
Lysine
The amino acid that is usually not active optically is?
Glysine
What nitrogen source provides the majority nitrogen in purines?
Glutamine
Glycerol is turned into glucose by?
GNG
Carbon atoms for fatty acid synthesis are transported across the mitochondrial membrane into the cytoplasm in the form of?
Citrate
What type of bonds are broken by ATPase?
Anhydride bonds
The stored form of iron is?
Ferritin
What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytoplasm for GNG
What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytopasm for GNG?
Malate
What stimulates GNG?
Glucagon and cortisol
Ammonia is turned into urea in what organ(s)?
Liver
How many aromatic essential amino acids are there?
2
What is the link between anaerobic glycolysis and GNG?
TCA cycle
This enzyme is necessary for fatty acide biosynthesis?
Malonyl CoA
Fat souable vitamins get to the liver via?
Chylomicrons
What is the most common form of dietary lipids?
TAG's (triaceyl-glycerides)
What is the source of ribose for nucleotide formation?
Hexose monophate shunt (HMS)
What essential amino acid is not synthesized in the body?
All of them!
Louse-born epidemic typhus is produced by?
Rickettsia prowazaki
Rickettsia richettsia causes ___________ and is transmitted by __________?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and
Tick
R. typhi and R prowazaki are both transmitted by?
Flea/louse
Coxiella burnetti causes ________ and are transmitted by _________?
Q fever and milk
R. Quintana causes?
Trench Fever/5 Day Fever
Rickettsia Acari causes ________ and is transmitted by _________.
Rickettsia pox and mites
What blood test is used for Rickettes?
Weil-Felix
The phage phase of bacteria is related to what?
Transportation
A cause of exudative lesions of mycobacterium tuberculosis and absorbs caseous necrosis is?
Ghons tubercule
The most common agent of a typical pneumonia is?
Mycoplasmic pneumonia
5 Common Staph Aureus infections:
S = scalded skin
T = toxic shock
O = osteomyolitis
I = impetigo (type 1)
C = carbuncles
6 Common Strep Pyogenes infections:
S = strep throat
E = erysipleas
R = rheumatic fever
G = glomerulonephritis
I = impetiga (type 2)
S = scarlet fever
* Also caused by:
Beta Hemolytic Strep.
Group A Lansfield
Gram Staining:
1. Primary Stain = crystal violet
2. Fixer/Morchant = Iodine
3. Wash/Decolorize = Alcohol
4. Counter Stain = Saphrine
Gram+ = purple b/c peptidoglycans on wall (thick)
Gram- = pink b/c mucopolysaccharides on wall (thin)
What is the most common cause of pneumonia?
Strep pneumonia
What is the second most common cause of pneumonia
Legionella pneumonia
What causes red currant jelly sputem?
Klebsiella
Herpes simplex produces a latent infection on?
The nervous system
Herpes Simplex I produces a latent infection on?
The triggeminal ganglion
Herpes Simplex I affects:
Oral
Herpes Simplex II produces a latent infection on?
The sacral ganglion
Herpes Simplex II affects?
Genitals
What is the purpose of iodine in gram staining?
Mordant/Fixer
A virus capsid is made of?
Protein
Coagulase + test means that the sample is?
Staph aureus
What test is used to differentiate strep from staph?
Catalase Test
What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from all other staphs?
Coagulase test
What is classified by way of locomotion?
Protozoa
What is the most common route for the transmission of polio?
Oral-fecal
What are the most common processes by which microbial pollution is eliminated?
Sand filtration
The most fatal form of malaria is?
Plasmodium falciparum
What causes black water fever?
Plasmodium falciparum
What is the most common cause of malaria? The second?
1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium vivax
What is the best test to check the effectiveness of milk pasteurization?
Phosphatase test
A test to check for fecal contamination is?
Coliform test
What has an etiological agent called a spirochete?
Syphilli (condylomat mata)
What is the cause of Legionnaire's Disease?
Bacteria
What is the serology test for Rickettsia?
Weil-Felix Test
What antigen is used in a Weil-Felix Test?
Proteus Vulgaris
Body secretions like tears, breast mils and salive contain lg___?
lgA
A virus is most contagious during which stage?
Latent stage
What cuases a lower respirator tract infection?
Chlamydia psittaci
What is the cause of parrot fever?
Chlamydia psittaci
What can mimic a pulmonary infection like TB?
Histoplasmosis
What is the cause of Ohio Valley Fever?
Histoplasmosis
What makes up a virus cell wall?
Peptidoglycan (protein)
What is a common pre-operational disinfectant?
Iodine
What causes epidemic parotitis
Mumps
Mumps may lead to the impairment of wat nerve?
Facial
Cholera is characterized by?
Rice water stool, vomitting, dehydration (no lymphatic involved)
What is the heaviest and largest immunoglobin?
1 gm or which one has less
Which scientist discovered yellow fever?
Reed
Which scientist is accredited with (pox) vaccines?
Jenner
Who came up with the germ theory?
Pasteur
Who came up with antibiotics and discovered pennicillin?
Flemming
Ecchymosis is seen in what disease?
Scurvy
Sabin/Salk vaccines give immunity to?
Polio
A 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, productive cough, and a one time shiver episode. What is the diagnosis?
Strep pneumonia
a 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, neck stiffness and a productive cough. What is the diagnosis?
H. influenza
What type of immunity is a filled bacteria vaccine?
Artificial Acquired Active Immunity
What is the cause of black death?
Yerseria pestis, aka Bubonic Plague
What are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2?
Microaerophils
How are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2 levels cultured?
In a candal jar/flask
What is the largest health and safety organization that funds for research?
NIH
The persistent measles virus may cause?
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
What blood cell type increases with a parasitic infection?
Eosinophils
What is most commonly found in unpasteruized milk?
Brucella abortus
What parasite is diagnosed by recovering eggs from the perianal fold?
Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
Why has the administration of influenza vaccines been so ineffective?
There are many different strands
Organisms that only use oxygen as the final acceptor of electrons are known as?
Obligant aerobes
All bacteriocides and clostridia are characterized as?
Anaerobes
A bullseye rash is caused by?
Borellia burgdorfi (sp?)
What type of pus is characteristic of staph aureus?
Gold/yellow pus (it is also an active invasive opportunist)
A zoonosis disease spread by spores is?
Anthrax
A gram negative bacteria characterized by blue-green pus is?
Pseudomonus aeriginos
Who is most susceptable to pseudomonus ariginosa?
Burn victims, cystic fibrosis patients and patients with otitis externa
Pyocyan and properdin are associated with?
Blue-green pus and pseudomonus ariginosa
What is the choise mode of transportation for German Measles?
Respiratory (it is a virus)
What causes a funal ball in the lungs?
Aspirgillus
What consumes inorganic material?
Autotroph
What do you call an organism that dwells in salty water?
Halophyte
What type of organism feeds on the matter of the dead/decaying?
Saprophyte
What is the best medium to identify Nisseria ghonnorrhea?
Thayer-Martin Agar
What is the best medium to identify staph?
Salt Agar
What is the best medium to identify protozoans and malaria?
Glesma (or Giesma - couldn't read answer clearly)
Alpha nemolysis will show up as?
Green:partial nemolysis
Beta hemolysis will show up as?
Clear:complete
Gamma hemolysis will show up as?
Red:No hemolysis
What causes weight loss, abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea for >3 day?
Giardia Lamblia
What causes childhood dysentary?
Coxsackie virus
What is most commonly going to affect patients with AIDS?
1. Pneumocysis
2. Toxoplasmosis
What is the counter stain to gram stain?
Safranin
A gray pseudomembrane is seen with?
Diptheria
What is the most effective sterilization in a lab?
Autoclaving
Fecal contamination in water is determined by?
Coliform count
What is the cause of amoebic dysentary?
Entamoeba histolysice (sp?)
Consumption of raw fish may be related to?
Diphyllobathrium Latum
The hiatid is?
Larval form of tapeworm
What causes Weil's Disease?
Leptospira ichtohemorragica
What is the cause of syphillis?
Trep. pallidum
What is released by cells infected by viruses and protects the uninfected cells?
Interferon
What air pollutant will cause headaches, lassitude and dizziness?
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
What test differentiates staph aureus from staph epidermis?
Coagulase test
Aluminum and chlorine are used in what steps of water treatment?
Coagulation
What is the etiological agent of YAWS?
Treponema pertenue
What is the etiological agen of malaria?
Plasmodium
What is the etiological agent of black death?
Yersina pectis
What transmits epidemic typhus to humans?
Lice
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via viral agent?
Transduction
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via direct uptake through the cell wall?
Transformation
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via bacterial phage?
Transduction
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via a pylus/sex pilus?
Conjugation
The incidence of a disease is defined as the total number of?
New cases appearing in a given amount of time
Sand flies transmit?
Leishmaniasis
What is most commonly seen with bladder infection?
e. coli
Opsonins, aglutinins, lysins and precipitans are?
Partial antibodies
What vitamin is decreased when milk is left standing in the light?
Riboflavin
What inhibits bacterial replication and when removed allows reproduction to continue?
Bacteriostatic
The addition of soap to a sterilizing agent will?
Lower the surface tension
What is the most common helminth in the U.S.?
Enterobius veermiculaire (sp?) Pin Worms
What is associated wtih pork?
Thrichinella spirilis
Soap is a ?
Disinfectant and surfactant
Pasteur is most known for?
The Germ Theory
When a chemical substance acts upon the body, the biological reation depends on the amount of substance received. This is known as?
Dose-Response Relationship
Water softeners increase what ion in the water?
Na+ (Ca++ makes it harder)
What will cause calcification of skeletal muscles on an x-ray and pain?
Trichinella spiralis
What is associated with roots and fixed nitrogen?
Rhizobium japonium
What causes severe bone marrow depression after chronic poisoning over a long period of time and low levels?
Benzene
Most circulating antibodies are produced by?
Plasma cells
Majority of antibody content of serum is contained in?
Gammaglobulins
The rapid formation of a specific antibody as a result of a second stimulation by the specific antigen is known as?
Anamnestic Response
A frequent cause of infant diarrhea is?
Escherichia
What is the major source of ionizing radiation contamination in the U.S.?
Diagnostic Radiography
What is the main health hazard resulting from atmospheric inversion?
Pollutants are held closer to the Earth
What ion causes infant methemoglobulinemia?
Nitrates
"Blue Baby Syndrome"
The highest reported incidence of occupational induced high blood pressure comes from?
Truck drivers
Lung disease from iron dust is?
Siderosis
Lead poisoning is not a major hazard for workers in?
Manufacturing fluorescent lamps
What is a hazard for chicken farmers?
Psitlacosis (sp?)
What can cause lung cancer and is associated with mesothelioma?
Asbestos
Jock itch is causes by?
Tinea cruris
What results in passive, naturally acquired immunity?
Breast feeding
What is the first line of human cellular defense against viran conditions?
Interferon Production
Dorsalis pedis is a continuation of what artery?
Anterior tibial artery
The muscularis externa is made of what type of muscle?
Smooth and skeletal muscle
he white cover of male genitals is called?
Tunica Albuguina
What layer of the hypedermis contains adipocytes?
Subque fascia
What pouches make of the parathyroid?
3rd and 4th pouches
The larynx is mde of what arches?
4th and 6th arches
The spinous process is made from?
Left and right lamina
The suprascapular foramen is made from?
Transvers scapular ligament
A 2nd order neuron for proprioception synapses where?
Ipsilateral thalamus
Azygos vein is on the _________ side and drains into ________?
Right side
SVC
What prevents the radial head from dislocating?
Annular Ligament
What is the superior boarder of the femoral triangle?
Inguinal Ligament
Wha innervates flexor oligitorum profundus?
Medial and Ulnar
Flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by?
Ulnar nerve
The begma is at the crossing of the __________ and ________ sutures?
Coronal and Sagittal
What is on the left lung but not on the right?
Lingula
The right side of the lung has an indentation for the _______ (not found on the left)?
Azygos vein
What muscles are associated with TOS and put pressure on the brachial plexus?
Anterior scalenes
The mesosalphinx is also know as?
Brood ligament
The TFL is innervated by?
Superior gluteal nerve
What organ if found adjacent to the liver?
Stomach
Which part of the liver is palpable?
Right lobe
What separates the distal radio-ulnar joing (articulation)?
DISC
What type of joint is the stemoclavicular joint?
Saddle
The radiate ligament attaches to?
Rib head
The coxa joint is what type of joint?
Spheroidal/Triaxial
True/False:
The corocaclavicular joint is not synovial.
True
The fibularis longus mm. has its origina on the?
Fibula
Papilla empty into?
Descending duodenum
What is found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary?
Ovarian artery
The reticular layer of the dermis is?
Dense and irregular
Seminepherous drain into?
Epididymis
The pelvic diaphragm is made of?
Levator ani and coccygeus
Which three mm make up the levator ani?
Pubococcygeus
Puborectalis
Iliococcygeus
What separates the pelvis and perineum
Levator ani
The vertebral foramen is a result of what type of ossification?
Endochondral
Which bones go through membranous ossification?
Panetal and clavical
Which bone is the first to ossify?
Clavical
The glabella is part of?
Frontal bone
TP's are an attachment for?
Levator scapula
Meroiga parastrieria is a result of impairment to what nerve?
Lateral femoral cutaneous
The sup. mesenteric and splenic dump into?
Portal vein
The spinal nerves of L4-S3 form?
Sciatic nerve
The sclera is derived from?
Dura Mater
The carotid canal goes through?
Temporal bone
Fast conducting axons are made of ______ fibers with _______ diameters?
Myelinated/Large
Which type of nerves are small and unmyelinated and conduct pain?
Type C
Which type of nerve fibers are myelinated and conduct acute pain?
Type A (A-delta)
What ligament connects the EOP with the SP of C7?
Nuchal ligament
What type of articulation is found between vert. bodies?
Symphysis (IVD's)
What articulates with T2?
Steinal angle aka Angle of Louis
What cells form the BBB?
Astrocytes
CSF is formed by?
1st Choroid plexus
2nd Ependymal cells
What are the macrophages of the brain?
Microglia
From the ant. 2/3 of the tongue are located on what ganglion?
Geniculate ganglion
What are the boundaries of the IVF?
Anterior = disc
Posterior = Facets
Superior = Pedicles (inf. notch of vertebral above)
Inferior - Pedicles (superior notch of vertebral below)
The vertical notches are found on?
The pedicles
The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the _______ border of the _______ surface?f
Inferior/Internal
Axons of the oeptic nerve are formed by the _____ cells of the retina?
Ganglion
DRG, autonomic ganglia and schwann cells are derived from?
Neural Crest Cells
Name the suprahyoid muscles.
Digastric and mylo-, stylo-, genio-hyoid
(You will die if you eat MSG for supper.)
What are the infrahyoid muscles?
Toss IN (all except thyrohoid innervated by ansa cervicalis)
What innervates thyrohyoid and geniohyoid mm?
C1 nerve via CN XI
What innervates the stylohyoid? Mylohyoid? Digastric?
Stylohyoid=CN7
Mylohyoid=CN5
Anterior Digastric=CN5
Posterior Digastric=CN7
The long thoracic nerve innervates what muscle?
Serratus anterior
What supplies stimulation to z-joints?
Dorsal Rami
Are rami sensory or motor?
Motor
What is the post boundary of the IVF's?
Facets
The myelin of the CNS is formed by what cells?
Oligodendrocytes
The cerebellum and the Pons are part of what primitive structure?
Metencephalon (then rhobencephalon)
What muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3-C6?
Splenium capitus and cervicis
What is the anterior-superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 called?
Sacral promontory
What ligaments attach C2 to the occiput?
Tectoral, alar and apical ligaments
Which suboccipital muscles rotate C1 on C2?
Obliques capitus inferior
Which suboccipital muscle is not part of the suboccipital triangle?
RCP minor
What is transmitted through the suboccipital triangle?
Vert. arter and suboccipital nerve
How many z-joints are in a typical thoracic vertebra?
4
How many total artiaculations are in the T-spine?
12/segment
Which are not sensory to the epidermis?
A. Krause
B. Merlel
C. Meisseners
D. Ruffini's
Meisseners - light touch
The carotid tubercle is found?
C6
Which spinal ligament has attachments to the discs?
PLL
What part of the PLL is the weakest?
Post. lat.
What structure forms the anterior boundary of the vertebral canal? The post boundary?
PLL=anterior
Lig. Flavium=posterior
The embryoligic development of extensor muscles is derived from?
Epimeric
What's the embryologic derivation of splanchnic nerve?
Visceral
Which ribs are true?
1-7 (connect to sternum)
What is atypical about number 1 rib?
It has no demi-facets - connects with full facets of T1
The medullary pyramids contain which tract?
Cervicospinal
The parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior are?
Mid brain to pons to medulla oblongata
Atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal calcium levels is?
Dystrophic calcification
What is deposition of Ca++ into necrotic tissue with normal Ca++ levels?
Dystrophic calcification
What is deposition of Ca++ into normal tissue with high Ca++ levels?
Metastatic calcification
Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary after closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
Acromegaly
Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
Gigantism
Decreased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of the epiphyseal plates results in?
Dwarfism
What are the 4 stages of Pagets?
1. Lytic
2. Mixed
3. Blastic
4. Osteosarcoma (malignant)
Hypoparathyroid in kids is?
Creatinism
Deficiency in _______ results in tetan, similar to that which accompanies hypocalcemia?
Magnesium (1st look for calcium)
Who are the most infectious members of the family?
School aged kids
Cor pulmomale may be a result of ?
Emphysema
What is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to a lack of ...?
DiGeorge's Syndrome
What is characterized by a deficiency in T- and B-cells?
S.C.I.D.
Thrombocytopenia is seen in?
Wischott-Aldrich
Delayed Hypersensitivity is type______?
Type IV
The pigment found in regressive cells such as old age pigment is?
Lipofusion
Yellow pigment from the degradation of hematein is?
Hemosiderin
Heme + iron =
Hematein
What is a result of HPT?
Osteopenia
Wat type of collagen is found earliest in a wound?
Type 3
Type 1 collagen is found in?
End of wound healing
Type 2 collagen is found in?
Discs
Type 3 collagen is found in?
Earliest in wound healing
Type 4 collagen is found in?
Basement membranes
Who is most likely to have median nerve entrapment?
Pregnant women
Intracranial calcification occurs most commonly in?
Oligodendroglioma
Most common brain tumor?
Astrocytoma
What is the primary cerebellar tumor in children?
Medulloblastoma
What is cardiac tymponacle?
Fluid in the pericardial space
A primary immunodeficiency of B-cells is?
Brutons agammaglobulinemia
Autoimmune hypothyroidism is?
Hashimotos
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune attack against?
Acetyl choline
Almost all changes in SLF involve?
Increased immune cells
Autosomal recessive gluco-cerebral disease with hepato/splenomegaly is?
Gaucher's
Alcapneuria is a result of?
PKU
Neimann-Pick and Tasach's are seen higher in?
Jews
Lyme's Disease is caused by?
Burelia
Marphan's (aka Abe Lincoln's disease) is characterized by?
Arachodactyly
Kleinfelters is characterized by?
47 xxy - Tall, thin, low I.Q., hypogonadism
What is the most common DJD of joints?
Osteoarthritis
During pronation of the foot, the knee goes?
In
What is responsible for post infectiou glomerulonephritis?
Strep Pyogene/beta-hemolytic strep
Metastatic osteoblastic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
Prostate
Metastatic osteolytic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
Lung
A benign neoplasm is?
Lipoma
An example of a systemic immune complex reaction?
R.A.
A deficiency of vitamin C mosts often affects the?
Connective tissue (scurvy)
Wernicke-Korsikoff Syndrome is a result of a deficiency in?
B1
What is characterized by a lesion with caseous necrosis?
TB
The release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes?
Vasodilation of arterioles causing redness
What are the 5 signs of inflammation?
1. Rubor
2. Dolor
3.Tumor
4. Calor
5. Loss of Funtion
What is the most common benign tumor of the spine?
Hemangioma
What occurs in a keloid?
Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue
What is the most common benign tumor of the skull?
Osteoma
What causes hoarsness associated with carcinoma in the apex of the lung?
Laryngeal nerve damage
What is produced in cells and increases inflammation due to tissue injury?
Histamine
What is the result in a cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?
Hyperplasia
What type of thyrotoxicosis is most common under 40 y/o?
Graves Disease
What is characterized by recanalization?
Thrombus
The circulatory level of what kind of cells are higher in an acute inflammatory response to bacteria?
Neutrophils
Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis and Spleenomegaly are characteristic of what?
Felty's Syndrome
What disease affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia?
Parkinson's
Megoblastic anemia is a result of a deficiency of what vitamin?
B9
What is the most likely diagnos for a child with projectile vomiting within the firt three weeks of life?
Pylonic Stenosis
What is the most common neoplasm found in AIDS patients?
Kaposi's Sarcoma (and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma)
A periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue is called?
Sequestra
Patients with asbestosis are predisposed to?
Mesothelioma
A periosteal reaction described as sunburst radiographically?
Osteosarcoma
A periosteal reaction described radiographically as laminated or onion-skin would be?
Ewing's Sarcoma
A degenerative disease that affects cranial nerve nuclei?
Progressive Bulbar Palsy
Philadelphia chromosomus are a risk factor in what type of Leukemia?
CML
What type of leukemia is most likely to affect kids?
ALL
Elderly men are more likely to get what type of leukemia?
CLL
What is the most common adult leukemia?
AML
Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension, and weakness of the upper limbs with low lower limb pulse is seen in?
Coarctation of the aorta
The substitution of one fully differentiated cell type to another type is known as?
Metaplasia
Which cell type goes up with viral infections?
Lymphocytes
What disease is characterized by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglia in the colon, constipation and dilation of the colon?
Congenital Megacolon
aka Hirshsprung's Disease
Chaga's Disease is spread by?
The Kissing Bug
What muscle disorder is pseudohypertrophy most common?
Duchenne's Dystrophy
Fatty liver, edema and atrophy of the small bowel are characteristic of?
Kwashikor's
Pannus formation is in?
R.A.
Cretinism is caused by?
Hypothyroidism in kids
Acromegally and gigantism are results of an increase of?
Somatotopin
Subacute panencephalitis is a sequel to?
Measles
Degeneration of lateral horn cells affects:
Autonomic function, sympathetics
Chronic passive congestion of the liver is typically seen in?
Right sided heart failure
Starry-sky appearance of lymphoid tissue is characteristic of?
Burkett's Lymphoma
What causes hypoxia without ischemia?
Bronchopneumonia
The loss of breaking skills, the lack of the ability to stop forward motion of the hand when reaching is indicative of a lesion to?
Cerebellum
What disease is most likely to cause secondary orchitis in post-pubescent males?
Mumps
Giant cell artereitis primarily affects?
Temporary artery
Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of?
Reed-Sternberg Cells
A genetic defect of the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine will result in?
PKU and mental retardation
A tumor comprised of 3 germ layers is called?
Teratoma
What is characterized by the presence of caseous necrosis?
TB
What is characterized by calcification of the temporal artery?
Giant Cell Arteritis
What is the mechanism by which the herpes virus stays in the body long after a vericella infection?
Sequestration (sp?) of the genome to a sensory ganglion (m/c trigeminal)
A male with an expanding mass in the jaw/cheek area, from Central Africa probably has?
Bukett's Lymphoma
A pulmonary embolus usually arises from?
Deep vein thrombosis
Pitting edema is usually caused by?
Congestive heart failure
If the medial groove of the prostate cannot be palpated, what is most likely present?
Prostatic carcinoma
What produces exudative lesions caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and contains caseous necrosis?
Ghon's Lesions
Tuberculosis of the spine is?
Pott's Disease
What type of disease is ankylosing spondylitis?
Autoimmune
Pyknosis is characterized as?
Condensation
A mask-like face, claw hands, hypertension and fibrosis of the esophagus is seen in?
Scleroderma
Functional vasospastic disorder affecting the small arteries and arterioles of the hands is?
Raynaud's Disease
The presence of right lower quadrant pain, diarrha, malabsorption and granulomatosus inflammation of the intestin indicates?
IBD
What are characteristics of Horner's Syndrome
Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis (also opthalmosis)
A small cystic projection from a joint capsule or tendon is known as a?
Ganglion
Hemorrhage into the reticular formation of the brain is most likely to result in?
Coma
A localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis is?
Arthrus Phenomenon
Subluxation of the lens, laxity of the ligaments and cystic medial necrosis is seen in?
Marphan's Syndrome
Antibody synthesis is a primary function of what type of cells?
Plasma cells
Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from?
Middle Meningeal Artery
Synovial thickening and 2nd degree inflammation with edema but NO pannus indicates?
Gouty arthritis
Ischemic necrosis as a consequence to cardiac muscle damage is?
Coagulation
What causes localized edema that accompanies fiariasis?
Lymphatic obstruction
Heberden's nodes are on?
DIP's
Thrombosis and embolism of what vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?
Superior mesentaric arteries
What produces symptoms due primarily to de-myelination of peripheral nerve axons?
Guillian-Barre (post-infectious poly-radiculitis)
What may lead to megaloblastic anemia?
B9 deficiency and atrophic gastric mucosa
Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tonus, and resultant bloating, heart anomalies and weak respiratory muscles is from a deficiency of?
Calcium or magnesium
What is the most common tumor of the large intestine?