Which of the following can be described as a change in tissue type from one adult form to another due to an adaptation to stress?
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present or associated with the early stage of accute inflammation?
B. fibroblastic proliferation
C. increased neutrophils
D. tissue exudates
Pedal edema is a prominent feature of which condition?
B. nephritic syndrome
D. right heart failure
Right heart failure
Red infarcts are found in all of the tissues EXCEPT following:
What is the pathogenetic mechanism of ischemia?
B. reduced arterial blood flow
C. carbon monoxide poisoning
D. cardiorespiratory failure
Reduced arterial blood flow
Which is characterized by localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced, acute, necrotizing vasculitis?
A. arthrus reaction
B. serum sickness
D. tuberculin reaction
Mask-like face, claw-like fingers, fibrosis of the esophagus, and hypertension characterize which condition?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Sjogren's syndrome
Which condition affects both arteries and veins?
B. Monckenberg's sclerosis
D. Buerger's disease
Which is a functional vasospastic disorder which affects the small arteries of the extremities?
A. carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Raynaud's disease
C. arteriosclerosis obliterans
D. Buerger's disease
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either hematemesis or melena is most common caused by ________.
A. hiatal hernia
B. peptic ulcer
C. espophageal trauma
Which of the following is the joint disease in which the articular cartilage is the primary tissue involved?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lyme disease
Periosteal reactive bone formation on the external surface is characteristically seen in:
D. nonossifying fibroma
Which of the following is the benign tumor of striated muscle?
Which of the following is associated with Parkinson's disease?
A. there is amyloid angiopathy with frontal and temporal cortical atrophy
B. there is a spongiform vacuolar cortex with putamen degeneration
C. there are senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles with astrogliosis
D. Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
Which of the following is NOT true regarding multiple sclerosis?
A. it is an auto-immune disease
B. it is a demyelinating disorder
C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
D. it is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes involving the brain and spinal cord
There are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
Postinfectious ascending paralysis and radiculoneuropathy are characteristics of what condition?
A. Guillian-Barre sysndrome
B. myasthenia gravis
C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. multiple sclerosis
In males, which of the following is the most common cause of both bilateral hydroureters and hydronephrosis?
A. acute pylonephritis
B. benign prostate hyperplasia
C. stones in the renal pelvis
Benign prostate hyperplasia
What is the characteristic pathological feature of malignant mesothelioma?
A. primary related to smoking
B. histologiacally, it is adenocarcinoma
C. a localized focal lesion in pleura
D. accompanied by pleural effusion
Accompanied by pleural effusion
The primary cause of endometrial hyperplasia is a high serum level of which hormone?
D. adrenocortocotrophic homone
What is the main cause of anemia in chronic renal failure?
A. deficiency of vitamin B12
B. deficiency of erythropoietin
C. deficiency of folic acid
D. deficiency of hematopoietic stem cells
Deficiency of erythropoietin
Which of the following is indicative of left heart failure?
A. pitting pedal edema
B. neck vein distention
What is happmark of hypocalcemia?
A. bone pain
D. peptic ulcers
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency may lead to which of the following?
A. chronic bronchitis
B. bronchial asthma
D. cystic fibrosis
Which of the following pathologies is responsible for left cardiac concentric hypertrophy?
A. pulmonary emphysema secondary to smoking
B. thrombus-induced pulmonary artery obstruction
C. sustained diastolic pressure over 90 mm Hg
D. myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
Sustained diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg
Which is NOT true of giant cell arteritis?
A. it is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
B. it involves inflammation of the temporal artery
C.it may lead to visual loss
D. the condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
The condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
In what form is most body fat stored? (Which form of energy has almost unlimited capacity for storage in teh body?) A. fatty acids
In order for fatty acids to be oxidized in the mitochondria they need to be converted to what compound?
Ketones are produced from
C. amino groups
Which hormone is condsidered to be an antagonist of lipolysis (Which hormones below have similar functions regarding energy metabolism?) A. insulin
What organ provides the major sites for lipprotein formation from exogenously derived lipids? (endogenously?) A. pancreas
Branched chain amino acids are metabolized mainly in:
Extracellular amonia is transported to the liver by?
What is the molecule that the enzymes work on called?
Product of Pyruvate?
Where does the conversion of pyruvate to its product tak place?
PDC=Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex
What structure does the following represent:
Nitrogenous wastes are converted to urea in what organ?
Pantothenic acid is needed for the production of?
Co Enzyme A
A deficiency of B5 causes:
Burning Foot Syndrome
As the density of lipoproteins goes up, _________ goes down and __________ goes up.
What vitamin is responsible for carboxylation?
What vitamin is responsible for De-carboxylation?
Most active form of folate?
What is an important adjunct in the absorption of glucose?
B-oxidation occurs in ___________ and is a _________process
What is needed for the uptake of lipoproteins in the small intestine?
Megaloblastic anemia is a result from the deficiency of?
Iron deficient anemia equals
What process forms D-oxyribose from RNA?
What kind of process is RNA to DNA?
Which cycle contains CoEnzyme Q?
Anaerobic Glycolysis yields:
Ketones result from:
Incomplete oxidation of fats
What are the 3 types of ketone bodies produced?
Acetone, acetyl acetate, Beta Hydroxybuterate
What are the Purines?
Adenine and Guanine
What are the Pyrimidines?
Thymine, Uracil and Cytosin
What type of bonds hold DNA strands together?
What type of bonds hold neucleotides of a single strand together?
What type of bonds hold base pairs together?
What is the limiting enzymes in grains?
What is the limiting enzyme in corn?
What is the function of ascorbic acid?
Increase iron absorption collagen formation
What is the most active form of iron?
What is the most easily absorbed form of iron?
Malate is oxidized to:
What is the most oxidized intermediate in the TCA cycle?
What provides nicotinamide in the body?
*made by tryptophan
What froms melanin
An amino acid @pH 7 has its isoeletric point at pH 6, it is:
Every 10 kg of body weight requires _____ g of dietary protein/day?
Sucrose can be broken down into:
Glucose and fructose
Most active form of vitamin D?
What is the most dominant form of vitamin D in the plasma?
What is the regulating enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?
What is the regulating enzyme of cholemicron biosynthesis?
What is the specific for the elongation of fatty acids in fatty acid biosynthesis?
Where is DANPH made?
What is the reducing agent in fatty acid biosynthesis?
Oxidation of a fatty acid yielding CO2 and H2O also goes through:
Krebb's Cycle and ETC
Most cells can readily synthesize aspartate from:
Branch chain amino acid =
Derivatives of tyrosine include:
Thyroxine, epinephrine, norepi and melanin
Greatest source of pectin:
A reaction uses glycerol dehydrogenase yields:
What is responsible for producing endogenous triglycerides?
By which mechanism do we eliminate cholesterol?
What is a sulfur containing polypeptide hormone?
What types of bonds are between amino acids?
What is a characteristic of spontaneous reactions?
Gibb's Free Energy is negative
How many bases make up a codon?
Acetyl CoA carboxylase catylizes acetyl CoA into?
Molanyl CoA (in fatty acid synthesis)
What is the product of pyruvate that enters the TCA cycle?
Acetyl CoA (from Krebb's cycle/TCA)
Purine nitrogen is derived from ______ and excreted as ________?
Amino acid and uric acid
Protein metabolism is excreted as?
Muscle metabolism is excreted as?
+RNA is responsible for?
Supplying amino acids to complete a specific protein chain
Amino acids are _________ molecules, making them the most powerful and abundant buffers in the body.
What type of glycocidic bonds are found in glycogen?
Alpha-1, 4 (also Alpha-1, 6 @ branches)
Reverse transcriptase is:
RNA to DNA
Lack of B12 results in a deficiency of?
Methionine is used for the remethylization of what?
What amino acid is converted to indole in the intestines/
Tryptophan (then serotonin)
What carbon source provides a glycerol portion in triglycerides for lipogenesis?
What is a 4-carbon glucose precursor?
What is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
What are the products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
What are the products of fatty acid biosynthesis
What are mucopholysaccharides?
What type of mucopolysaccharides are found in cartilage?
What type of mucopholysaccharides are found in synovial joints?
What distinguishes starch from cellulose?
Starch is digestable, cellulose is not.
The biosynthesis of cholesterol begins with?
The reductive steps of fatty acid biosynthesis require?
What is the final stage in the complete metabolism of fat?
What is the significant intermediate in the cytoplasmic biosynthesis of fatty acids?
Free radicals are the highly reactive substances that result from?
Peroxidation of lipids
Components of triglycerides include?
A glycerol back bone and 3 fatty acids
Homocystine is a product of the demethylization of:
How does hydrogenation of vegetable oils affect the melting point?
To generate an unsaturated fatty acid, a saturated fatty acid must undergo?
Cholesterol is not a component of:
B. beef fat
What is the intermediate in the formation of palmitic acid from Acetyl CoA?
What is the secondary messenger for epinephrine?
Name a sulfur containing amino acid.
What is initially involved in cholesterol synthesis?
What is used with selenium?
Dietary intake of 10g of protein provides __________ kilocalories
Carbs provide ________ cals/g
Fats provide ________ cals/g
Alcohol provides __________cals/g
Fructose is a?
The endproduct of anaerobic glycolysis is?
An endogenously produced carbohydrate polymer comprised of repeating disaccharide units which contain glucosamine is?
Hyaluronic acid/chondroitin sulfate
UDP Glucase is a major intermediate in?
DNA replication is done in the?
RNA to DNA translation takes place in the?
The precursor to prostaglandin?
Linoleic acid is an?
Omega 6 EFA
Arachidonic acid is an?
Omega 6 EFA
Oxidative phosphorylation generates about _____% of ATP produced from glycolysis.
Alpha-ketoglutarate is an interrmediate of?
+RNA is part of?
Loss of lipoprotein lipase results in?
High cylomicrons after a fatty meal
Serotonin and niacin come from?
Up to 90% of serotonin is made where?
In the gut
What binds to ATP and makes a negative complex?
Selenium is an?
What helps insulin uptake of glucose?
DNA polymerase is needed for?
DNA to mRNA is done in the _________, and needs __________ to take place.
Nucleus and RNA polymerase
What inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis?
What is the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of purines?
What process causes the formation of pyruvate and oxaloacetate from alanine and aspartate?
Transamination requires what vitamin?
What is a high energy compound?
Creatine phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate
Ornithine is an intermediate in which cycle?
What inhibits fat metabolism?
What type of bonds link nucleotides in a single strand?
Maltose is produced by enzymatic hydrolysis of?
What carbohydrate by product is derived from the HMPshunt?
What ion transmits impulses along an axon?
Vitamin D is important in the absorption and metabolism of?
Ca++ and phosphorus
Most amino acid metabolism requires a coenzyme provided by the bioactive form of?
What mechanism causes the greatest loss of sterols?
Intestinal excretions (via feces)
The hydrolysis of lactose yields?
Glucose and galactose
What coenzyme is used with glutathione peridoxase?
A diet high in polyunsaturated fat needs ________ to combine to prevent free radicals.
Tocopherol (vitamin E)
Poor appetite, high pyruvic acid in the blood, irritability, tingling in the arms and legs with uncoordination is the definition of?
Folate deficiencies result in?
Neural tube defects and megoloblastic anemia
Niacin deficiency causes?
Pelegra and 4 D's
A deficiency of riboflavin causes?
Purple tongue and cracks at the corner of mouth
What are the 2 types of Beri Beri?
Wet: Cardiovascular Sy
NADH + H2O + 1/2O2 becomes NAD +?
Triglycerides contain what type of bonds?
What is responsible for glycogenolysis in the liver?
Phosphate groups are transferred to other compounds by?
What is the funtion of phosphatase?
Removes a phosphate group
What is the function of phosphorylase?
Add a phosphate group
Cereal is low in?
Corn is low in?
Ingested cholesterol travels from the digestive tract to the liver in the form of?
Undigested cholesterol is carried from the periphery to the liver in the form of?
What type of bonds link nucleotides in DNA strands?
The major product of Beta Oxidation is?
The peptide linkage of any peptide bond is between?
Carbon and nitrogen
What are the constituents of a nucleotide?
Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate
A nucleotide consists of?
Nitrogen base and pentose sugar
Km is the measure of?
Affinity an enzyme has for a substrate
Glycogen is monosaccharides held together by:
Alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycoside bonds
Epinephrine causes the hydolysis of glycogen. What causes the cessation of this process and return to the synthesis of glycogen?
What substance has the highest energy per gram?
GNG in the liver does not include:
The most highly oxidized TLA intermediate is?
Dietary lipids usually circulate as?
Chylomicrons through the lymphatics
What base is in DNA but not RNA?
FAD comes from?
NAD comes from?
What are the three ketone bodies?
The amino acid precursor of carnitine is?
The amino acid that is usually not active optically is?
What nitrogen source provides the majority nitrogen in purines?
Glycerol is turned into glucose by?
Carbon atoms for fatty acid synthesis are transported across the mitochondrial membrane into the cytoplasm in the form of?
What type of bonds are broken by ATPase?
The stored form of iron is?
What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytoplasm for GNG
What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytopasm for GNG?
What stimulates GNG?
Glucagon and cortisol
Ammonia is turned into urea in what organ(s)?
How many aromatic essential amino acids are there?
What is the link between anaerobic glycolysis and GNG?
This enzyme is necessary for fatty acide biosynthesis?
Fat souable vitamins get to the liver via?
What is the most common form of dietary lipids?
What is the source of ribose for nucleotide formation?
Hexose monophate shunt (HMS)
What essential amino acid is not synthesized in the body?
All of them!
Louse-born epidemic typhus is produced by?
Rickettsia richettsia causes ___________ and is transmitted by __________?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and
R. typhi and R prowazaki are both transmitted by?
Coxiella burnetti causes ________ and are transmitted by _________?
Q fever and milk
R. Quintana causes?
Trench Fever/5 Day Fever
Rickettsia Acari causes ________ and is transmitted by _________.
Rickettsia pox and mites
What blood test is used for Rickettes?
The phage phase of bacteria is related to what?
A cause of exudative lesions of mycobacterium tuberculosis and absorbs caseous necrosis is?
The most common agent of a typical pneumonia is?
5 Common Staph Aureus infections:
S = scalded skin
T = toxic shock
O = osteomyolitis
I = impetigo (type 1)
C = carbuncles
6 Common Strep Pyogenes infections:
S = strep throat
E = erysipleas
R = rheumatic fever
G = glomerulonephritis
I = impetiga (type 2)
S = scarlet fever
* Also caused by:
Beta Hemolytic Strep.
Group A Lansfield
1. Primary Stain = crystal violet
2. Fixer/Morchant = Iodine
3. Wash/Decolorize = Alcohol
4. Counter Stain = Saphrine
Gram+ = purple b/c peptidoglycans on wall (thick)
Gram- = pink b/c mucopolysaccharides on wall (thin)
What is the most common cause of pneumonia?
What is the second most common cause of pneumonia
What causes red currant jelly sputem?
Herpes simplex produces a latent infection on?
The nervous system
Herpes Simplex I produces a latent infection on?
The triggeminal ganglion
Herpes Simplex I affects:
Herpes Simplex II produces a latent infection on?
The sacral ganglion
Herpes Simplex II affects?
What is the purpose of iodine in gram staining?
A virus capsid is made of?
Coagulase + test means that the sample is?
What test is used to differentiate strep from staph?
What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from all other staphs?
What is classified by way of locomotion?
What is the most common route for the transmission of polio?
What are the most common processes by which microbial pollution is eliminated?
The most fatal form of malaria is?
What causes black water fever?
What is the most common cause of malaria? The second?
1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium vivax
What is the best test to check the effectiveness of milk pasteurization?
A test to check for fecal contamination is?
What has an etiological agent called a spirochete?
Syphilli (condylomat mata)
What is the cause of Legionnaire's Disease?
What is the serology test for Rickettsia?
What antigen is used in a Weil-Felix Test?
Body secretions like tears, breast mils and salive contain lg___?
A virus is most contagious during which stage?
What cuases a lower respirator tract infection?
What is the cause of parrot fever?
What can mimic a pulmonary infection like TB?
What is the cause of Ohio Valley Fever?
What makes up a virus cell wall?
What is a common pre-operational disinfectant?
What causes epidemic parotitis
Mumps may lead to the impairment of wat nerve?
Cholera is characterized by?
Rice water stool, vomitting, dehydration (no lymphatic involved)
What is the heaviest and largest immunoglobin?
1 gm or which one has less
Which scientist discovered yellow fever?
Which scientist is accredited with (pox) vaccines?
Who came up with the germ theory?
Who came up with antibiotics and discovered pennicillin?
Ecchymosis is seen in what disease?
Sabin/Salk vaccines give immunity to?
A 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, productive cough, and a one time shiver episode. What is the diagnosis?
a 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, neck stiffness and a productive cough. What is the diagnosis?
What type of immunity is a filled bacteria vaccine?
Artificial Acquired Active Immunity
What is the cause of black death?
Yerseria pestis, aka Bubonic Plague
What are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2?
How are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2 levels cultured?
In a candal jar/flask
What is the largest health and safety organization that funds for research?
The persistent measles virus may cause?
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
What blood cell type increases with a parasitic infection?
What is most commonly found in unpasteruized milk?
What parasite is diagnosed by recovering eggs from the perianal fold?
Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
Why has the administration of influenza vaccines been so ineffective?
There are many different strands
Organisms that only use oxygen as the final acceptor of electrons are known as?
All bacteriocides and clostridia are characterized as?
A bullseye rash is caused by?
Borellia burgdorfi (sp?)
What type of pus is characteristic of staph aureus?
Gold/yellow pus (it is also an active invasive opportunist)
A zoonosis disease spread by spores is?
A gram negative bacteria characterized by blue-green pus is?
Who is most susceptable to pseudomonus ariginosa?
Burn victims, cystic fibrosis patients and patients with otitis externa
Pyocyan and properdin are associated with?
Blue-green pus and pseudomonus ariginosa
What is the choise mode of transportation for German Measles?
Respiratory (it is a virus)
What causes a funal ball in the lungs?
What consumes inorganic material?
What do you call an organism that dwells in salty water?
What type of organism feeds on the matter of the dead/decaying?
What is the best medium to identify Nisseria ghonnorrhea?
What is the best medium to identify staph?
What is the best medium to identify protozoans and malaria?
Glesma (or Giesma - couldn't read answer clearly)
Alpha nemolysis will show up as?
Beta hemolysis will show up as?
Gamma hemolysis will show up as?
What causes weight loss, abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea for >3 day?
What causes childhood dysentary?
What is most commonly going to affect patients with AIDS?
What is the counter stain to gram stain?
A gray pseudomembrane is seen with?
What is the most effective sterilization in a lab?
Fecal contamination in water is determined by?
What is the cause of amoebic dysentary?
Entamoeba histolysice (sp?)
Consumption of raw fish may be related to?
The hiatid is?
Larval form of tapeworm
What causes Weil's Disease?
What is the cause of syphillis?
What is released by cells infected by viruses and protects the uninfected cells?
What air pollutant will cause headaches, lassitude and dizziness?
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
What test differentiates staph aureus from staph epidermis?
Aluminum and chlorine are used in what steps of water treatment?
What is the etiological agent of YAWS?
What is the etiological agen of malaria?
What is the etiological agent of black death?
What transmits epidemic typhus to humans?
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via viral agent?
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via direct uptake through the cell wall?
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via bacterial phage?
What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via a pylus/sex pilus?
The incidence of a disease is defined as the total number of?
New cases appearing in a given amount of time
Sand flies transmit?
What is most commonly seen with bladder infection?
Opsonins, aglutinins, lysins and precipitans are?
What vitamin is decreased when milk is left standing in the light?
What inhibits bacterial replication and when removed allows reproduction to continue?
The addition of soap to a sterilizing agent will?
Lower the surface tension
What is the most common helminth in the U.S.?
Enterobius veermiculaire (sp?) Pin Worms
What is associated wtih pork?
Soap is a ?
Disinfectant and surfactant
Pasteur is most known for?
The Germ Theory
When a chemical substance acts upon the body, the biological reation depends on the amount of substance received. This is known as?
Water softeners increase what ion in the water?
Na+ (Ca++ makes it harder)
What will cause calcification of skeletal muscles on an x-ray and pain?
What is associated with roots and fixed nitrogen?
What causes severe bone marrow depression after chronic poisoning over a long period of time and low levels?
Most circulating antibodies are produced by?
Majority of antibody content of serum is contained in?
The rapid formation of a specific antibody as a result of a second stimulation by the specific antigen is known as?
A frequent cause of infant diarrhea is?
What is the major source of ionizing radiation contamination in the U.S.?
What is the main health hazard resulting from atmospheric inversion?
Pollutants are held closer to the Earth
What ion causes infant methemoglobulinemia?
"Blue Baby Syndrome"
The highest reported incidence of occupational induced high blood pressure comes from?
Lung disease from iron dust is?
Lead poisoning is not a major hazard for workers in?
Manufacturing fluorescent lamps
What is a hazard for chicken farmers?
What can cause lung cancer and is associated with mesothelioma?
Jock itch is causes by?
What results in passive, naturally acquired immunity?
What is the first line of human cellular defense against viran conditions?
Dorsalis pedis is a continuation of what artery?
Anterior tibial artery
The muscularis externa is made of what type of muscle?
Smooth and skeletal muscle
he white cover of male genitals is called?
What layer of the hypedermis contains adipocytes?
What pouches make of the parathyroid?
3rd and 4th pouches
The larynx is mde of what arches?
4th and 6th arches
The spinous process is made from?
Left and right lamina
The suprascapular foramen is made from?
Transvers scapular ligament
A 2nd order neuron for proprioception synapses where?
Azygos vein is on the _________ side and drains into ________?
What prevents the radial head from dislocating?
What is the superior boarder of the femoral triangle?
Wha innervates flexor oligitorum profundus?
Medial and Ulnar
Flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by?
The begma is at the crossing of the __________ and ________ sutures?
Coronal and Sagittal
What is on the left lung but not on the right?
The right side of the lung has an indentation for the _______ (not found on the left)?
What muscles are associated with TOS and put pressure on the brachial plexus?
The mesosalphinx is also know as?
The TFL is innervated by?
Superior gluteal nerve
What organ if found adjacent to the liver?
Which part of the liver is palpable?
What separates the distal radio-ulnar joing (articulation)?
What type of joint is the stemoclavicular joint?
The radiate ligament attaches to?
The coxa joint is what type of joint?
The corocaclavicular joint is not synovial.
The fibularis longus mm. has its origina on the?
Papilla empty into?
What is found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary?
The reticular layer of the dermis is?
Dense and irregular
Seminepherous drain into?
The pelvic diaphragm is made of?
Levator ani and coccygeus
Which three mm make up the levator ani?
What separates the pelvis and perineum
The vertebral foramen is a result of what type of ossification?
Which bones go through membranous ossification?
Panetal and clavical
Which bone is the first to ossify?
The glabella is part of?
TP's are an attachment for?
Meroiga parastrieria is a result of impairment to what nerve?
Lateral femoral cutaneous
The sup. mesenteric and splenic dump into?
The spinal nerves of L4-S3 form?
The sclera is derived from?
The carotid canal goes through?
Fast conducting axons are made of ______ fibers with _______ diameters?
Which type of nerves are small and unmyelinated and conduct pain?
Which type of nerve fibers are myelinated and conduct acute pain?
Type A (A-delta)
What ligament connects the EOP with the SP of C7?
What type of articulation is found between vert. bodies?
What articulates with T2?
Steinal angle aka Angle of Louis
What cells form the BBB?
CSF is formed by?
1st Choroid plexus
2nd Ependymal cells
What are the macrophages of the brain?
From the ant. 2/3 of the tongue are located on what ganglion?
What are the boundaries of the IVF?
Anterior = disc
Posterior = Facets
Superior = Pedicles (inf. notch of vertebral above)
Inferior - Pedicles (superior notch of vertebral below)
The vertical notches are found on?
The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the _______ border of the _______ surface?f
Axons of the oeptic nerve are formed by the _____ cells of the retina?
DRG, autonomic ganglia and schwann cells are derived from?
Neural Crest Cells
Name the suprahyoid muscles.
Digastric and mylo-, stylo-, genio-hyoid
(You will die if you eat MSG for supper.)
What are the infrahyoid muscles?
Toss IN (all except thyrohoid innervated by ansa cervicalis)
What innervates thyrohyoid and geniohyoid mm?
C1 nerve via CN XI
What innervates the stylohyoid? Mylohyoid? Digastric?
The long thoracic nerve innervates what muscle?
What supplies stimulation to z-joints?
Are rami sensory or motor?
What is the post boundary of the IVF's?
The myelin of the CNS is formed by what cells?
The cerebellum and the Pons are part of what primitive structure?
Metencephalon (then rhobencephalon)
What muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3-C6?
Splenium capitus and cervicis
What is the anterior-superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 called?
What ligaments attach C2 to the occiput?
Tectoral, alar and apical ligaments
Which suboccipital muscles rotate C1 on C2?
Obliques capitus inferior
Which suboccipital muscle is not part of the suboccipital triangle?
What is transmitted through the suboccipital triangle?
Vert. arter and suboccipital nerve
How many z-joints are in a typical thoracic vertebra?
How many total artiaculations are in the T-spine?
Which are not sensory to the epidermis?
Meisseners - light touch
The carotid tubercle is found?
Which spinal ligament has attachments to the discs?
What part of the PLL is the weakest?
What structure forms the anterior boundary of the vertebral canal? The post boundary?
The embryoligic development of extensor muscles is derived from?
What's the embryologic derivation of splanchnic nerve?
Which ribs are true?
1-7 (connect to sternum)
What is atypical about number 1 rib?
It has no demi-facets - connects with full facets of T1
The medullary pyramids contain which tract?
The parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior are?
Mid brain to pons to medulla oblongata
Atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal calcium levels is?
What is deposition of Ca++ into necrotic tissue with normal Ca++ levels?
What is deposition of Ca++ into normal tissue with high Ca++ levels?
Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary after closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
Decreased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of the epiphyseal plates results in?
What are the 4 stages of Pagets?
4. Osteosarcoma (malignant)
Hypoparathyroid in kids is?
Deficiency in _______ results in tetan, similar to that which accompanies hypocalcemia?
Magnesium (1st look for calcium)
Who are the most infectious members of the family?
School aged kids
Cor pulmomale may be a result of ?
What is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to a lack of ...?
What is characterized by a deficiency in T- and B-cells?
Thrombocytopenia is seen in?
Delayed Hypersensitivity is type______?
The pigment found in regressive cells such as old age pigment is?
Yellow pigment from the degradation of hematein is?
Heme + iron =
What is a result of HPT?
Wat type of collagen is found earliest in a wound?
Type 1 collagen is found in?
End of wound healing
Type 2 collagen is found in?
Type 3 collagen is found in?
Earliest in wound healing
Type 4 collagen is found in?
Who is most likely to have median nerve entrapment?
Intracranial calcification occurs most commonly in?
Most common brain tumor?
What is the primary cerebellar tumor in children?
What is cardiac tymponacle?
Fluid in the pericardial space
A primary immunodeficiency of B-cells is?
Autoimmune hypothyroidism is?
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune attack against?
Almost all changes in SLF involve?
Increased immune cells
Autosomal recessive gluco-cerebral disease with hepato/splenomegaly is?
Alcapneuria is a result of?
Neimann-Pick and Tasach's are seen higher in?
Lyme's Disease is caused by?
Marphan's (aka Abe Lincoln's disease) is characterized by?
Kleinfelters is characterized by?
47 xxy - Tall, thin, low I.Q., hypogonadism
What is the most common DJD of joints?
During pronation of the foot, the knee goes?
What is responsible for post infectiou glomerulonephritis?
Strep Pyogene/beta-hemolytic strep
Metastatic osteoblastic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
Metastatic osteolytic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
A benign neoplasm is?
An example of a systemic immune complex reaction?
A deficiency of vitamin C mosts often affects the?
Connective tissue (scurvy)
Wernicke-Korsikoff Syndrome is a result of a deficiency in?
What is characterized by a lesion with caseous necrosis?
The release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes?
Vasodilation of arterioles causing redness
What are the 5 signs of inflammation?
5. Loss of Funtion
What is the most common benign tumor of the spine?
What occurs in a keloid?
Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue
What is the most common benign tumor of the skull?
What causes hoarsness associated with carcinoma in the apex of the lung?
Laryngeal nerve damage
What is produced in cells and increases inflammation due to tissue injury?
What is the result in a cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?
What type of thyrotoxicosis is most common under 40 y/o?
What is characterized by recanalization?
The circulatory level of what kind of cells are higher in an acute inflammatory response to bacteria?
Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis and Spleenomegaly are characteristic of what?
What disease affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia?
Megoblastic anemia is a result of a deficiency of what vitamin?
What is the most likely diagnos for a child with projectile vomiting within the firt three weeks of life?
What is the most common neoplasm found in AIDS patients?
Kaposi's Sarcoma (and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma)
A periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue is called?
Patients with asbestosis are predisposed to?
A periosteal reaction described as sunburst radiographically?
A periosteal reaction described radiographically as laminated or onion-skin would be?
A degenerative disease that affects cranial nerve nuclei?
Progressive Bulbar Palsy
Philadelphia chromosomus are a risk factor in what type of Leukemia?
What type of leukemia is most likely to affect kids?
Elderly men are more likely to get what type of leukemia?
What is the most common adult leukemia?
Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension, and weakness of the upper limbs with low lower limb pulse is seen in?
Coarctation of the aorta
The substitution of one fully differentiated cell type to another type is known as?
Which cell type goes up with viral infections?
What disease is characterized by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglia in the colon, constipation and dilation of the colon?
aka Hirshsprung's Disease
Chaga's Disease is spread by?
The Kissing Bug
What muscle disorder is pseudohypertrophy most common?
Fatty liver, edema and atrophy of the small bowel are characteristic of?
Pannus formation is in?
Cretinism is caused by?
Hypothyroidism in kids
Acromegally and gigantism are results of an increase of?
Subacute panencephalitis is a sequel to?
Degeneration of lateral horn cells affects:
Autonomic function, sympathetics
Chronic passive congestion of the liver is typically seen in?
Right sided heart failure
Starry-sky appearance of lymphoid tissue is characteristic of?
What causes hypoxia without ischemia?
The loss of breaking skills, the lack of the ability to stop forward motion of the hand when reaching is indicative of a lesion to?
What disease is most likely to cause secondary orchitis in post-pubescent males?
Giant cell artereitis primarily affects?
Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of?
A genetic defect of the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine will result in?
PKU and mental retardation
A tumor comprised of 3 germ layers is called?
What is characterized by the presence of caseous necrosis?
What is characterized by calcification of the temporal artery?
Giant Cell Arteritis
What is the mechanism by which the herpes virus stays in the body long after a vericella infection?
Sequestration (sp?) of the genome to a sensory ganglion (m/c trigeminal)
A male with an expanding mass in the jaw/cheek area, from Central Africa probably has?
A pulmonary embolus usually arises from?
Deep vein thrombosis
Pitting edema is usually caused by?
Congestive heart failure
If the medial groove of the prostate cannot be palpated, what is most likely present?
What produces exudative lesions caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and contains caseous necrosis?
Tuberculosis of the spine is?
What type of disease is ankylosing spondylitis?
Pyknosis is characterized as?
A mask-like face, claw hands, hypertension and fibrosis of the esophagus is seen in?
Functional vasospastic disorder affecting the small arteries and arterioles of the hands is?
The presence of right lower quadrant pain, diarrha, malabsorption and granulomatosus inflammation of the intestin indicates?
What are characteristics of Horner's Syndrome
Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis (also opthalmosis)
A small cystic projection from a joint capsule or tendon is known as a?
Hemorrhage into the reticular formation of the brain is most likely to result in?
A localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis is?
Subluxation of the lens, laxity of the ligaments and cystic medial necrosis is seen in?
Antibody synthesis is a primary function of what type of cells?
Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from?
Middle Meningeal Artery
Synovial thickening and 2nd degree inflammation with edema but NO pannus indicates?
Ischemic necrosis as a consequence to cardiac muscle damage is?
What causes localized edema that accompanies fiariasis?
Heberden's nodes are on?
Thrombosis and embolism of what vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?
Superior mesentaric arteries
What produces symptoms due primarily to de-myelination of peripheral nerve axons?
Guillian-Barre (post-infectious poly-radiculitis)
What may lead to megaloblastic anemia?
B9 deficiency and atrophic gastric mucosa
Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tonus, and resultant bloating, heart anomalies and weak respiratory muscles is from a deficiency of?
Calcium or magnesium
What is the most common tumor of the large intestine?