1. ______________ are chemical substances that interact with mineralized tissue, including teeth and bones
    fluoride ions
  2. What are the two effects of the fluoride ion that result in the prevention of decay?
    • direct effect on the hydroxyapatite crystal of enamel
    • action on the indivivual micro-organisms in biofilm
  3. What type of fluoride effect is being described?
    systemic fluorides consumed during tooth development interact with hydroxyapatite crystals of enamel, forming the stable compound calcium fluoride. This chemical structure results in mineralized tissues that are less soluble in acids secreted by acidogenic micro-organisms in the mouth. The same action occurs with topical fluoride
    direct effect on hydroxyapatite
  4. What type of fluoride effect is being described?
    when sodium fluoride is topically applied at appropriate concentrations, bacterial enzyme systems are inhibited, thereby altering the pattern of acid production that woul result in demineralization of tooth structure. Topically applied fluorides change hydroxyapatite to fluorapatite and also promote remineralization of decalcified enamel, which provides effective protections from progressive cavitation. Topical fluoride absorbed by dental biofilm alters the usual pattern of microbial acid production.
    action of fluoride ion on the individual micro-organisms in biofilm
  5. Is complete plaque removal prior to the application of fluoride essential for the benefits of the fluoride to occur?
  6. true or false. Fluoride has both beneficial and detrimental effects. The beneficial effects outweigh the other.
    both are true
  7. Which type of fluoride toxicity is from a fluoride overdose and is a serious medical emergency that must be managed immediately to prevent death?
    acute toxicity
  8. Which type of fluoride toxicity occurs slowly over time, and management is by medical intervention?
    chronic toxicity
  9. ___________ toxicity occurs due to a single overdose of fluoride.
  10. How many reported incidents of fluoride toxicity fatalities have been recorded? With how many of those in the dental office?
    • 3
    • 1
  11. The following symptoms are from which type of fluoride toxicity?
    nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, intestinal cramping, profuse salivation, black stools, progressive hypotenstion, and cardiac irregularities; death is due to respiratory failure and cardiovascular collapse
    acute toxicity
  12. What are 3 steps in the management of acute fluoride toxicity?
    • start with inducing emesis and vomiting to get fluoride out of the stomach
    • have pt drink several glasses of milk to bind fluoride and prevent absorption
    • monitor vital signs and prepare for CPR until EMT arives
  13. During the age of tooth mineralization, drinking water with fluoride >2 ppm can lead to fluorosis of tooth enamel. What type of toxicity is this?
  14. What is the most common sign of chronic fluoride toxicity during tooth development?
    fluorosis of enamel (mottled enamel)
  15. true or false. Children drinking water with 1 ppm fluoride in it, and also ingesting additional fluoride supplements can develop dental fluorosis
  16. What are the 2 accepted agents of fluoride for professional application?
    • Sodium fluoride
    • acidulated phosphate
  17. What type of fluoride is recommended when restorations are present, and why?
    • sodium fluoride
    • restorations could be damaged by the acid in acidulated phosphate
  18. What type of fluoride application is recommended for the pt with rampant decay, or who is at increased risk for caries, such as a client who is undergoing head and neck radiation therapy?
    home applied agent with 5,000 ppm
  19. Describe which type of professionally applied fluoride supplies the highest concentration and has the most efficacious caries reduction, and then which ones follow next after that.
    • 5% fluoride varnish (38% reduction)
    • 2% NaF (29% reduction)
    • 1.23% APF (22% reduction)
  20. What is the decision of wether or not to polish teeth based on?
    based on the presence of extrinsic stains and for supragingival biofilm removal
  21. Which type of fluoride is the agent of choice when porcelain or composite restorations or sealants are present?
    2% topical Sodium fluoride neutral formulation
  22. What type of fluoride is an alternate selection when porcelain restorations or sealants are present and a 3-month maintenance schedule is followed?
    Sodium fluoride
  23. Which type of fluoride is indicated for the pt who may be taking medications on a chronic basis that contain sugar (i.e. some antiepileptic drugs are supplied as syrups for kids who cannot tolerate taking tablets), when the pt is taking a drug for more than a few days that contains sugar (i.e. nystatin to treat candidiasis, sugar is added) or when drugs are taken chronically that cause xerostomia
    acidulated phosphate fluoride 1.23% topical agents
  24. When is APF contraindicated?
    when porcelain, composite, or glass ionomer restorations or sealants are present
  25. Which type of fluoride solutions are no longer marketed for topical application due to their disagreeable taste and staining of decalcified areas and margins of restorations?
    stannous fluoride topical agents (SnF 10%)
  26. What is the active ingredient in fluoride varnish?
    5% sodium fluoride
  27. Which type of fluoride is FDA approved in the US as a dentin desensitizing agent and as a cavity liner under the medical device category of approval?
    5% NaF formulation varnish
  28. true or false. a practitioner who uses fluoride varnish as an anticaries agent is using the product 'off label' on the basis of professional judgement.
  29. Which type of fluoride application is advocated for moderate- and high-risk caries-susceptible children, particularly children under 5 years of age, as well as for children recieving orthodontic treatment?
    fluoride varnish
  30. Why is the application of fluoride varnish suitable for special-needs populations such as very young children with autism and those with management problems such as mental or physical disabilities?
    because of the simplicity of the application
  31. Which type of fluoride offer the safest topical fluoride treatment available for young children at risk for dental caries?
    fluoride varnish
  32. true or false. patient-applied fluoride varnish should not be used in children under 6 years old, or pts who can not spit.
  33. Which type of dentifrice would be best recommended to the pt who has gingivitis?
    dentifrices with triclosan (colgate total)
  34. Which type of drugs would be the drugs of choice for the management of mild odontogenic pain?
    • Over the counter formulations of: ASA-aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
    • APAP (acetominophen, tylenol)
    • ibuprofen
    • naproxen sodium
  35. When is ASA (aspirin) effective against dull throbbing pain of odontogenic orign?
    in doses of 650 or 1,000 mg
  36. When should the clinician not recommend ASA (aspirin) for odontogenic pain relief?
    when a client is taking a drug prescribed for a medical condition that interacts with ASA
  37. What is the drug of choice to treat for long-term control of pain associated with osteoarthritis?
    Acetominophen (tylenol)
  38. Which type of drug is safe for treating dental pain in the pt with alcohol-related liver disease?
    therapeutic APAP doses (4,000 mg/day)
  39. What are two drugs used in the primary line of treatment for dental pain?
    • aspirin
    • acetaminophen
  40. What are 2 drugs that are both COX-1 inhibitors and can be used for either the first line of analgesic treatment or second line of treatment depending on the dosage?
    • ibuprofen
    • naproxen sodium
  41. What are the drugs of choice for the management of moderate-to-severe odontogenic pain?
    COX-1 inhibitors alone, in combination with APAP, or with codeine or hydrocodone
  42. Which type of drugs are the drug of choice for dental pain when substance abuse (other than alcohol) is suspected or when an individual has a history of substance abuse and is in recovery
    COX-1 inhibitors
  43. Which is the best drug if there are no other problems?
  44. Which drug combination might be an appropriate alternative for the management of acute odontogenic pain in those situations where COX-1 inhibitors or opioid analgesics are contraindicated such as peptic ulcer disease or substance abuse recovery?
    tramadol in combination with APAP
  45. What is the best drug to give pregnant pts?
  46. What is the best drug to use for a healthy person?
  47. What is the best drug to use for a person with peptic ulcer disease?
    tramadol w/ acetominophen
  48. What is the best drug to use for a person who has a history of substance abuse?
    COX-1 inhibitor (nonopeioid
  49. What is a drug that is ok to use with alcoholics?
    appropriate dose of acetominophen
  50. Which type of cyclooxygenase inhibitor protects the gastric mucosa by enhancing gastric blood flow, and inhibits acid output?
    COX-1 induced prostaglandis
  51. Which type of cyclooxygenase romotes platelet aggregation and clot formation?
    COX-1 induced thromboxane
  52. which type of drugs increase the pain threshold to noxious stimuli by reducing prostaglandin synthesis, but they also interfere with thromboxane induced platelet afftregation and increase bleeding?
    • aspirin
    • ibuprofen (NSAIDs)
  53. Which type of cyclooxygenase is expressed (synthesized) primarily in the brain, kidneys, female reproductive system, and bones? Synthesis is induced by inflammatory cytokines in other tissues including endothelial cells, it prevents platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation
  54. Which type of drug is a COX-2 inhibitor? And when should it not be used?
    • celecoxib (celebrex)
    • in pts with cardiovascular disease
  55. name two COX-1 inhibitors
    • ASA
    • ibuprofen
  56. Which type of cyclooxygenase isoforms are expressed (synthesized) primarily in the CNS?
    COX-3 isoforms
  57. What is a COX-3 inhibitor that is relatively weak of peripheral prostaglandi biosynthesis?
  58. Which route of administration is the safest?
    the oral route (enteral)
  59. Which route of administration is used in emergency situations is the most predictable, and is less safe than the oral route?
  60. What is a problem with topical application routes of administration?
    it is more likely to cause allergic reactions
  61. What is the prototype for indirectly acting drugs that cause a rapid release of Nor from the mobile pool of the ANT?
  62. What drug increases both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, increased heart rate and force of contraction can occur, although compensatory reflexes generally acto to slow the heart rate, and if doses of this drug is high, it can cause arrhythmia
  63. true or false. contraction of the sphincter in the urinary bladdar caused by amphetamine leads to difficult urination and urinary retention
  64. What are amphetamines used therapeutically for?
  65. What are 6 results of amphetamines when used therapeutically? (results of which why they are abused)
    • stimulate the medullary respiratory center in brain
    • reverse drug-induced CNS depression
    • increase wakefulness and alertness
    • decrease the appetite
    • decrease fatigue
    • elevate the mood, leading to euphoria
  66. true or false. the use of vasoconstrictors is contraindicated in individuals who have recently used cocaine.
  67. What dose of vasoconstrictors is indicated for pts with cardiac problems?
    • 0.04 mg (cardiac dose)
    • 1 cartridge of epi 1:50,000
    • 2 cartridges of epi 1:100,000
    • 4 cartridges of epi 1:200,000
  68. an antibacterial agent capable of suppressing the growth/multiplication of bacteria
  69. an antibacterial agent capable of killing bacteria
Card Set
week 8 quiz