quiz 3 pharm

  1. what are examples of ACUTE fl2 toxicity? (8)
    • nausea
    • vomiting
    • diarrhea
    • intestinal cramping
    • black stools
    • profuse salivation
    • progressive hypotension
    • cardiac irregularities (tachycardia, fibrillation)
  2. what is the most common sign of chronic fl2 toxicity during tooth development?
    dental fluorosis
  3. hypomineralization of the outer 1/3 of enamel (causes brown to white), hypoplastic pitting of enamel, or dental fluorosis results from _____ fl2 toxicity
  4. which fl2 would be used on someone with sealants?
    NaF because a sealant is a restoration
  5. why can APF not be used on dental restorations?
    it causes etching of the surfaces
  6. which fl2 is recommended for use on young children?
  7. which ROA (route of administration) is the safest?
    ORAL ROUTE! You can't get pregnant!
  8. what are the effects of amphetamine? (6)
    • stimulates medullary respiratory center of brain
    • reverse drug-induced CNS depression
    • increase wakefullness and alterness
    • decrease appetite
    • decrease fatigue
    • elevate mood, leading to euphoria
  9. what disorder is amphetamine used therapeutically?
    for narcolepsy
  10. what is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic?
    • bactericidal kills bacteria (cide= kill)
    • bacteriostatic suppresses the growth of bacteria (static= lack of action or movement)
  11. what is the fl2 mechanism of action? (2)
    • reduces ability of bacteria to make acids by inhibiting their enzyme systems
    • remineralizes areas of tooth that has been attacked by acids
  12. which fl2 is recommended on use for compromised patients?
    NaF varnish
  13. what is the drug of choice for healthy, peptic ulcer, substance abuse, alcoholics, and pregnant people?
    acetaminophen (non-opiod)
  14. which isoenzyme is in all normal tissue and is the "housekeeping" enzyme that has the inhibitors:
    ASA, ibuprophen (Advil, Motrin), naproxen (Naprosyn), naproxen Na (Aleve)
  15. all COX inhibitors ________ pain threshold (less pain)
    INCREASE (e.g. if you have a high pain threshold = low pain is felt)
  16. which isoenzyme protects gastric mucosa, but affects renal function?
  17. which isoenzyme is primarily in brain, kidneys, female reproductive system and bone?
  18. what are the COX-2 inhibitors?
    celebrex (celecoxib)
  19. which isoenzyme when inhibited reduces prostaglandin synthesis (raises threshold), and blocks endothelial prostacycline synthesis to cause: platelet aggregation (clots) and vasoconstriction?
  20. which isoenzyme is expressed primarily in the CNS
  21. what are the inhibitors for COX-3 (COX-1 variant)?
    APAP (Tylenol)
  22. which isoenzyme action of inhibitors result in no anti-inflammatory effect, has analgesic and antipyretic effect (inhibits prostaglandin in CNS), and APAP has no effect on platelet function
  23. ___________ is a sympathomimetic agent which are also the most powerful ____ stimulants
    • amphetamine
    • CNS
  24. amphetamine is ideal for ________ acting drugs that cause a release of Nor from the mobile pool of the ANT
  25. 1.8=___mg
  26. .18mg of epi per cartridge if it is __:____k epi
  27. with pseudomembranous candidiasis which group of patients are most likely affected?
    • neonates (thrush)
    • immunosuppressed patients
    • HIV
  28. which drugs cause pseudomembranous colitis?
    • lincomycin and clindamycin (fatalities)
    • tetracycline, ampicillin, cephlasporins
  29. what is pseudomembranous colitis treated with?
    IV antibiotics (vancomycin)
  30. pseudomembranous candidiasis is seen in which type of groups?
    infants younger than 1 mo of age (neonates), immunosuppressed patients, and HIV infected patients
Card Set
quiz 3 pharm
quiz 3 pharm