Dental radiology

  1. Identify which of the following processes occurs with ionization:
    A. cell death takes place
    B. photons penetrate matter
    C. radiant energy is converted to heat
    D. an electron is displaced from its orbit
  2. d. Correct. Ionization occurs when an atom gains or loses an electron.
  3. Identify the term used to describe an atom that has lost an electron from its orbit:



    B. Correct. An ion refers to an atom that has gained or lost an electron
  4. Identify which of the following is not a property of x-rays:



    C. X-rays can penetrate organic matter.b. Correct. X-rays can cause certain substances to fluoresce.
  5. Identify which of the following element(s) is/are located within the x-ray tube:



    D. Correct. The anode and cathode are the electrodes inside the x-ray tube, and the focusing cup is a part of the cathode.
  6. Identify which of the following is not a type of particulate radiation:



    C. Correct. Nucleons are not a type of particulate radiation; a nucleon is a part of an atomic nucleus
  7. Identify which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation:



    A. Correct. Electrons are not a type of electromagnetic radiation.
  8. Identify which of the following is false:



    A. False. X-rays do not travel at the speed of sound. X-rays travel at the speed of light.
  9. Identify the part of the x-ray tube that contains the focal spot:



    D. Correct. The anode is the electrode that contains the focal spot.
  10. Identify the part of the x-ray tube where x-rays are produced:



    D. Correct. X-rays are produced at the positively charged anode when the electrons are converted into x-ray photons.
  11. Identify the unit of time used to measure x-ray exposure:



    D. Correct. Exposure time is measured in impulses because x-rays are created in a series of bursts or pulses rather than a continuous stream.
  12. Identify the function(s) of the milliamperage setting on the x-ray machine:



    A. Correct. Milliamperage controls both the quantity of x-rays produced as well as the temperature of the tungsten filament.
  13. Identify the characteristics of x-rays produced with a high kilovoltage: 1. more penetrating 2. less penetrating 3. of longer wavelength 4. of shorter wavelength



    D. When kilovoltage peak settings are increased, a higher energy x-ray beam is produced with a more penetrating beam; more penetrating x-rays with greater energy also demonstrate shorter wavelengths
  14. Identify the function of the kilovoltage setting on the x-ray machine:



    B. Correct. The kilovoltage setting controls the penetrating power of the beam.
  15. Identify the term used to describe the overall blackness or darkness of a film:



    D. Density is the overall blackness or darkness of a film.
  16. Identify the exposure factor(s) that affect(s) contrast:
    A.milliamperage
    B. kilovoltage
    C. exposure time
    D. all of the above
  17. B.The only exposure factor that affects the contrast of the image is kilovoltage.
  18. Identify the density and contrast of a film produced using a high kilovoltage setting:
    A.increased density; low contrast
    B. increased density; high contrast
    C. decreased density; low contrast
    D. decreased density; high contrast
  19. A. high kilovoltage setting produces a darker image (which can be described as increased density), and a low contrast (which can be described as many shades of gray).
  20. Identify which of the following results when a film is exposed with a high milliamperage setting:



    C. Correct. A high milliamperage setting produces an image of increased density, or a darker image.
  21. Identify the kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting that produces the greatest contrast among images on a radiograph:
    A. 65 kVp
    B. 75 kVp
    C.80 kVp
    D.90 kVp
  22. A."Greatest" contrast refers to an image that has high contrast, or many black and white areas; this type of image is produced with lower kilovoltage peak settings.
  23. Identify the reduction in exposure time when changing from D-speed film to E-speed film:
    A.reduce exposure time by 1/8
    B.reduce exposure time by 1/4
    C.reduce exposure time by 1/3
    D. reduce exposure time by 1/2
  24. D.When film manufacturers produce a faster speed intraoral film, the newer film requires only half the exposure time of the previous film.
  25. Identify the periapical film size used for a maxillary premolar exposure in an adult patient:



    B. Correct. Size 2 film examines the anterior and posterior teeth in adults.
  26. Identify the major advantage of using the paralleling technique versus the bisecting angle technique:



    D. Correct. The major advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting technique is the decreased amount of distortion in the image.
  27. Identify the positioning of the film in relation to the tooth when using the paralleling technique:



    B. To utilize the paralleling technique correctly, place the receptor or film parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
  28. Identify which of the following is not an advantage of the paralleling technique:



    B. Correct. Patient comfort is not an advantage of the paralleling technique because the film-holding devices may impinge on the oral tissues.
  29. Identify the benefit of using a long-cone (16") position-indicating device (PID) versus a short-cone (8") PID:





    D.

    less resolution occurs
    A. Correct. When a longer PID is used, more parallel rays strike the object, which results in less image magnification.
  30. Identify the error that causes teeth to appear foreshortened on a radiograph:



    D. Correct. Excessive vertical angulation causes foreshortening of the image.
  31. Identify the angulation of the central ray when using the bisecting angle technique:
    A. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
    B. 90 degrees to the film
    C. 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
    D. 90 degrees to the contact area
  32. A. The bisecting angle technique describes an intraoral technique in which the radiographer must visualize an angle formed by the film and long axis of the tooth; the central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular to the imaginary bisector.
  33. Identify the result of using excessive finger pressure on the film with the bisecting angle technique:



    B. Correct. Increased finger pressure on the film can cause the film to bend, and image distortion results
  34. Identify a likely cause of gagging during radiographic exposure:



    C. Correct. Moving the film across the soft palate often induces a gag reflex in patients.
  35. Identify the film that is used to detect both interproximal caries and crestal bone levels:



    A. Correct. The bite-wing radiograph is the film of choice to examine interproximal caries and crestal bone levels.
  36. Identify the cause of overlapped contacts on a bite-wing radiograph: A.



    B. Correct. Incorrect horizontal angulation causes overlapped contacts.
  37. Identify the vertical angulation required for exposing a bite-wing radiograph:
    A.+20 degrees
    B. +10 degrees
    C. -20 degrees
    D. -10 degrees
  38. B. the vertical angulation recommended for exposing bite-wing radiographs is +10 degrees, which means the tubehead is angled downward slightly.
  39. Identify the error that results when the central x-ray is not centered on the film:



    D. Correct. A cone-cut results if the central x-ray beam is not centered on the film.
  40. Identify one use for the occlusal radiograph:



    D. Correct. The occlusal radiograph can be used to localize foreign bodies in the maxilla or mandible.
  41. Identify the film size and vertical angulation required to expose a maxillary occlusal projection on a 5-year-old child:



    B. Correct. Because of the age of the child, size 2 film is recommended as well as an angulation of +60 degrees to view the maxillary arch.
  42. Identify which instruction(s) should be given to the patient concerning exposure of a panoramic radiograph:



    D. Correct
  43. Identify the error that results when a patient is positioned for a panoramic exposure with the chin tipped up:



    A. Correct. A reverse smile line occurs when the patient's chin is tipped up.
  44. Identify which of the following is true concerning intensifying screens:
    A. used to magnify the amount of radiation produced
    B. used to help to absorb scatter radiation
    C. found in extraoral and intraoral film packets
    D. emit light when struck by x-radiation
  45. D. When struck by x-radiation, the intensifying screen used in extraoral radiography emits light.
  46. Identify the function of the intensifying screen:
    A. reduce exposure time
    B. increase exposure time
    C. increase processing time
    D. clarify periapical structures
  47. A The function of the intensifying screen used in extraoral radiography is to reduce exposure time for the patient.
  48. Identify the cause of a herringbone pattern on a processed radiograph:
    A. Film was underdeveloped
    B. exposure time was too short
    C. exposure time was too long
    D. film was placed backward in the mouth
  49. d. Correct. The herringbone pattern is the result of the film having been placed backward in the mouth. The radiation has penetrated the lead foil before reaching the film.
  50. Identify the appearance of a film exposed to light before processing:



    A. Correct. A film exposed to light before processing appears black.
  51. Identify the likely cause of black lines on a processed film:



    C. Correct. Dirty rollers in the processor may cause black lines across the film.
  52. Identify the radiopaque anatomic landmark:



    D. Correct. The genial tubercles are ringlike radiopacities seen below the apices of the mandibular teeth.
  53. Identify the radiolucent anatomic landmark:



    B. Correct. The canine fossa is a scooped-out area of the bone that appears as a radiolucency superior to the roots of the maxillary lateral incisor and canine.
  54. Identify the film that includes the mental foramen:
    A. mandibular premolar
    B. mandibular molar
    C. maxillary premolar
    D. maxillary molar
  55. A The mental foramen is a radiolucent landmark seen near the apices of the mandibular premolars and most often appears on the mandibular premolar film.
  56. Identify the film that includes the lingual foramen:
    A. mandibular incisor
    B. mandibular canine
    C. mandibular premolar
    D. maxillary canine
  57. a.The lingual foramen is a radiolucent landmark seen below the roots of the mandibular incisors and most often appears on the mandibular incisor film.
  58. Identify the film that includes the canine fossa:
    A. maxillary incisor
    B. maxillary canine
    C. mandibular incisor
    D. mandibular canine
  59. B.The canine fossa is a radiolucent landmark seen near the apices of the maxillary lateral incisor and maxillary canine and most often appears on the maxillary canine film.
  60. Identify which of the following affect(s) the life of the developer solution:



    D. Correct. The size of the films, the number of films, and the cleanliness of the processing tanks all affect the life of the developer solution.
  61. Identify which of the following produce(s) a light radiographic image:



    B. Correct. A cool developer solution produces a lighter image. Exhausted chemicals do not fully bring out the latent image and therefore a lighter, nondiagnostic image again results
  62. Identify which of the following produce(s) yellow or brown stains on a film:
    A. exhausted developer solution
    B. exhausted fixer solution
    C. insufficient washing
    D. all of the above
  63. d. Correct. Exhausted processing solutions and insufficient washing can all contribute to a yellow-brown stain on the film.
  64. Identify the appearance of a film left in the fixer for a long time:



    A. Correct. Leaving a film in the fixer causes a light image, or decreased density.
  65. Identify the cause of light (white) spots on a processed radiograph:



    C. Correct. Contact with the fixing solution before processing causes light (white) spots.
  66. Identify the cause of a radiograph that appears too dark:



    B. Correct. If the temperature of the developing solution is high, the films appear darker.
  67. Identify which of the following results in film fog: 1. improper safelighting 2. film exposed to chemical fumes 3. use of outdated film 4. placing the film backward in the mouth



    D. Correct. Improper safelighting, films exposed to chemical fumes in the darkroom, and the use of outdated films may all cause film fog.
  68. Identify the likely cause if one or two films of a complete series appear simply clear after processing:



    B. Correct. If only one or two processed radiographs of a complete series appear clear after processing, then these images were not exposed to radiation.
  69. Identify the optimum temperature for the developer solution:



    A. Correct. 68° F is the optimum temperature for the developer solution when manually processing radiographs.
  70. Identify the appearance of a radiograph processed with exhausted developer:



    B. Correct. An exhausted developer cannot bring out the dark images; therefore, the processed radiograph will appear thin and faded.
  71. Identify the recommended distance between the safelight and work surface:



    D. Correct. Four feet is the recommended distance from the safelight to the working surface in the darkroom
  72. Identify the reason(s) film should not be stored in the darkroom:



    B. Correct. Film should be stored in a cool, dry environment to protect against film fog.
  73. Identify which of the following does not affect the life of the processing solutions:



    A. Correct. The type of safelight filter used has no effect on the life of the processing solutions
  74. Identify the error that results when a film is subjected to sudden temperature change (e.g., between developer solution and water bath):


    B. Correct. Films that are subject to a sudden temperature change in processing solutions demonstrate reticulation of emulsion; the film appears cracked.
  75. Identify the films placed in the following frames, using the labial mounting method.{Insert unn fig 1}Frame #1:



    D. Correct
  76. Identify which of the following is true concerning labial mounting:



    A. Correct
  77. Identify which of the following is true regarding duplicating film:



    B. Correct
  78. Identify which of the following is/are true regarding duplicating film:



    A. Correct. Adequate contact between the duplicating film and original radiographs is important.
  79. Identify the best description of primary radiation:



    D. Correct. Primary radiation is defined as the beam that exits the tubehead.
  80. Identify the radiation produced when matter is irradiated by x-rays:
    A. leakage radiation
    B. primary radiation
    C. diverging radiation
    D. secondary radiation
  81. d. Correct. Secondary radiation is produced when matter is irradiated by x-rays.
  82. Identify the x-rays that are most likely absorbed by the skin, thus causing x-ray injury:



    D. Correct. Long-wavelength x-rays are lower in energy and are not useful in diagnostic radiography. Also, they are harmful to the patient.
  83. Identify the most dangerous time for a fetus to be exposed to ionizing radiation:



    A. Correct. The most dangerous time for a fetus to be exposed to ionizing radiation is during the first trimester because the fetal cells have high mitotic activity and cell differentiation, making them highly sensitive to radiation.
  84. Identify which of the following are patient protection measures used to limit exposure to x-radiation: 1. use of lead apron and thyroid collar 2. use of film-holding devices 3. following the ALARA concept 4. use of E-speed film



    B. Correct. All of the choices listed are protection measures used to limit patient exposure to x-radiation.
  85. Identify the maximum permissible dose (MPD) of an occupationally exposed person:



    D. Correct. The maximum permissible dose of an occupationally exposed person is defined by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements and is set at the state and federal levels
  86. Identify the maximum permissible dose (MPD) of a nonoccupationally exposed person:



    D. Correct. The maximum permissible dose of a nonoccupationally exposed person is defined by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements and is set at the state and federal levels.
  87. Identify the maximum diameter of the collimated x-ray beam as it exits the PID:



    A. Correct. Federal regulations require that the x-ray beam be collimated to a diameter of no more than 2.75 inches as it reaches the skin of the patient.
  88. Identify the function of the collimator:



    C. Correct. The function of the collimator is to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam.
  89. Identify which of the following is used to make a collimator:



    D. Correct. Lead is used to make the collimator.
  90. Identify the function of filtration:



    A. Correct. The function of the filter is to remove the long wavelengths, which are also lower-energy x-rays, from the beam.
  91. Identify which of the following is not a component of inherent filtration:



    B. Correct. The lead-lined cone is not a component of inherent filtration.
  92. Identify which of the following is used to make a filter:



    C. Correct. Aluminum is used to make the filter.
  93. Identify the term used to describe the x-ray beam that exits the PID:



    B. Correct. Primary radiation is defined as the x-ray beam that exits the PID.
  94. Identify the exposure factor adjustment used to produce a beam with greater penetrating power:



    C. Correct. Increasing the kilovoltage peak creates a more penetrating beam with higher quality.
  95. Identify the intensity of the x-ray beam if the PID is increased from 8 inches to 16 inches:



    B. Correct. Utilizing the inverse square law, the beam will be one quarter as intense.
  96. Identify which of the following results in the greatest reduction of x-ray exposure:



    C. Correct. Using the fastest film available is the most effective method of reducing a patient's exposure to x-radiation.
  97. Identify which of the following is determined by the milliamperage and exposure time settings:



    D. Correct. Both milliamperage and exposure time settings determine the number of x-rays produced
  98. Identify the radiation effects that occur in the exposed person, not in the reproductive cells:



    C. Correct. Somatic effects are seen in the person irradiated.
  99. Identify which of the following is most effective in reducing x-radiation exposure:



    D. Correct. The addition of rectangular collimation makes this the most effective choice in reducing x-radiation exposure
  100. Identify the recommended positioning of the dental radiographer to the primary beam:



    A. Correct
  101. Identify the safest positioning for a radiographer during x-ray exposure:



    C. Correct. Standing behind a lead barrier is the safest position for the operator.
  102. Identify the safest positioning for a radiographer during an x-ray exposure in which no shielding is available:



    B. Correct
  103. Identify the purpose of creating a reference radiograph:



    D. Correct. Reference radiographs are used to compare film densities, and the developer solution is responsible for creating the densities.
  104. Identify the purpose of the "coin test":



    C. Correct. The coin test is used to determine proper safelight distance and wattage.
  105. Identify the appearance of a radiograph if the film is exposed to a small light leak in the darkroom:



    B. Correct. A small light leak may cause some fogging of the image.
  106. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found around the crown of an impacted tooth:



    C. Correct. Pericoronal refers to a location around the crown of an impacted tooth.
  107. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found between the roots of adjacent teeth:



    C. Correct. Inter-radicular refers to a location between the roots of adjacent teeth.
  108. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found around the apex of a tooth:



    A. Correct. Periapical refers to a location around the apex of a tooth.
  109. Radiolucent lesions with corticated borders exhibit a thin, well-demarcated radiopaque rim of bone at the periphery. These types of lesions are usually indicative of fast growing, malignant processes;



    B. Correct. The presence of a corticated border indicates that the radiolucent lesion will be surrounded by a thin, radiopaque rim of bone; this is usually indicative of a benign, slow-growing process.
  110. A well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform, radiolucent halo can be described as:



    D. Correct. A target lesion is a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a radiolucent halo.
Author
Anonymous
ID
6867
Card Set
Dental radiology
Description
final exam for dental radiology
Updated