CT Mock Review1

  1. An average range for activated PTT is:



    A. 25-35 seconds
  2. Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?



    D. 15 degrees
  3. A total volume of 125 mL of an iodinated contrast agent is administered intravenously via automatic injector in 50 seconds. The Flow Rate for this injection is:
    a 0.75 mL/sec
    b. 1.25 mL/sec
    c. 1.75 mL/sec
    d. 2.5 mL/sec
    d. 2.5 mL/sec

    125mL divided by 50 sec = 2.5mL/sec
  4. The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?



    D. the radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
  5. While one is obtaining a thorough history from a patient prior to the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast material, which of the following topics from be included?
    1. any prior allergic reaction to contrast media
    2. presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
    3. history of asthma



    B. 1 and 3 only
  6. Which of the following factors may affect a patients calculated Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?
    1. age
    2. sex
    3. race



    A. 1, 2, and 3
  7. Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest over-all plasma iodine concentration?



    B. Bolus Technique
  8. A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
    1. tachycardia
    2. rapid, shallow breathin
    3. cyanosis



    B. 1, 2, and 3
  9. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?



    D. corticosteroid
  10. Which of the following technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?



    B. mAs
  11. Which of the following is a non-ionice contrast material?



    B. iohexol
  12. Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?



    D. dyspnea
  13. Which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?



    C. ionization chamber
  14. Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?



    D. implied consent
  15. Complete Cardiac diatole corresponds in which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?



    D. T wave
  16. During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the:



    A. joint space
  17. Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?



    C. iodixanol
  18. A common site for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as:



    D. antecubital space
  19. The potentially serious decline in renal function following the IV administration of contrast material is called:



    A. contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
  20. The quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type is called:



    A. effective dose
  21. Advantages of a saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. reduction in required contrast agent dose
    2. reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
    3. reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature



    A. 1, 2, and 3
  22. Which of the following medications may be administered to dialte the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?



    A. sublingual nitroglycerine
  23. A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult:



    A. 60-90 mm Hg
  24. Which of the following is a parental route of medication administration?



    C. intramuscular
  25. Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?
    1. reduced mA
    2. limit phases of acquistion
    3. increase pitch



    B. 1, 2, and 3
  26. Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed_______in nature?



    B. stochastic
  27. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?



    C. enteric precautions
  28. Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?



    B. iothalamate meglumine
  29. The radiation dose index calculations that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:



    B. CTDIw
  30. Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. prior life threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
    2. multiple myeloma
    3. diabetes



    A. 1 only
  31. Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?



    D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
  32. Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:
    1. pre-contrast sequence of the brain
    2. CTA of the brain brain and carotids
    3. CT Perfusion (CTP) of the brain



    B. 1, 2, and 3
  33. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of:



    B. 0 to +20 Hounsfield units
  34. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:



    C. 25-35 seconds
  35. The Abdominal Aorta biforcates at the level of:



    B. L4
  36. On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?



    D. 55%-75%
  37. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is called the:



    C. vacuum phenomenon
  38. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:
    1. continuously as the patient travels through the gantry
    2. one section at a time
    3. in the form of a computer volumetric data set



    C. 1 and 3 only
  39. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?



    B. CT of the brain to r/o subdural hematoma
  40. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?



    D. excretory
  41. CT examinations of the abdomen in the right lateral decubitus are often performed in this position to demonstrate the relationship between the:



    B. duodenum and pancreatic head
  42. Which of the following sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT of the neck?



    C. 3mm thick every 3mm
  43. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:



    D. ischemic penumbra
  44. Complex fractures of the wrist are most common in which of the following carpal bones?



    D. scaphoid
  45. A complete CT study of the orbits should include:



    A. 2.5mm x 2.5mm axial and coronal sections
  46. High-Resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for the evaluation of the:



    D. lungs
  47. Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsations artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?



    C. retrospective ECG gating
  48. During a general CT examination of the abdomen, an intravenous contrast agent is indicated and is administered with the aid of an automatic injector. Which of the following ranges of flow rate should be used?



    D. 1.0-3.0 mL/sec
  49. Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:



    B. steatosis
  50. CT images of the chest should be acquired with the patient:



    D. at full inspiration
  51. During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled:



    A. 15 degrees above the IOML
  52. During the CT examination of the larynx, the patient is often instructed to phonate the letter "E" in order to properly evaluate the:



    A. vocal cords
  53. During the CT examination of a female pelvis for a suspected malignancy, ascites may be present in an area posterior to the uterus and ovaries known as:



    C. the cul-de-sac
  54. Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?



    B. bronchiectasis
  55. An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the:



    D. bladder
  56. Prior to a CT colonography, the patient may undergo a process of bowel cleansing termed:



    B. catharsis
  57. Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushoin during a CT examination of the lumbar spine assists in:
    1. decreasing the kyphotic curvature of the lumbar spine
    2. making the patient more comfortable throughout the exam
    3. decreasing the lordoctic curvature of the lumbar spine



    B. 2 and 3 only
  58. The imaging plane that is parallel to the foots plantar surface is called the:



    D. axial plane
  59. The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called:



    C. claudication
  60. The HRCT images of the chest are most likely acquired with a section width of:



    D. 1mm
  61. The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?



    B. coronal
  62. The most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma is the:



    D. spleen
  63. The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?



    A. L1-L2
  64. Which of the following protocols would provide the best image quality for a 3D disarticulation study of the hips?



    B. 1.5mm x 1.0mm sections, bone algorithm
  65. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?



    D. leiomyoma
  66. The section thickness that would best demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:



    A. 3mm
  67. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?



    C. liver
  68. Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
    1. instructing the patient to take nothing by mouth (NPO) for 4 hours prior to exam
    2. 1200mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 minutes prior to exam
    3. having the patient drink 4 liters of poly-ethylene glycol (PEG) 24 hours prior to exam



    C. 1 and 2 only
  69. During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:



    B. iliac crests to the pubic symphysis
  70. The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:



    C. 50.0 cm
  71. Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears________on CT images.



    C. hyperdense
  72. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:
    a. maximum intensity projection
    (MIPs)
    b. 3D volume rendering
    c. shaded-surface displays (SSDs)
    d. minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
    d. minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
  73. Which of the following is NOT a portion of the small bowel?



    C. cecum
  74. Which of the following is used as the IV administered radiopharmaceutical during a PET-CT fusion examination?



    A. fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)
  75. The specialized CT examination of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast-agent is directly administered under gravity into the bladder via foley catheter is termed:



    B. CT cystography
  76. Which of the following best describes the shape of the x-ray beam utilized in MDCT?



    C. cone-shaped
  77. Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs-
    1. at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness
    2. just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation
    3. before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed



    D. 1 and 3 only
  78. CT numbers are usually provided in the form of:



    B. Hounsfield units
  79. The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of the motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:



    A. interpolation
  80. The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:



    B. spatial resolution
  81. A first generation CT scanner consists of an x-ray tube and two detectors that translate across the patients head while rotating in 1-degree increments for a total of:



    C. 180 degrees
  82. Which of the following abbreviations is used to identify a computerized network that stores, retrieves, communicates, and displays digital medical images?



    C. PACS
  83. The CT "window" controls the _____ of the CT image as it appears to the viewer.



    C. contrast and brightness
  84. Voxels with equal dimensions along the x-, y- and z- axes are referred to as:



    D. isotropic
  85. Which of the following artifacts is not affected by the CT technologist?



    B. ring
  86. When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each voxel represents:



    B. the average attenuation occurring within the voxel
  87. Statistial noise appears as _____ on a CT image.



    A. graininess
  88. An acquisition is made on a 64-slice MSCT system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625 mm. With a selected beam width of 40 mm and the beam pitch is set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?



    A. 60mm------40 mm x 1.5 = 60 mm
  89. The component of the CT computer system responsible for the data processing of image reconstuction is the:



    B. array processor
  90. For single-slice CT (SSCT) systems, which of the following statements regarding retrospective image reconstruction is FALSE?



    D. the slice thickness and SFOV may be changed
  91. The loss of anatomic information between contiguous sections due to inconsistent patient breathing is called:



    A. misregistration
  92. Before a CT image can be reconstructed by a computer, the transmission signal produced by the detectors must be converted into numerical information by an:



    A. analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
  93. A CT image is formed in part by projecting back all of the attenuation values recorded during data acquisition onto a:



    D. matrix
  94. Which of the following archival media is capable of storing the largest number of CT images?



    A. optical disk
  95. Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?



    C. high spatial frequencies
  96. Which of the following terms is used to describe a set of rules for solving a mathematical problem?



    D. algorithm
  97. Which of the following factors does not affect the dimensions of a voxel?



    C. kernel
  98. The size of the CT image displayed on a computer monitor can be enlarged by increasing the:
    1. DFOV
    2. SFOV
    3. image magnification



    D. 3 only
  99. The average photon energy of the primary beam of a CT scanner operating at a tube potential of 120 kVp is approximately?



    C. 70 keV
  100. MSCT systems typically employ which of the following detector geometries?



    C. third generation
  101. The acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period is referred to as:



    D. cine CT
  102. The rate at which a quantity of x-radiation emitted from a CT tube passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called the:



    B. photon flux
  103. An average CT number value for bone is:



    C. +1000 HU
  104. A standard CT image reconstructed on a 512 squared matrix has a digital size of appoximately:



    B. 0.5 MB
  105. The term used to describe the relationship between the linear attenuation coefficient of an object and the calculated CT numbers is:



    A. linearity
  106. Quality control measurements to test the accuracy of the CT scanners calibration should be performed:



    A. daily
  107. The 3D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the recontructed model with adjustments to its opacity is termed:



    C. volume rendering
  108. Where is the high-frequency generator often located in a modern CT scanner?



    B. inside the gantry
  109. The smallest unit of information used in the binary language of computers is the:



    B. bit
  110. The continuous gantry rotation required by helical CT acquisition is made possible by the application of:



    D. slip-rings
  111. The process of applying a mathematical filter to remove blurring from the reconstructed CT image is termed:



    C. convolution
  112. Which of the following acquisitions may be characterized as contiguous?



    C. 3.75mm sections reconstructed every 3.75mm
  113. Pixels representing tissues with average attenuation coefficients greater than that of water have which of the following types of values?



    D. positive
  114. For a single slice CT system, which of the following statements regarding pre-patient collimation is true?
    1. an increase if pre-patient collimation increased patient dose
    2. pre-patient collimation is used to focus radiation through the section of interest
    3. pre-patient collimation directly controls slice thickness



    A. 3 only
  115. Digital CT images are networked and archived in accordance with a standardized computer protocol identified by which of the following abbreviationgs?



    B. DICOM
  116. The contrast resolution of a CT scanner is NOT related to which of the following?



    C. focal spot size
  117. The average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam can be increased by:



    B. increasing filtration
  118. Which of the following is a solid-state device used to record the light flashes given off by a scintillation crystal?



    D. photodiode
  119. Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) software is used in current MDT systems to control:



    D. patient radiation dose
  120. The type of MSCT detector array that contains multiple rows of detector elements, each of the same lengths, is called a(n):



    B. uniform matrix array
  121. A CT image is displayed in a window with a level of 0 and a width of 500. Which of the following statements is correct?



    B. pixels with values between -250 HU and + 250 HU will be assigned shades of gray
  122. Reformatted CT image planes that lie perpendicular to the original plane of acquisition may be decribed as:



    C. orthogonal
  123. Segmenting the data acquisition process into separate components of smaller rotation angles may improve which of the following components of CT image quality?



    D. temporal resolution
  124. Which of the following image artifacts is unique to multislice CT systems?



    C. cone beam artifact
  125. Which of the following is considered an analytic form of image reconstruction?
    1. iterative technique
    2. Fourier reconstruction
    3. filtered back projection



    A. 2 and 3 only
  126. A 16-slice MSCT system utilizes an adaptive array of 24 detectors, each ranging in size from 0.625 to 1.25 mm. What is the maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation of the gantry?



    B. 16
  127. The measurements of transmitted radiation made by an individual detector is called an:



    B. ray sum
  128. The information included during the 3D reconstruction of a CT scan is controlled by the:



    B. threshold setting
Author
DTJones2011
ID
68478
Card Set
CT Mock Review1
Description
CT Review
Updated