Chapter 11 study guide.txt

  1. Why is calcium gluconate prescribed for a pt after a thyroidectomy?
    To treat hypocalcemic tetany
  2. What nursing action is appropriate for a pt after a thyroidectomy who has developed hoarseness and a weak voice?
    Reassure the client that this is usually a temporary condition.
  3. What nursing action would the nurse prepare to carry out initially in a pt with a diagnosis of a myxedema coma?
    Maintain a patent airway.
  4. What instruction should be included in the plan of proper foot care in the pt with diabetes mellitus?
    Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet, but not between the toes.
  5. What statement by the pt indicates the need for further teaching about the diabetic diet in a pt diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
    �I need to buy special dietetic foods.�
  6. What information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge of the pt who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and has been stabilized with daily insulin injections?
    Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
  7. A client demonstrates an understanding the teaching of diabetes mellitus by stating that glucose will be taken if which symptom develops?
  8. What statement by the client would indicate that teaching about type 1 diabetes mellitus has been effective?
    �I will notify my physician if my blood glucose level is greater than 250 mg/dl.�
  9. What would indicate hyperglycema and thus warrant physician notification n a pt newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
  10. What instruction is important for the nurse to emphasize to the pt who is recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis?
    Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
  11. What statement by the client with Cushing�s syndrome indicates that the instructions related to dietary management were understood?
    �I can eat foods that contain potassium.�
  12. What statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of NPH insulin and exercise?
    �I should not exercise in the late afternoon.�
  13. What would require the nurse�s immediate attention when caring for a postop thyroidectomy pt?
    Laryngeal stridor
  14. When a nurse notes that a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has lipodystrophy on both upper thights, what information should the nurse obtain from the client?
    Plan of injection rotation.
  15. What nursing action would be appropriate to implement when a client has a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?
    Monitor the client�s blood pressure.
  16. Which client complaint would alert the nurse to a possible hypoglycemic reaction?
  17. What is a priority nursing action preoperatively for a pt with pheochromocytoma who is scheduled for an adrenalectomy?
    The vital signs.
  18. What is the appropriate choice for a pt with pheochromocytoma to meet their nutritional needs when the pt asks for a snack and something warm to drink?
    Graham crackers and warm milk.
  19. What data would indicate a potential complication associated with pheochromocytoma?
    Congestion heard on auscultation of the lungs
  20. A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and monitoring for signs of thyroid storm. What manifestation is associated with this disorder?
  21. When caring for a client who is having clear drainage from his nares after transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, which action by the nurse is appropriate?
    Test the drainage for glucose
  22. After several diagnostic tests, a client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which symptom is indicative of this disorder?
  23. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to note when assessing a client with Addison�s disease?
  24. What would the nurse anticipate being included in the plan of care for a client who has been diagnosed with Grave�s disease?
    Provide a restful environment.
  25. When providing instructions to the pt taking fludrocrtisone (Florinef), what symptom should warrant the notification of the physician?
    Swelling of the feet
  26. Which food item would the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking calcitriol (Rocaltrol) for hypocalcemia?
    Whole-grain cereals
  27. When is the best time for a pt take their daily dose of prednisone (Deltasone)?
    Early morning.
  28. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) to treat erectile dysfunction. What other medication would prompt the nurse to question this prescription?
    The use of nitroglycerin
  29. A nurse is teaching the client how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. What action performed by the pt would indicate the need for further teaching?
    If the pt withdraws the NPH insulin first
  30. How are unopened vials of NPH insulin stored?
    In the refrigerator.
  31. How long will an unrefrigerated vial of insulin maintain its potency?
    One month
  32. When is Lispro (Humalog) insulin administered?
    Immediately before eating
  33. What should the pt avoid when taking tolbutamide (Orinase) for diabetes mellitus?
  34. What would indicate an averse effect of the medication desmopressin (DDAVP)?
  35. When should a pt be instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid)?
    One hour before breakfast
  36. When taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), what problem would warrant a call to their physician?
  37. For what condition is propylthiouracil (PTU) taken daily?
    Grave�s disease
  38. What side effect of propylthiouracil (PTU) would warrant a call to their physician?
    Sore throat
  39. What is a chemical messenger, which travels throughout the bloodstream to its target organ?
  40. What is known as the "master gland," and exerts control over the other glands?
    Pituitary gland
  41. What disorder caused by secretion of insufficient amounts of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
    Diabetes insipidus
  42. Appropriate nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include what?
    Encourage fluids
  43. What is a characteristic of hyperparathyroidism?
    Increased serum calcium
  44. What is a feature of Cushing syndrome?
    Increased susceptibility to infection
  45. What signs and laboratory values would you expect in a patient with Addison's disease?
    Postural hypotension
  46. What is the main problem with diabetes mellitus type 2?
    Abnormal resistance to insulin action.
  47. In caring for a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing an acute hyperglycemic reaction (diabetic ketoacidosis), what interventions would be appropriate?
    Insulin IV via infusion pump
  48. What signs or symptoms should be reported immediately to the RN/MD for further evaluation in the pt who has undergone a thyroidectomy?
    Numbness in the fingers, Heart rate of 160, Noticeable arm twitching when you took patient's blood pressure
  49. What is acromegaly?
    An overproduction of somatotropin (growth hormone)
  50. What causes acromegaly?
    Either idiopathic hyperplasia of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland or tumor growth
  51. What are the clinical manifestations of acromegaly?
    Enlargement of the cranium and lower jaw, bulging forehead, bulbouse nose, thick lips, enlarged tongue
  52. What is the definite test for acromegaly?
    Oral glucose challenge test
  53. What nursing diagnosis are associated with acromegaly?
    Disturbed body image, activity intolerance
  54. What is diabetes insipidus?
    A disorder of the pituitary in which ADH is deficient
  55. How much urine can a pt with diabetes insipidus lose in an hour?
  56. What are the characteristics of diabetes insipidus?
    Polyuria and polydipsia
  57. What is the normal serum sodium level?
  58. What happens to urine specific gravity in a pt with diabetes insipidus?
    it drops below 1.003
  59. How much fluid should a pt with diabetes insipidus intake?
    2600 ml
  60. What are the 6 anterior pituitary gland hormones?
    TSH, FSH, GH, ACTH, LH, Prolactin
  61. What are the 2 posterior pituitary gland hormones?
    Oxytocin and ADH
  62. What is the function of ACTH?
    It stimulates the adrenal cortex to increase in size and to secret its hormones
  63. What is the function of FSH?
    Stimulates follicles in ovaries to grow and secrete estrogens
  64. What is the function of luteinizing hormone?
    Causes ovulation, stimulates ovarian follicle and ovum to develop and mature
  65. What is the function of prolactin?
    Stimulates breast development and milk production during pregnancy
  66. What is the function of oxytocin?
    Promotes the release of milke and stimulates uterine contractions
  67. What is the function of ADH?
    Causes the kidneys to conserve water by decreasing the amount of urine produced
  68. What are the three main functions of the thyroid gland?
    Growth & development, metabolism, activity of the nervous system
  69. What is the function of parathyroid glands?
    Secretes parathyroid hormone and tends to increase concentration of calcium in the blood & regulates the amount of phosphorus in the blood
  70. What are the 2 sections of the adrenal glands?
    Outer � adrenal cortex; Inner � adrenal medulla
  71. What disease is the result of too much ephinephrine and norepinephrine?
  72. What disease is associated with an overproduction of ADH?
  73. What can happen if a pt does not consume enough iodine?
    Simple goiter
  74. What 2 hormones are secreted in the pancreas?
    Insulin and glucagon
  75. What is thymosin?
    Hormone secreted by the thymus gland that helps the immune system
  76. What is the function of the pineal gland?
    It secretes melatonin � prevent sexual maturation of the child�s body until adulthood. Also induces sleep
  77. What does a tropic gland do?
    It stimulates other glands to work
  78. What is hyperthyroidism?
    Overproduction of T4 and T3
  79. What is the diet therapy for a patient with hyperthyroidism?
    Foods high n calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs
  80. What are the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism?
    Edema of the anterior portion of the neck, bulging eyes
  81. What does a radioactive iodine uptake test determine?
  82. How is the radioactive iodine given?
    By mouth to the fasting patient
  83. What is important to obtain from a patient before a radioactive iodine uptake test?
    Allergies and signed consent
  84. How is a pt placed after a thyroidectomy?
    Supine with pillows supporting the head and shoulders
  85. What two conditions should the nurse monitor for after a thyroidectomy?
    Tetany and edema
  86. What is Chvotek�s sign?
    An abnormal spasm of the facial muscles elicited by light taps on the facial nerve
  87. What condition will cause a pt to have a positive Chvotek�s sign?
  88. What is Trousseau�s sign?
    A test in which a BP cuff is inflated to above systolic BP for 3 minutes.
  89. What will happen with a positive Trousseau�s sign?
    Carpal spasm in pts with hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
  90. What is a thyroid storm?
    A condition in which large amounts of thyroid hormones are released
  91. What is administered for the emergency treatment of tetany?
    Calcium gluconate
  92. When does a thyroid crisis generally occur?
    In the first 12 hours post op
  93. What are the signs and symptoms of a thyroid crisis?
    Nausea, vomiting, severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism
  94. What are the three goals of thyroid storm management?
    Induce normal thyroid state, prevent cardiovascular collapse, prevent excessive hyperthermia
  95. What is hypothyroidism?
    A condition in which the thyroid fails to secrete sufficient hormones, resulting in a slowing of all of the body�s metabolic processes
  96. What type of diet is important for a patient with hypothyroidism?
    High-protein, high-fiber, low-calorie
  97. What are the hormones responsible for �flight or fight�?
    Epinephrine and norepinephrine
  98. What is the master gland of the body?
    Pituitary gland
  99. What hormone is responsible for male secondary sex characteristics?
  100. What type of nurse cannot care for a patient who has received radioactive therapy?
    A pregnant nurse
  101. What should the nurse administer immediately following signs of postoperative tetany?
    Calcium gluconate IV
  102. What nursing diagnosis is of the greatest priority postoperatively in a pt who has had cranial surgery to remove a pituitary tumor?
    Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to excessive loss via the urinary system
  103. What hormone levels are elevated in the pt with acromegaly?
  104. What is a sign that damage to the laryngeal nerve may have occurred in a pt who has had a thyroidectomy?
    The pt is becoming increasingly hoarse.
  105. What is of the greatest priority in the plan of care for a pt with IDDM?
    Teach the pt the effect of diet, exercise, and insulin on blood glucose level
  106. What statement indicates that the pt with Type 1 DM needs more teaching?
    �If I want to lose weight, all I have to do is increase my dose of insulin.�
  107. To meet the goal of prevention of injury to an IDDM pt, what nursing intervention is the most important?
    Remove potentially hazardous objects from the pt�s environment
  108. What nursing diagnosis is of the greatest priority for a pt admitted to the hospital with complications from Addison�s disease?
    Risk for deficient fluid volume
  109. What causes polydipisa and polyuria related to diabetes?
    Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia
  110. In planning care for a patient with type 2 diabetes admitted to the hospital with pneumonia, the nurse recognizes that the patient�.
    May have sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for development of hyperosmolar coma
  111. At what time of day is a diabetic pt at risk for hypoglycemia?
    In the late afternoon and at bedtime
  112. What is a diabetic diet designed to do?
    Help normalize blood glucose through a balanced diet
  113. What is an appropriate instruction or the pt with diabetes related to care of the feet?
    Inspect all surfaces of the feet daily
  114. Which oral hypoglycemic works primarily by reducing hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels?
    Metformin (Glucophage)
  115. What types of insulin are used in an insulin pump?
    Regular and rapid-acting
  116. How long is the onset of regular insulin (Humulin R)?
    30 minutes to an hour
  117. How long is the onset of action of Lispro (Humalog)?
    15 minutes
  118. How long is the onset of action of NPH (Humulin N)?
    2 hours
  119. Why is caffeine restricted in a pt with diabetes insipidus?
    Because it acts as a diuretic
  120. What is deficient in a pt with diabetes insipidous?
  121. What are the clinical manifestations of SIADH?
    Hyponatremia & water retention that progresses to water intoxication
  122. What is the medical management for IV treatment of SIADH?
    Hypertonic saline solution at slow rate
  123. What drugs are given to treat hyperthyroid?
    PTU, methimazole (Tapazole)
  124. What is the gold standard for treating hyperthyroidism?
    Ablation therapy using radioactive iodine
  125. How often is the thyroid checked during a RAIU?
    2, 6 & 24 hours
  126. What type of diet is important for a pt w/hyperthyroidism?
    Foods high in calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs
  127. What is severe hypothyroidism called?
  128. How should insulin be administered?
    At room temperature
  129. What should the nurse watch for in a pt w/hypothyroidism that could indicate cardiac involvement?
    Chest pain, dyspnea, changes in rate and rhythm.
  130. What causes a thyroid gland to develop into a goiter?
    Low iodine levels
  131. What attributes to a goiter?
    Insufficient intake of iodine
  132. What are the nursing interventions or a pt with a goiter after surgery?
    Prevent bleeding, tetany, & thyroid crisis
  133. What is a thyroid crisis or storm?
    When large amounts of thyroid hormones are released into the bloodstream
  134. When does a thyroid storm occur?
    The first 12 hours post-op
  135. What are the signs and symptoms of a thyroid storm?
    Exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism, nausea, vomiting, severe tachycardia, severe hypertension, hypothermia
  136. What are the three goals of thyroid storm management?
    Induce normal thyroid state; prevent cardiovascular collapse; prevent hyperthermia
  137. What are the three main functions of T4 & T3?
    Growth and development; metabolism; activity of the nervous system
  138. What are the normal lab values for T3?
  139. What are the normal lab values for T4?
  140. What are the normal lab values for sodium?
  141. What are the normal lab values for potassium?
  142. What is the normal range for WBC?
  143. What is the normal range for hemoglobin?
  144. What is the normal range for hematocrit?
  145. What is hyperparathyroidism?
    Overactivity of the parathyroid gland
  146. What causes hyperparathyroidism?
    Hypertrophy of one or more of the parathyroid glands; adenoma
  147. What causes hypercalcemia in a pt with hyperparathyroidism?
    Calcium leaves the bones and accumulates in the bloodstream
  148. What is the function of the parathyroid glands?
    Increases calcium in blood and regulates phosphorus
  149. What is hyponatremia?
    Watering down of the blood
  150. What happens to calcium & phosphorus levels in a pt with hyperparathyroidism?
    Calcium increases & phosphorus decreases
  151. What is the treatment of hyperparathyroidism?
    Surgical removal of a tumor or one of the parathyroid glands
  152. Why does a pt with hyperparathyroidism need to strain their urine?
    The increased calcium can cause renal calculi
  153. What are the signs of hypocalcemia?
    Tetany, cardiac dysrhythmias and carpopedal spasms
  154. What type of diet is given to a pt with hypoparathyroidism?
    High calcium diet
  155. What are the clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism?
    Numbness, tingling, anxious, irritable, depressed, headaches, & nausea
  156. What will happen to Chvotek�s & Trousseau�s signs in a pt with hypoparathyroidism?
    They will be positive
  157. What type of diet is indicated for a pt with hypoparathyroidism?
    High in calcium, dark green veggies, soybeans, canned fish with bones
  158. What causes Cushing Syndrome?
    Overstimulation of ACTH
  159. What is hypokalema?
    Not enough potassium
  160. What are the clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome?
    Moonface, buffalo hump
  161. What is striae?
    A streak or linear scar that often results from stretching of the skin
  162. In the pt with Cushings syndrome, what results in hyperglycemia?
    Impaired carbohydrate metabolism
  163. What type of diet is indicated for a pt with Cushings syndrome?
    Low sodium, reduce calories and carbs, and high potassium
  164. When does Addison�s disease occur?
    When the adrenal glands do not secrete adequate amounts of glucocorticosteroids, and mineralocorticoids
  165. What can cause Addison�s disease?
    Adrenalectomry, pituitary hypofunction, or long-standing steroid therapy
  166. What causes disturbances in the metabolism of carbs, fats, proteins, sodium, potassium and water?
    Deficiencies in aldsoterone and cortisol
  167. What will labs show in a pt with Addison�s disease?
    Decreased serum sodium, increased serum potassium, and decreased serum glucose
  168. What are the symptoms of adrenal (addisonian) crisis?
    Sudden severe drop in BP, nausea & vomiting, extremely high temp, cyanosis
  169. What is the emergency treatment of an adrenal crisis?
    IV administration of corticosteroids in a solution of saline and glucose
  170. What is pheochromocytoma?
    A cell tumor that causes excessive secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
  171. What type of diet is indicative in a pt with pheochromocytosis?
    Free from stimulants and caffeine
  172. What is diabetes mellitus?
    Improper metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins
  173. When does insulin reach its peak level?
    30 minutes after meals and returns to normal in 2-3 hours
  174. What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 dibetes?
    Type 1 is insulin dependent (IDDM) and Type 2 is non insulin dependent (NIDDM)
  175. What causes IDDM?
    Destruction of beta-cell function
  176. What are the causes of NIDDM?
    Decreased tissue, overproduction of insulin, abnormal glucose regulation
  177. How is glucose stored?
    As glycogen in the liver
  178. What must be present for muscle cells and other body cells to utilize glucose?
  179. What is hyperglycemia?
    Excess glucose in the bloodstream
  180. How does the body get rid of excess glucose in the bloodstream?
    The kidneys will excrete it in urine, called glycosuria
  181. What is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?
    Fruity smell to the breath
  182. What causes diabetic ketoacidosis?
    Acute insulin deficiency, decreased peripheral glucose utilization, increased fat mobilization and ketogenesis
  183. What are the normal lab values for fasting blood sugar?
  184. What amount is considered abnormal in an FBS?
    126 or more
  185. What does the HbA1c measure?
    The amount of glucose that has become incorporated into the hemoglobin within an erythrocyte
  186. What is the normal lab value for HbA1c?
  187. When is a postprandial blood sugar taken?
    2 hours after a meal
  188. What level may indicate the presence of DM in a PPBS?
    Plasma glucose over 160
  189. What affects the accuracy of an oral glucose tolerance test?
    Adequate pt preparation and cooperation
  190. What is the medical management for DM?
    Education, monitoring, meal planning, medication, exercise
  191. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with DM?
    45%-50% carbs, 10%-20% proteins, no more than 30% fats
  192. What is important about food intake for pts with IDDM?
    It should be evenly distributed throughout the day
  193. How long does exercise reduce insulin and increase glucose uptake?
    72 hours
  194. How often should blood glucose be monitored during the times of stress or illness?
    Every 1-2 hours
  195. When should the pt with DM be instructed to contact their physician?
    When blood glucose level is 250 or more
  196. When is insulin given intramuscularly?
    During diabetic ketoacidosis
  197. What are the classifications of insulin?
    Rapid-acting, insulin apart, short-acting, intermediate acting, long acting
  198. What is a �peakless� insulin that provides a continous insulin level?
  199. What is lipodystrophy?
    The loss of local fat deposits
  200. How can a nurse prevent lipodystrophy?
    Administer insulin at room temp and rotate injection sites
  201. How does a nurse prevent medication errors when administering insulin?
    Have the dose drawn in the syringe and checked by another nurse
  202. What is hypoglycemia?
    Not enough glucose in the blood
  203. What are the signs of hypoglycemia?
    Faintness, weakness, excessive perspiration, irritability, hunger, palpitations, trembling, drowsiness
  204. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia?
    Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
  205. Why is insulin not injected into the muscle?
    Because it enters the bloodstream too quickly and can cause hypoglycemia
  206. Which part of the body provides the fastest, least variable absorption?
    The abdomen
  207. What is as close a substitute to a healthy, working pancrease?
    An insulin pump
  208. What is a bolus of insulin?
    A quantity of insulin delivered to cover a carbohydrate meal
  209. What is the function of metformin (glucophage)?
    It reduces hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels
  210. What must a pt have for oral hypoglycemics to be effective?
    Some function insulin production
Card Set
Chapter 11 study guide.txt
Endocrine System Chapter 11