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BSI-2-EXAM-2

  1. The ____ is the top of the heart and the _____ is the bottom of the heart
    base

    apex
  2. What are the 2 layers of the pericardium and where are they located?
    • 1. parietal (outer layer)
    • 2. visceral (inner layer-closest to the heart)
  3. What secretes pericardial fluid into the pericardial cavity?
    Endothelial cells
  4. What is the auricle?
    It is a pouch-liek structure that increases the volume capacity of the atria
  5. True or false, chordae tendonae connect papillary muscles to the pulmonary and aortic valves.
    False, only the mitral(bicuspid) and tricuspid valves have chordae tendonae
  6. Which valves are on the right side of the heart?
    Tricuspid and pulmonary valves
  7. The superior and inferior vena cava feed ______ blood into the ______ _______.
    deoxygenated

    right atrium
  8. What 3 arteries branch off the aorta?
    • 1. Brachiocephalic trunk
    • 2. Left common carotid
    • 3. Left subclavian artery
  9. What is the function of the pulmonary arteries?
    They exchange CO2 with O2
  10. What is the order of conduction through the heart?
    • 1. SA node
    • 2. AV ndoe
    • 3. Bundle of His
    • 4. Right & left bundle branches
    • 5. Purkinje fibers
  11. What layer of the heart lines the entire cardiovascular system?
    endocardium
  12. What is the funciton of the pulmonary veins?
    They bring oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium
  13. ____ is when the heart is contracting and ____ is when the heart is relaxing
    Systole

    Diastole
  14. Which 3 phases of the cardiac cycle are considred systole?
    • 1. Atrial contraction
    • 2. isovolumetric contraction
    • 3. Ventricular ejection
  15. What is going on during isovolumetric contraction?
    No blood is leaving the ventricle and the AV valves are closed, and the semi-lunar valves begin to open
  16. Cardiac output is defined as?
    The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per minute

    CO= HR x SV
  17. What is EDV?
    The volume of blood left in the ventricle at teh end of diastole
  18. What is venous return?
    The amount of blood returned to the right atrium
  19. What determines pre-load?
    EDV, if you increase EDV you increase SV
  20. What is the Frank-starling mechanism?
    When the sarcomeres reach optimal length leading to greater strength of contraction
  21. What are chronotropic effects?
    Any effects that change the heart rate (Ex: positive chronotropes increase HR)
  22. ___ wave is atrial depolariation
    P wave
  23. The QRS complex is _______ deplarization
    ventricular
  24. ____ wave is ventricular repolarization
    T-wave
  25. S1 sound is the?
    Closing of the AV valves
  26. _____ sound is the closing of the semi-lunar valves
    S2
  27. What do the S3 and S4 sounds signify?
    • S3- ventricular filling
    • S4- abnormality in atrial contraction
  28. Why is AV node transmission delayed?
    to allow for atrial contraction before the ventricles contract

    due to fewer gap junctions
  29. What is the resting membrane potential for the SA node?
    -55mV
  30. _____ decreases HR by releasing ____ from the Vagus nerve, increasing _____ permeability causing ____polarization
    • PNS
    • acetylcholine
    • potassium
    • hyperpolarization
  31. _____ increases HR by releasing ____ which increases ___ and ___ permeability causing ____polarization
    • SNS
    • NE (norepinephrine)
    • Sodium
    • Calcium
    • depolarization
  32. Where does calcium come from for use in cardiac muscle contraction? (2)
    • 1. Sarcoplasmic recticulum
    • 2. extracellular fluid
  33. What is the time frame for a normal P-wave?
    <0.12
  34. What is the time frame for a normal Q-P or P-R interval?
    0.12-0.20
  35. A wave of depolarization moving toward a positive electrode you get a ______ deflection on an EKG
    upward
  36. A wave of depolarization moving away from a positive electrode you get a _______ deflection on an EKG
    downward
  37. What are the 3 bipolar leads, their charges, and locations?
    • Lead I - R arm (-), L arm (+)
    • Lead II- R arm (-), L leg (+)
    • Lead III- L arm (-), L leg (+)
  38. What are the 3 unipolar leads, their charges, and locations?
    • AVF- L foot (+), both arms (-)
    • AVL- L arm (+), R arm & L foot (-)
    • AVR- R arm (+), L arm & L foot (-)
  39. Which 2 chest leads are the most positive? Why?
    V5 and V6 because depolarization is moving directly toward those electrodes
  40. Bradycardia is _____bpm and tachycardia ______bpm
    • <60bpm
    • >100bpm

    (Normal 60-100bpm)
  41. What signifies a premature atrial contraction (PAC) on an EKG?
    abnormal P-wave, earlier than expected
  42. A tall/deep QRS complex signifies what on an EKG?
    Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) because there is NO opposition of depolarization
  43. Flutter is caused by ____ ectopic foci and has rythms at ____bpm
    1 (single)

    250-350bpm
  44. Fibrillation is caused by _____ ectopic foci and has rythms at ___ bpm
    multiple

    350-450bpm
  45. Identical P-waves in rapid succcession signifies _______ ________
    Atrial flutter
  46. A prolonged P-R interval (>0.2) signifies?
    AV block, there is a delay in transmission
  47. A widened QRS (>0.12) with "rabbit ears" signifies?
    Bundle branch block
  48. What is happening if the QRS is negative in Lead I and AVF?
    There is extreme right axis deviation (RAD)
  49. If QRS is ____ in Lead I and __ in AVF there is right axis deviation

    If QRS is _____ in Lead I and ___ in AVF there is left axis deviation
    RAD= (-)Lead I, (+) AVF

    LAD= (+)Lead I, (-) AVF
  50. Hypertrophy shifts the axis to the ______ side.
    hypertrophied
  51. RV hypertrophy causes ___ HTN

    LV hypertrophy causes ___ HTN
    pulmonary

    aortic
  52. If there is an amplified QRS complex (>35mm in V1 and V5) what is wrong?
    Left ventricular hypertrophy
  53. Myocardial infarction shifts the axis ______ from the side of infacrtion
    away
  54. What are the 3 signs of myocardial infarction?
    • 1. inverted T-wave (opposite repolarization)
    • 2. elevated/depressed S-T segments (not at baseline)
    • 3. significant Q-wave (>1 box) *don't look in AVR-there will always be a Q-wave
  55. What is the function of the capillaries?
    They are the site for fluid and gas exhcange
  56. What is the thickest tunic around the arteries? (It has smooth muscle and is innervated by the SNS)
    Tunica media
  57. _____ are more compliant than _____ because they hold more blood and act as a reservoir.
    Veins

    Arteries
  58. What is the purpose of having muscular arteries?
    They allow for greater vasocontriction/dilation
  59. True or false, veins do not have valves to prevent the backflow of blood
    False, veins DO have valves to prevent backflow
  60. True or false, low compliance increases pressure
    True
  61. A decrease in vessel diameter ______ TPR, thus _________ compliance
    Inceases

    Decreases
  62. What is total peripheral resistance (TPR)?
    The resistance of blood flow through the vasculature
  63. The respiratory pump ______ venous return due to the pressure gradients during inspiration
    increases
  64. Activation of RAAS _____ blood pressure
    increases
  65. How does angiotensin II cause the kidneys to retain salt and water? (2 ways)
    • 1. direct- stimulates kidneys to retain salt and water
    • 2. indirect- stimulates adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone
  66. ADH (vasopressin) ______ blood pressure and is released from the ______ _______ ______
    increases

    posterior pituitary gland
  67. Under what 2 circumstances is ADH released?
    • 1. decreased BV (causing vasoconstriction)
    • 2. increased osmolarity (cause kidneys to retain salt and water)
  68. ANP (atrial natriuric peptide) ______ blood pressure and is released by cells of the _____ inresponse to stretch
    decreases

    atria
  69. Under what 2 circumstances is ANP released?
    • 1. increased BV (causing vasodilation)
    • 2. decreased osmolarity (causing the kidneys to loose salt and water)
  70. True or false, there is SNS innervation in the capillaries, precapillary sphincters, and metarterioles.
    False, NO SNS innervation in those areas
  71. What are baroreceptors and where are they located?
    They are stretch receptors useful regulate rapid BP changes

    Located in the walls of large arteries (carotid, aortic arch)
  72. What are chemoreceptors and where are they located?
    They are receptors that sense the CO2, O2, and pH levels

    Located in the carotid and aortic bodies
  73. The barorecptors function in ___-___mm Hg and the chemoreceptors function in _____ mm Hg
    60-180mm Hg

    <80mm Hg
  74. What is the vasodilator theory?
    Decreased O2 causes the release of vasodilators which act on precapillary sphicters, metarterioles, and arterioles dilating them
  75. What is the most important vasodilator substance?
    Adenosine
  76. When is NO released? Where is it released from?
    Released in response to shearing stress of increased blood flow in the arteries

    Released from endothelial cells
  77. _______ is a vasoconstrictor released from damaged vessels
    Endothelin
  78. Bradykinin and histamine cause _______ and ______ capillary permeability
    vasodilation

    increased
  79. Ischemia causes tissues to release _____ and ____ stimulating angiogenesis
    VEGF

    FGF
  80. What are the 4 starling forces?
    • 1. capillary hydrostatic pressure (BHP)
    • 2. interstitial fluid colloid osmostic pressure (IFOP)
    • 3. intersitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (IFHP)
    • 4. capillary colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)
  81. Which starling force is normally zero?
    intersitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (IFHP)
  82. _____ side favors net filtration and _____ side favors net reabsorption
    Arterial

    Venous
  83. Which 2 starling forces cause fluid to leave the capillary?
    capillary hyrdrostatic pressure (BHP)

    interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (IFOP)
  84. What is the lymphatic pump?
    Contraction of muscles surrounding the lymph, they increase lymph flow
  85. Net filtration pressure=____?
    • (BHP + IFOP) - (BCOP + IFHP)
    • (Forces out) - (Forces in)
  86. What is atherosclerosis?
    Thickening of an artery wall as a result of a build-up of fatty materials like cholesterol
  87. What are 3 main causes of atherosclerosis?
    • 1. Shear stress
    • 2. Hypertension
    • 3. Smoking
  88. True or false, LDL supresses TGF-gamma which normally protects vessels from injury
    False, LDL supresses TGF-beta which protects the vessels
  89. Hypercholestereolemia and smoking leads to _________ LDLox
    increased
  90. In what 3 ways does atherosclerosis alter blood flow?
    • 1. narrowing of the artery due to ischemia
    • 2. plaque rupture leading to clot formation
    • 3. aneurysm leading to ballooning and rupture
  91. In what 4 ways does hyperglycemia lead to atherosclerosis?
    • 1. increase in vascular smooth muscle proliferation
    • 2. increase in magrophage engulfment of oxLDL leadign to fatty streak formation
    • 3. decreases NO production which decreases vasodilation and compliance
    • 4. increases production of AGEs
  92. How does the production of AGEs in hyperglycemia lead to atherosclerosis? (4)
    • The excess glucose will attach itself to other proteins altering their structure and function causing:
    • 1. cross-linking of proteins trapping oxLDL
    • 2. alters ECM decreasing compliance
    • 3. generating ROSs
    • 4.binding to AGEs stimulating inflammatory response
  93. Hypertension is defined as BP _____?
    Greater than or equal to 140/90
  94. Which type of HTN is caused by NSAIDs, caffeine, ephedrine, and excessive salt intake?
    Secondary
  95. What are the 4 factors contributing to primary HTN?
    • 1. overstimulation of SNS
    • 2. Increased BV (due to kidneys restting equilibrium)
    • 3. Increased RAAS activation
    • 4. Increased release of vasoconstrictors
  96. What are the 5 causes of heart failure?
    • 1. dysfuntion of coronary arteries
    • 2. HTN
    • 3. cardiomyopathy
    • 4. heart valve disorder
    • 5. abnormal HR
  97. What is heart failure?
    When the heart fails to pump an adequate blood supply to satisfy needs (decreased CO)
  98. True or false, norepinephrine is toxic to myocardial cells.
    True, it can cause necrosis or apoptosis
  99. How does activation of RAAS exacerbate heart failure?
    • It increases the workload of the heart
    • Angiotensin II will stimulate ventricular remodeling
    • Aldosterone leads to water retention causing volume overload
  100. What is the most common cause of death in heart failure? Why?
    Pulmonary edema because it causes deoxygenation of the blood
  101. What are they main causes of death for patients with HTN? (4)
    • 1. strokes
    • 2. coronary heart disease
    • 3. heart failure
    • 4. renal failure
  102. Why does ventricular remodeling contribute to heart failure?
    It changes the size, shape, and function of the heart leading to a decline in systolic or diastolic function
  103. What stimulates ventricular remodeling in heart failure? (3)
    • 1. myocyte loss
    • 2. hypertrophy
    • 3. fibrosis in ECM
  104. Why are beta-blockers beneficial in treating heart failure?
    They inhibit the SNS reducing the workload of the heart
  105. Why are ACE inhibitors, ARBs, aldosterone antagonists, and diuretics beneficial in treating heart failure?
    ACEs, ARBs, and aldosterone antagonists inhibit RAAS activation to decrease salt and water retention

    Diuretics decrease the salt and water intake
  106. What is pericarditis?
    Inflammation of the pericardium caused by fluid accumulation in between the visceral and parietal pericardium
  107. True or false, pericarditis can be caused by pharmacologic therapies.
    True, hydralazine, dilantin, and penicillin can cause pericarditis

    It can also be caused by infections
  108. How does pericarditis decrease MAP?
    It prevents ventricle filling causing a decrease in EDV, SV, CO, decreasing MAP
  109. What are the symptoms of pericarditis?
    Referred pain on the left side of the chest, neck, and shoulder
  110. How is pericarditis treated?
    Acute- NSAIDs and corticosteroids

    Pericardiocenteis (draining fluid)

    Pericardiectomy (removal of pericardium)
  111. What is hypertropic cardiomyopathy?
    A disease of the myocardium where there is thickening(hypertrophy) of the walls of the heart
  112. True or false, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic disorder.
    True
  113. Besides sudden death, what other symptoms are associated with hypertropic cardiomyopathy?
    Breathlessness, angina, arrhythmias, or fainting
  114. Why is alcohol septal ablation effective in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
    The injection of the alcohol will thin tissue
  115. Why are calcium channel cblockers effective in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
    The decrease the contractility of the heart and slow the heart rate, reducing the workload
  116. What is the most effective treatment for hypertrophiccardiomyopathy?
    Implanting a defibrillator
  117. What is mitral valve prolapse?
    When the mitral valve bulge bacck into the left atrium preventing a tight seal
  118. True or false, in secondary mitral valve prolapse the cusps are oversized or too thick
    False, the cusps are thickend in primary mitral valve prolapse
  119. What 4 diseases are linked to mitral valve prolapse?
    • 1. marfan's syndrome
    • 2. osteogenesis imperfecta
    • 3. myxomatous degeneration
    • 4. ischemic heart disease
  120. What are 4 methods for diagnosing mitral valve prolapse?
    • 1. listening to the heart (midsystolic click)
    • 2. echocardiography
    • 3. transesophageal echocardiogram
    • 4. EKG (inverted T-waves)
  121. Why are anticoagulants used for treatment in mitral valve prolapse?
    It prevents the leftover blood from coagulating
  122. What is hypovolemic shock?
    Shock due to a decrease in blood vilume due to burns. dehydration, or excessive blood loss
  123. How does the body compensate for hypovolemic shock?
    RAAS activation, SNS activation, baroreceptors, ADH ad NE secretion
  124. What treatments are used in hypovolemic shock? (3)
    • 1. electrolyte replenishment
    • 2. total blood transfusion
    • 3. dopamine (to protect the kidneys)
  125. What stage of hypovolemic shock is marked by total blood volume loss >40%, HR>140, coma?
    Stage 4
  126. Symptoms of stage 1 hypovolemic shock are?

    Stage 1=total BV loss up to 15%
    slight anxiety and pallor skin
Author
dr.fizzle
ID
67688
Card Set
BSI-2-EXAM-2
Description
723
Updated

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