-
The ____ is the top of the heart and the _____ is the bottom of the heart
base
apex
-
What are the 2 layers of the pericardium and where are they located?
- 1. parietal (outer layer)
- 2. visceral (inner layer-closest to the heart)
-
What secretes pericardial fluid into the pericardial cavity?
Endothelial cells
-
What is the auricle?
It is a pouch-liek structure that increases the volume capacity of the atria
-
True or false, chordae tendonae connect papillary muscles to the pulmonary and aortic valves.
False, only the mitral(bicuspid) and tricuspid valves have chordae tendonae
-
Which valves are on the right side of the heart?
Tricuspid and pulmonary valves
-
The superior and inferior vena cava feed ______ blood into the ______ _______.
deoxygenated
right atrium
-
What 3 arteries branch off the aorta?
- 1. Brachiocephalic trunk
- 2. Left common carotid
- 3. Left subclavian artery
-
What is the function of the pulmonary arteries?
They exchange CO2 with O2
-
What is the order of conduction through the heart?
- 1. SA node
- 2. AV ndoe
- 3. Bundle of His
- 4. Right & left bundle branches
- 5. Purkinje fibers
-
What layer of the heart lines the entire cardiovascular system?
endocardium
-
What is the funciton of the pulmonary veins?
They bring oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium
-
____ is when the heart is contracting and ____ is when the heart is relaxing
Systole
Diastole
-
Which 3 phases of the cardiac cycle are considred systole?
- 1. Atrial contraction
- 2. isovolumetric contraction
- 3. Ventricular ejection
-
What is going on during isovolumetric contraction?
No blood is leaving the ventricle and the AV valves are closed, and the semi-lunar valves begin to open
-
Cardiac output is defined as?
The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per minute
CO= HR x SV
-
What is EDV?
The volume of blood left in the ventricle at teh end of diastole
-
What is venous return?
The amount of blood returned to the right atrium
-
What determines pre-load?
EDV, if you increase EDV you increase SV
-
What is the Frank-starling mechanism?
When the sarcomeres reach optimal length leading to greater strength of contraction
-
What are chronotropic effects?
Any effects that change the heart rate (Ex: positive chronotropes increase HR)
-
___ wave is atrial depolariation
P wave
-
The QRS complex is _______ deplarization
ventricular
-
____ wave is ventricular repolarization
T-wave
-
S1 sound is the?
Closing of the AV valves
-
_____ sound is the closing of the semi-lunar valves
S2
-
What do the S3 and S4 sounds signify?
- S3- ventricular filling
- S4- abnormality in atrial contraction
-
Why is AV node transmission delayed?
to allow for atrial contraction before the ventricles contract
due to fewer gap junctions
-
What is the resting membrane potential for the SA node?
-55mV
-
_____ decreases HR by releasing ____ from the Vagus nerve, increasing _____ permeability causing ____polarization
- PNS
- acetylcholine
- potassium
- hyperpolarization
-
_____ increases HR by releasing ____ which increases ___ and ___ permeability causing ____polarization
- SNS
- NE (norepinephrine)
- Sodium
- Calcium
- depolarization
-
Where does calcium come from for use in cardiac muscle contraction? (2)
- 1. Sarcoplasmic recticulum
- 2. extracellular fluid
-
What is the time frame for a normal P-wave?
<0.12
-
What is the time frame for a normal Q-P or P-R interval?
0.12-0.20
-
A wave of depolarization moving toward a positive electrode you get a ______ deflection on an EKG
upward
-
A wave of depolarization moving away from a positive electrode you get a _______ deflection on an EKG
downward
-
What are the 3 bipolar leads, their charges, and locations?
- Lead I - R arm (-), L arm (+)
- Lead II- R arm (-), L leg (+)
- Lead III- L arm (-), L leg (+)
-
What are the 3 unipolar leads, their charges, and locations?
- AVF- L foot (+), both arms (-)
- AVL- L arm (+), R arm & L foot (-)
- AVR- R arm (+), L arm & L foot (-)
-
Which 2 chest leads are the most positive? Why?
V5 and V6 because depolarization is moving directly toward those electrodes
-
Bradycardia is _____bpm and tachycardia ______bpm
-
What signifies a premature atrial contraction (PAC) on an EKG?
abnormal P-wave, earlier than expected
-
A tall/deep QRS complex signifies what on an EKG?
Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) because there is NO opposition of depolarization
-
Flutter is caused by ____ ectopic foci and has rythms at ____bpm
1 (single)
250-350bpm
-
Fibrillation is caused by _____ ectopic foci and has rythms at ___ bpm
multiple
350-450bpm
-
Identical P-waves in rapid succcession signifies _______ ________
Atrial flutter
-
A prolonged P-R interval (>0.2) signifies?
AV block, there is a delay in transmission
-
A widened QRS (>0.12) with "rabbit ears" signifies?
Bundle branch block
-
What is happening if the QRS is negative in Lead I and AVF?
There is extreme right axis deviation (RAD)
-
If QRS is ____ in Lead I and __ in AVF there is right axis deviation
If QRS is _____ in Lead I and ___ in AVF there is left axis deviation
RAD= (-)Lead I, (+) AVF
LAD= (+)Lead I, (-) AVF
-
Hypertrophy shifts the axis to the ______ side.
hypertrophied
-
RV hypertrophy causes ___ HTN
LV hypertrophy causes ___ HTN
pulmonary
aortic
-
If there is an amplified QRS complex (>35mm in V1 and V5) what is wrong?
Left ventricular hypertrophy
-
Myocardial infarction shifts the axis ______ from the side of infacrtion
away
-
What are the 3 signs of myocardial infarction?
- 1. inverted T-wave (opposite repolarization)
- 2. elevated/depressed S-T segments (not at baseline)
- 3. significant Q-wave (>1 box) *don't look in AVR-there will always be a Q-wave
-
What is the function of the capillaries?
They are the site for fluid and gas exhcange
-
What is the thickest tunic around the arteries? (It has smooth muscle and is innervated by the SNS)
Tunica media
-
_____ are more compliant than _____ because they hold more blood and act as a reservoir.
Veins
Arteries
-
What is the purpose of having muscular arteries?
They allow for greater vasocontriction/dilation
-
True or false, veins do not have valves to prevent the backflow of blood
False, veins DO have valves to prevent backflow
-
True or false, low compliance increases pressure
True
-
A decrease in vessel diameter ______ TPR, thus _________ compliance
Inceases
Decreases
-
What is total peripheral resistance (TPR)?
The resistance of blood flow through the vasculature
-
The respiratory pump ______ venous return due to the pressure gradients during inspiration
increases
-
Activation of RAAS _____ blood pressure
increases
-
How does angiotensin II cause the kidneys to retain salt and water? (2 ways)
- 1. direct- stimulates kidneys to retain salt and water
- 2. indirect- stimulates adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone
-
ADH (vasopressin) ______ blood pressure and is released from the ______ _______ ______
increases
posterior pituitary gland
-
Under what 2 circumstances is ADH released?
- 1. decreased BV (causing vasoconstriction)
- 2. increased osmolarity (cause kidneys to retain salt and water)
-
ANP (atrial natriuric peptide) ______ blood pressure and is released by cells of the _____ inresponse to stretch
decreases
atria
-
Under what 2 circumstances is ANP released?
- 1. increased BV (causing vasodilation)
- 2. decreased osmolarity (causing the kidneys to loose salt and water)
-
True or false, there is SNS innervation in the capillaries, precapillary sphincters, and metarterioles.
False, NO SNS innervation in those areas
-
What are baroreceptors and where are they located?
They are stretch receptors useful regulate rapid BP changes
Located in the walls of large arteries (carotid, aortic arch)
-
What are chemoreceptors and where are they located?
They are receptors that sense the CO2, O2, and pH levels
Located in the carotid and aortic bodies
-
The barorecptors function in ___-___mm Hg and the chemoreceptors function in _____ mm Hg
60-180mm Hg
<80mm Hg
-
What is the vasodilator theory?
Decreased O2 causes the release of vasodilators which act on precapillary sphicters, metarterioles, and arterioles dilating them
-
What is the most important vasodilator substance?
Adenosine
-
When is NO released? Where is it released from?
Released in response to shearing stress of increased blood flow in the arteries
Released from endothelial cells
-
_______ is a vasoconstrictor released from damaged vessels
Endothelin
-
Bradykinin and histamine cause _______ and ______ capillary permeability
vasodilation
increased
-
Ischemia causes tissues to release _____ and ____ stimulating angiogenesis
VEGF
FGF
-
What are the 4 starling forces?
- 1. capillary hydrostatic pressure (BHP)
- 2. interstitial fluid colloid osmostic pressure (IFOP)
- 3. intersitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (IFHP)
- 4. capillary colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)
-
Which starling force is normally zero?
intersitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (IFHP)
-
_____ side favors net filtration and _____ side favors net reabsorption
Arterial
Venous
-
Which 2 starling forces cause fluid to leave the capillary?
capillary hyrdrostatic pressure (BHP)
interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (IFOP)
-
What is the lymphatic pump?
Contraction of muscles surrounding the lymph, they increase lymph flow
-
Net filtration pressure=____?
- (BHP + IFOP) - (BCOP + IFHP)
- (Forces out) - (Forces in)
-
What is atherosclerosis?
Thickening of an artery wall as a result of a build-up of fatty materials like cholesterol
-
What are 3 main causes of atherosclerosis?
- 1. Shear stress
- 2. Hypertension
- 3. Smoking
-
True or false, LDL supresses TGF-gamma which normally protects vessels from injury
False, LDL supresses TGF-beta which protects the vessels
-
Hypercholestereolemia and smoking leads to _________ LDLox
increased
-
In what 3 ways does atherosclerosis alter blood flow?
- 1. narrowing of the artery due to ischemia
- 2. plaque rupture leading to clot formation
- 3. aneurysm leading to ballooning and rupture
-
In what 4 ways does hyperglycemia lead to atherosclerosis?
- 1. increase in vascular smooth muscle proliferation
- 2. increase in magrophage engulfment of oxLDL leadign to fatty streak formation
- 3. decreases NO production which decreases vasodilation and compliance
- 4. increases production of AGEs
-
How does the production of AGEs in hyperglycemia lead to atherosclerosis? (4)
- The excess glucose will attach itself to other proteins altering their structure and function causing:
- 1. cross-linking of proteins trapping oxLDL
- 2. alters ECM decreasing compliance
- 3. generating ROSs
- 4.binding to AGEs stimulating inflammatory response
-
Hypertension is defined as BP _____?
Greater than or equal to 140/90
-
Which type of HTN is caused by NSAIDs, caffeine, ephedrine, and excessive salt intake?
Secondary
-
What are the 4 factors contributing to primary HTN?
- 1. overstimulation of SNS
- 2. Increased BV (due to kidneys restting equilibrium)
- 3. Increased RAAS activation
- 4. Increased release of vasoconstrictors
-
What are the 5 causes of heart failure?
- 1. dysfuntion of coronary arteries
- 2. HTN
- 3. cardiomyopathy
- 4. heart valve disorder
- 5. abnormal HR
-
What is heart failure?
When the heart fails to pump an adequate blood supply to satisfy needs (decreased CO)
-
True or false, norepinephrine is toxic to myocardial cells.
True, it can cause necrosis or apoptosis
-
How does activation of RAAS exacerbate heart failure?
- It increases the workload of the heart
- Angiotensin II will stimulate ventricular remodeling
- Aldosterone leads to water retention causing volume overload
-
What is the most common cause of death in heart failure? Why?
Pulmonary edema because it causes deoxygenation of the blood
-
What are they main causes of death for patients with HTN? (4)
- 1. strokes
- 2. coronary heart disease
- 3. heart failure
- 4. renal failure
-
Why does ventricular remodeling contribute to heart failure?
It changes the size, shape, and function of the heart leading to a decline in systolic or diastolic function
-
What stimulates ventricular remodeling in heart failure? (3)
- 1. myocyte loss
- 2. hypertrophy
- 3. fibrosis in ECM
-
Why are beta-blockers beneficial in treating heart failure?
They inhibit the SNS reducing the workload of the heart
-
Why are ACE inhibitors, ARBs, aldosterone antagonists, and diuretics beneficial in treating heart failure?
ACEs, ARBs, and aldosterone antagonists inhibit RAAS activation to decrease salt and water retention
Diuretics decrease the salt and water intake
-
What is pericarditis?
Inflammation of the pericardium caused by fluid accumulation in between the visceral and parietal pericardium
-
True or false, pericarditis can be caused by pharmacologic therapies.
True, hydralazine, dilantin, and penicillin can cause pericarditis
It can also be caused by infections
-
How does pericarditis decrease MAP?
It prevents ventricle filling causing a decrease in EDV, SV, CO, decreasing MAP
-
What are the symptoms of pericarditis?
Referred pain on the left side of the chest, neck, and shoulder
-
How is pericarditis treated?
Acute- NSAIDs and corticosteroids
Pericardiocenteis (draining fluid)
Pericardiectomy (removal of pericardium)
-
What is hypertropic cardiomyopathy?
A disease of the myocardium where there is thickening(hypertrophy) of the walls of the heart
-
True or false, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic disorder.
True
-
Besides sudden death, what other symptoms are associated with hypertropic cardiomyopathy?
Breathlessness, angina, arrhythmias, or fainting
-
Why is alcohol septal ablation effective in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
The injection of the alcohol will thin tissue
-
Why are calcium channel cblockers effective in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
The decrease the contractility of the heart and slow the heart rate, reducing the workload
-
What is the most effective treatment for hypertrophiccardiomyopathy?
Implanting a defibrillator
-
What is mitral valve prolapse?
When the mitral valve bulge bacck into the left atrium preventing a tight seal
-
True or false, in secondary mitral valve prolapse the cusps are oversized or too thick
False, the cusps are thickend in primary mitral valve prolapse
-
What 4 diseases are linked to mitral valve prolapse?
- 1. marfan's syndrome
- 2. osteogenesis imperfecta
- 3. myxomatous degeneration
- 4. ischemic heart disease
-
What are 4 methods for diagnosing mitral valve prolapse?
- 1. listening to the heart (midsystolic click)
- 2. echocardiography
- 3. transesophageal echocardiogram
- 4. EKG (inverted T-waves)
-
Why are anticoagulants used for treatment in mitral valve prolapse?
It prevents the leftover blood from coagulating
-
What is hypovolemic shock?
Shock due to a decrease in blood vilume due to burns. dehydration, or excessive blood loss
-
How does the body compensate for hypovolemic shock?
RAAS activation, SNS activation, baroreceptors, ADH ad NE secretion
-
What treatments are used in hypovolemic shock? (3)
- 1. electrolyte replenishment
- 2. total blood transfusion
- 3. dopamine (to protect the kidneys)
-
What stage of hypovolemic shock is marked by total blood volume loss >40%, HR>140, coma?
Stage 4
-
Symptoms of stage 1 hypovolemic shock are?
Stage 1=total BV loss up to 15%
slight anxiety and pallor skin
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