1. The _____ leads from the cell body (neuron) and is covered with mylin sheath which faciliates the rate of transmission of an impulse.
  2. ________ receive impulses at the synapse and lead toward the cell body (neuron).
  3. The midbrain is beneath the ____________.
    third ventricle
  4. The spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongota to _______ at the conus medullaris.
  5. What is the cauda equina?
    "Horses tail": where spinal nerves extend past the end of the spinal cord.
  6. The falx cerebri (part of the dura) divides?
  7. The falx ceribelli (part of the dura) divides?
  8. Tentouium cerebelli (part of the dura) divides?
    cerebrum from the cerebellum
  9. Middle "cobwebby layer" of the meninges?
  10. Subarachnoid space is between the _______ and ______ and contains _______.
    • arachnoid and pia mater
    • CSF
  11. What meningeal layer is highly vascular?
    pia mater
  12. CSF is secreated by the _________.
    choroid plexus
  13. Ventricle pathways: lateral ventricles to _________ to third ventricle to ________ to fourth ventricle to the _______ and ________.
    • interventricular foramen (foramen of Monroe)
    • Cerebral aquaduct (aquaduct of Sylvius)
    • Median aperture (foraman of Magendie) and Lateral apertures (foramen of Luschka)
    • Image Upload 1
  14. Blood supply to the brain: anteriorly? posteriorly?
    • Anteriorly: bilateral internal carotid arteries
    • Posteriorly: bilateral vertebral arteries
  15. ___________ communicates between the bilateral internal carotid arteries and the bilateral vertebral arteries.
    • Circle of Willis
    • Image Upload 2
  16. Circle of Willis is at about the level of the _______ in the brain.
    sella turcica
  17. About ____% of the population have a complete circle of willis.
  18. Venous blood from the brain is returned to the venous sinuses in the dura and ultimately drain into __________.
    internal jugular veins.
  19. The blood-brain barrier prevents passage of many substances into the brain. It is however, permeable to ____, ______, _____, ______ and general _______.
    • H20
    • CO2
    • O2
    • Alcohol
    • anesthesia
  20. What is inflammation of the meninges (pia and arachnoid layers)?
  21. Two types of meningitis?
    • bacterial
    • viral
  22. Of bacterial and viral meningitis, which is more serious?
  23. Severe headaches, stiff neck, high fever, intolerance to light, painful when moving eyes side to side are clinical signs of?
  24. The bacterial meningitis vaccine treats ___ different strands and protects for about ___ to ___ years.
    • 4
    • 3-5 yrs
  25. An infected meninge may swell and close off the aquaduct between 3rd & 4th ventricle (aquaduct of Sylvius) which may lead to?
  26. How is meningitis diagnosed?
    lumbar punture
  27. What is usually a viral infection of the brain tissue and meninges transmitted by herpes or "arborvirus"(arthropod borne)?
    • Encephalitis
    • Much more serious than meningitis
  28. Pyogenic organisms from the ear, throat, lungs, and sinuses may cause a ______ in the brain.
  29. Brain abscesses are best visualized with?
  30. Note: Posterior fossa tumor of cerebellum or 4th ventricle is more common in children and often a primary tumor.
  31. Note: anterior cerebrum tumor is more common in adults and is usually a metasticis from another cancer.
  32. Brain tumors are best visualized with?
  33. Note:
    Astrocytoma- benign, slow growing, infiltrative character and found in cerebrum, cerebellum, optic chiasm, pons.
  34. Note:
    Glioblastoma is a malignant converted grade 4 astrocytoma. Highly malignant and patients only live 6-12 months after diagnosis.
  35. Most common form of adult primary brain tumor?
    glioblastoma (patients only live 6-12 months after diagnosis, peel incidence 45-50yrs)
  36. Note:
    Medulloblastoma- posterior fossa most often in children (15-20% of all PED tumors) boys affect 2x more than girls, radiosensative.
  37. Note:
    Meningoma- benign tumor, often has calcifications, more common in females (30-50yrs) well encapsulated, and may compress teh brain. Well seen in CT and MR.
  38. Note:
    Acoustic Neuroma- slow growing benign tumor, arrises from cells in 8th cranial nerve. Originates in IAC and extends into the cerebellopontine cistern.
  39. Slow growing benign tumor that arrises from the cells of the 8th cranial nerve?
    acoustic neuroma
  40. Note:
    Pituitary adenoma- usually a benign tumor of anterior lobe of pituitary gland. Macroadenoma is over ____mm in size, and is also a _______ tumor. Tumor can compress teh pituitary gland causing hypopituitarism.
    • 10mm
    • non-functioning (pituitary functions normally)
  41. What pathology may grow out and erode the sella turcica and compress the optic chiasm?
    pituitary adenoma
  42. Microadenoma of the pituitary gland (size _____) is a _____ tumor and causes _________ due to production of pituitary hormones.
    • 1-10mm in size
    • functioning
    • hyperpituitarism
  43. Pathology? Occurs primarily in males under 25yrs usually around it's calcifying time, and is midline of brain.
    Pineal tumors
  44. Linear skull fracture?
    sharp lucent line that is often irregular, jagged and sometimes branches.
  45. Diastatic skull fracture?
    linear skull fracture that intersects a suture line and courses along it causing sutural separation.
  46. Depressed skull fracture?
    Often stellate (star shaped) with multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point
  47. Hemotympanum?
    blood coming from the ear, often a clinical sign of a basilar skull fracture.
  48. Ecchymosis?
    purple or black-and-blue area ................bruise
  49. Epidural Hematomas (2% of all head injuries) are caused by acute _______ bleeding of the _____ _______ _____, most often over the __________ convexity.
    • arterial
    • medial meningeal artery
    • parietotemporal
  50. What type of hematoma appears as a biconvex (lens-shaped), peripheral, high density lesion?
    epidural hematoma
  51. Subdural hematomas (10-20% of all head injuries) are caused by _______ bleeding, most often caused by ruptured ______ between the dura mater and arachnoid.
    • venous
    • veins
  52. An acute _______hematoma typically appears as a peripheral zone of increased density and has a crescentic shape.
  53. What is an injury to the brain tissue that is caused by movement of the brain within the calvaria after blunt trauma to the skull?
    cerebral contusion
  54. What type of hemorrhage can produce bleeding into the ventricular system?
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  55. The ___________ artery is associated in 50% of traumatic fistulas.
    internal carotid
  56. The most common facial fracture is?
    nasal bone fractures
  57. What is caused by a direct blow to the front of the orbit that causes a rapid increase in intraorbital pressure?
    blowout fracture
  58. What method is the preferred screening study for a blowout fracture?
    modified waters plain radiograph
  59. What is a tripod fracture?
    fractures of the zygomatic arch and the orbital floor or rim combined with separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture
  60. Most common site of fracture of the mandible?
    the angle
  61. Le Fort fracture?
    severe injury that involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae (classified as I,II,III) resulting in a detached and unstable fragment.
  62. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain most commonly arise from ______ (34%), and _________ (14%).
    • lung cancer
    • adenocarcinoma (breast)
  63. Most sensative modality for detecting suspected tumors of the CNS?
  64. What is a cobalt 60 gamma ray?
    Gamma knife (201 beams converge in one spot)
  65. Why isn't contrast given to patients suspected of a brain injury?
    Because blood looks like contrast in CT
  66. What is a "battle sign?"
    ecchymosis over the mastoid processes
  67. What are "raccoon eyes?"
    bilateral orbital ecchymosis
  68. If there are fluid levels visualized in sphenoid sinus and mastoid air cells, CSF and/or blood leaking out of ears, it may indicate?
    a basilar fracture
  69. What type of projection is required to view the depth of a depression fracture?
  70. What modality ages blood really well?
  71. What is caused by a shearing force to intraparenchymal arteries at the junction of gray and white matter?
    intracerebral hematoma
  72. Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
    reptured berry aneurysm: causes CVA, bleeds into ventricles
  73. Most common type of cerebral vascular accident CVA?
    Ischemic CVA (thrombus/embolus)
  74. The onset of an embolus is often _____ not related to ______.
    • sudden
    • activity
  75. What is an AVM?
    aretiovenus malformation- tangled web of arteries and veins
  76. What is hemiplegia?
    paralysis on one side of the body, usually dealing with strokes
  77. What is hemiparesis?
    weakness on one side of the body, usually dealing with strokes
  78. What is dysarthria?
    difficulty speaking, usually dealing with strokes
  79. What is the purpose of radiographic evaluation in the acute stroke patient?
    Not to confirm the diagnosis, but rather to exclude other processes that can stimulate the clinical finding.
  80. Cerebral hemorrhage vs subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which has a poorer prognosis?
  81. Symptoms: rapid hemiplegia, loss of consciousness, headache, stiff neck?
    subarachnoid hemorrhage
  82. 1 in 3 experiencing a TIA will have a CVA within ____ years.
  83. Degeneration of nerve tissue which causes mylin sheath in white matter of brain to degenerate. What is it?
    • MS- multiple sclerosis
    • May have a clinical sign of sudden blurred vision
  84. Modality of choice for MS?
  85. What type of seizure is mild where someone just kind of "spaces out?"
    Petit Mal
  86. What type of seizure is considered major with a loss of consciousness?
    Grand Mal
  87. Note: Alzheimer's Disease- Massive destruction of neurons, mental capacity deteriorates. States 1-5. Stage 3 requires assistance, stage 5 brain shuts down.
  88. AD patients live _____-_______ years after diagnosis.
    Alzheimer's Disease- 8-10 years
  89. ____% of people over 85 years old have Alzheimer's Disease.
  90. AD is more common in males or females?
  91. What disease is known as "shaking palsy?"
    Parkinson's Disease
  92. Neural transmitor dopamine is inadequately produced in this pathology?
    Parkinson's Disease
  93. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is also known as?
    Lou Gehrig's Disease
  94. Lou Gehrig's Disease: widespread selective atrophy with loss of motor nerve cells, leads to poralysis, death occures from respiratory weakness/aspiration pneumonia, and _________ is not affected.
  95. Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles that causes increased intercranial pressure?
  96. Most common cause of hydrocephalus?
    spina bifida
  97. Arnold-Chiari malformation?
    cerebellar tonsils descend into upper cervical spinal canal and occlude foramina leading to subarachnoid space
  98. Non-communicating hydrocephalus?
    obstruction in ventricles proximal to medium and lateral apertures.
  99. Communicating hydrocephalus?
    Obstruction distal to medium and lateral apertures
  100. Difference between non-communicating and communicating hydrocephalus?
    non-communicating is proximal to medium and lateral apertures whereas communicating is distal.
  101. US can be used to see the ventricular system in _____ only.
    newborns- through the fontenel
  102. Most common treatment for hydrocephalus?
    VP shunt
  103. What can cause osteomylitis or abscesses in the brain and meninges if left untreated?
  104. Maxillary sinuses start out as _____ at birth.
  105. What sinus can you see by age 6?
  106. What sinus is not well demonstrated until age 10?
  107. What sinus begin to develop at around age 2-3, and are fully developed in teens?
  108. What scan is perfomed to look for "brain death?"
    radionuclide brain scan
Card Set
Flash cards from Rene's notes