-
What tests are used for the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?
- CK (total)
- CK-MB/CK-II
- Troponin
- Myoglobin (sometimes)
-
What happens to CK after a heart attack?
Increases at about 4 hours after beginning of MI, reaches max. at about 24 hours, returns to normal after 3 days
-
What happens to troponin after an MI?
Increases about 3 hours after beginning of MI, reaches max. at about 14 hours, remains elevated for 4 to 9 days
-
What cardiac enzyme increases the most post-MI?
CK-MB
-
What will cause an increase in CK-MM (CK-I)?
Muscular dystrophy, myositis, large muscle mass, strenous exercise
-
What will increase CK-MB (CK-II)?
Acute MI or other serious heart condition (cardiac defibrillation, cardiac ischemia, myocarditis, ventricular arrhythmias)
-
What will increase CK-BB (CK-III)?
CNS diseases (brain injury, CVA/stroke, seizure)
-
What will increase total CK?
anything that increases CK-I, II, or III (MI, skeletal muscle diesease, neurological disease)
-
What is troponin used for?
estimation of the size of an MI (amount of damage)
-
What is the most sensitive of the cardiac tests?
Myoglobin, but it is the least specific
-
What will increase myoglobin?
- Myocardial infarction
- Skeletal muscle inflammation
- Trauma
- Muscular dystrophy
- Rhabdomyolysis
-
What is included on a lipid panel/profile?
Cholesterol, triglyceride, HDL, LDL, VLDL, Lipid ratio
-
How does high levels of thyroxine (T4) impact cholesterol?
decreases cholesterol
-
How does estrogen affect cholesterol?
estrogen lowers cholestrol except in pregnancy (lipids are needed for fetus)
-
How can diabetes impact cholesterol?
If glucose levels are not controlled, cholesterol will increase
-
What results from burning fat?
ketosis
-
How does a fatty liver influence cholesterol?
hepatic synthesis of lipoproteins is limited
-
What happens to cholesterol levels in people with Neiman pick?
increases (Neiman pick is a lipid storage disease)
-
When taking cholesterol levels what can effect the results?
Diet (must fast before test) and position (seated vs. lying down)
-
What can increase cholesterol levels?
Genetics, hyperlipidemia, hypothyroidism, diabetes (uncontrolled), nephrotic syndrome, MI, stress, atherosclerosis, biliary cirrhosis
-
What will decrease cholesterol levels?
Malabsorption, malnutrition, hyperthyroidism, advanced cancer, liver disease
-
What is a better indicator of heart health triglycerides or cholesterol?
triglycerides
-
What will cholesterol < 160 mg/dL do?
Increase mortality risk in compromised individuals
-
What will increase triglycerides?
Hyperlipidemias, genetics, high carb diet, hypothyroidism, nephrotic syndrome, diabetes, chronic renal disease, glycogen storage disease
-
What will decrease triglyceride levels?
malabsorption, malnutrition, abetalipoproteinemia, hyperthyroidism
-
Which lipids are beta lipoproteins? alpha lipoproteins? Which do you want higher amounts of?
- LDL = beta - want lower (B is bad)
- HDL = alpha - want higher
-
What will increase HDL?
Genetic HDL lipoproteinemia, excessive exercise, moderate alcohol consumption, estrogen supplements
-
What will decrease HDL?
Genetics, hepatitis/cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, malnutrition
-
What will decrease LDL and VLDL?
Genetic hypolipoporteinemia, malabsorption, malnutrition, hyperthryroidism
-
What will increase LDL and VLDL?
Genetics, nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, glycogen storage disease, chronic liver disease, excessive alchol consumption, multiple myeloma, cushing's, systemic illness
-
What are the two most commonly used ratios to predict coronary artery disease (CAD)?
- LDL:HDL
- Apo A:Apo B (B=bad) - one of the best indicators, low ratio (more Apo B) indicates increased risk of CHD (coronary heart disease)
-
Which lipoproteins are electrophoresis done on?
LDL and HDL
-
What does post prandiol mean?
after eating
-
What does apoprotein A1 indicate?
low levels indicate CAD
-
What do apoprotein B indicate?
high levels indicate CAD
-
What is homocysteine?
a metabolic byproduct of methionine metabolism, high levels indicate CAD
-
What is fibrinogen?
plasma protein which can be transformed by thrombin into a fibrin clot, in excess indicate CAD and higher mortality risk
-
What does insulin indicate?
Elevated levels indicate atherosclerosis
-
What is chlamydia pneumoniae?
obligate intracellular pathogen asssociated with atherosclerosis
-
What is C-reactive protein?
nonspecific indicator of inflammation (ONLY abnormal protein made by the liver during inflammation, acute phase reactant protein), high levels indicate higher risk of cardiovascular events
-
What is lipo-PLA2?
indicator of vascular inflammation, high levels indicate CAD or stroke
-
What phenotype of lipoprotein is the most common? What is the best indicator?
type IV (caused by diet, lack of exercise and diabetes), increased triglycerides
-
What is PLAC?
Another name for lipoprotein-phospholipase A2 (lipo-PLA2)
-
What is the BNP assay for?
differentiate dyspnea of congestive heart failure (CHF) from other respiratory conditions, elevated in cardiac diseases (triggered by ventricular stretch)
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What is VMA?
vanillymandelic acid (catecholamines), indicates hypertesion secondary to pheochromocytoma, tested with a 24 hour urine sample
-
What is a pheochromocytoma?
benign tumor of the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla which secretes high levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine causing episodic (paroxysmal) or persistent severe hypertension
-
What order are the catecholamines produced? What do they become?
- dopamine --> norepinephrine --> normetanephrine --> VMA
- dopamine --> epinephrine --> metanephrine --> VMA (DEMV - alphabetical order)
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What are the symptoms of a pheochromocytoma?
hypertension, tachycardia, flushing, hyperglycemia, cold/clammy skin, excess sweat, angina/palpitations, attacks can be episodic or continuous
-
What is the D-dimer test for?
- evaluation of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), deep vein thrombosis (DVT), polycythemia vera
- Indicates fibrin split or degradation products (FSP)
-
What are the risk factors for an arterial thrombosis?
Smoking, hypertension, atheromas, myeloproliferative diseases (leukemia, multiple myeloma, polycythemia vera)
-
What are the risk factors for a venous thrombosis?
Immobility, trauma, surgery, malignancies, obesity, oral contraceptives
-
What is the most common type of hypertension?
essential or idiopathic
-
Is malignant hypertension essential or secondary?
Can be either, it is a severe form of hypertension
-
What are most secondary causes of hypertension?
endocrine issues
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What is myocarditis caused by?
usually a virus
-
What is endocarditis caused by? What does it present with?
- IV drug use (used to be rheumatic heart disease)
- vegetative friable verrucous growths on heart valves
- friable = crumbly
- verrucous = wart-like
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What is pericarditis? What is it caused by?
Inflammation of the fibroserous sac around the heart, can be caused by anything (bacteria, virus, fungi, tumor, etc.)
-
What is a classic sign of pericarditis?
pericardial friction rub (grating sound as heart moves)
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What causes rheumatic fever?
unresolved group A, beta hemolytic strep infextion
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How does strep present in the renal system?
acute post strep glomerulonephritis
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What are the symptoms of rheumatic fever?
- SPECS: Subcutaneous nodules, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Carditis, Syndenham's chorea
- JONES: Joints, Ocarditis, Nodules, Erythema marginatum, Syndenhams chorea
- SPECS and JONES are two ways to remember the same thing, learn whichever is easiest for you to remember
- Arthralgias is the most common symptom
- Erythema marginatum is pink rings on the trunk and inner surfaces of the arms and legs
- Syndenhams chorea (st. vitus dance) is sudden movements of the arms, legs and face
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What urine tests are done for renal?
urinalysis, specific gravity and osmolality, 24 hour collection for protein and creatinine, clearance tests
-
What blood tests are done for renal?
creatinine, BUN (blood urea nitrogen), uric acid, total protein, albumin
-
What are other miscellaneous tests for renal?
urine culture and sensitivity, electolytes
-
What lab tests are used to differentially diagnosis prostate from kidney when patient presents with back pain?
- PSA (prostate specific antigen) - better, present even if membrane of prostate is intact
- Acid phosphatase (AcP)
-
What is the best lab test to determine if prostate cancer has spread to the spine?
Alkaline phosphatase (NOT acid phosphatase - only tells you they have prostate cancer not that it has spread)
-
What does a sodium/potassium imbalance suggest?
aldosterone problem
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What is an IVP?
Intravenous pyelogram (die is injected, x-ray is taken)
-
What is a renal ultrasound (US) good for?
Wilm's tumor (children) because they don't have to hold still but not as specific as an MRI or CT
-
What roles does the kidney have in urine production?
filtration, reabsorption, active secretion
-
What does the kidney do with creatinine?
Filter only
-
What does the kidney do with BUN?
Filter and reabsorb
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What does the kidney do with uric acid?
filter and reabsorb
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What does the kidney do with albumin?
Nothing (it is not filtered, body retains all of it)
-
What is the best blood test for kidney function?
Creatinine (NOTE: not the same as creatine)
-
What increases creatinine?
Renal issues (glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis and UTI's, tubular necrosis) and post-renal issues (blockage) and pre-renal issues (reduced blood flow from shock, dehydration, CHF, atherosclerosis)
-
What decreases creatinine?
decrased muscle mass, ex. muscular dystrophy
-
Labs for muscular dystrophy?
decreased creatinine, increased creatine, increased CK-MM
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What happens to phosphorylcreatine?
During exercise it becomes creatine, during rest it becomes creatinine
-
What test has replaced the creatinine tests?
eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate)
-
What increases creatine?
muscular dystrophy, severe muscle damage
-
What is BUN?
main nonprotein nitrogen end product of protein catabolism and most common
-
What is azotemia?
high levels of BUN in the blood, leads to disorientation and convulsions
-
What can increase BUN levels?
kidney or liver issues
-
What does low albumin cause?
edema
-
What are the three major proteins in our blood?
albumin (most), globulin, fibrinogen
-
What can decrease albumin levels?
hepatic disease, malnutrition, malabsorption, nephrosis/nephrotic syndrome, CHF, eclampsia, burns
-
What can increase albumin levels?
dehydration
-
What three hormones affect sodium levels?
- Aldosterone - stimulates kidneys to reabsorb sodium
- Natriuretic hormone - increases renal excretion of sodium
- ADH - increases reabsorption of water by kidney
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What does the specific gravity/osmolality test represent?
the concentrating and diluting ability of the kidney, specific gravity = screening, osmolality = confirmatory
-
What tests indicate a UTI?
nitrite, leukocyte esterase, presence of WBCs (all in urinalysis)
-
Where are proteins made?
Most in the liver (albumin, fibrinogen, alpha and beta globulins), some in the reticuloendothelial system (RES) or plasma cells (gamma globulins/immunoglobulins)
-
What is the main function of proteins?
contribute to osmotic pressure
-
Abnormal protein levels indicate a problem with what?
liver, kidney or immune
-
What is more common hypo or hyperproteinemia?
hypo
-
What causes decreased proteins?
nephrotic syndrome, severe liver disease, malabsorption
-
What causes increased proteins?
multiple myeloma, dehydration
-
What are the three types of globulin?
alpha and beta and gammaglobulins (immunoglobulins - G (85%), A, M, E, D)
-
What increases gamma globulins?
chronic infections, multiple myeloma
-
What decreases gamma globulins?
hypo or agmmaglobulinemia (genetic)
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What test should you run next if protein levels are increased in the blood?
protein electrophoresis (TPE or SPE)
-
What pathologies cause a decreased A/G ratio?
RA, SLE, chronic infections, sarcoidosis, malignant tumors
-
What pathologies cause an increased or inverse A/G ratio?
Multiple myeloma
-
What is a monoclonal gammopathy?
one protein is increased, gamma globulin spike, occurs in myeloma and macroglobulinemia
-
What is a polyclonal gammopathy?
more than one gamma globulin is increased
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What is hypogammaglobulinemia?
gamma globulins are decreased
-
What happens to proteins in an acute reaction (APR)?
Albumin decreases and alpha-2-globulins increase, occurs in acute infections, MI, burns, tissue necrosis and stress
-
What happens in nephrotic syndrome to proteins?
albumin moderately decreases and alpha-2-globulins moderately increase
-
What happens to protein levels in chronic inflammation?
albumin slightly decreases, gamma globulins slightly increase
-
What is pre-albumin used for?
assessment of nutritional status
-
What does transferrin do?
transports iron, increased levels indicate low iron stores, part of beta 1 globulin
-
What does haptoglobulin do?
binds free hemoglobin preventing loss thru kidney, part of alpha-2-globulin
-
What is alpha-1-antitrypsin?
main part of alpha-1-globulin, inhibits proteases, genetic deficiency is common, deficiency leads to premature emphysema
-
What does ceruloplasmin do?
transport copper, it is absent in Wilson's disease
-
What does antithrombin III do?
prevents clotting by enhancing antithrombin
-
What occurs if fibrinogen is not present?
hemorrhage (may use up in child delivery causing mother to hemorrhage), part of beta-2-globulins
-
What are complement C3 and C4?
help in immune and inflammation response, helps in the destruction of foreign cells, C3 is 70%, C4 is the 2nd most common complement
-
What decreases C3?
acute post-strep glomerulonephritis, active SLE, severe recurrent bacterial infections, nephritis, RA, Immune complex disorders (type 3 hypersensitivity)
-
What can low C3 lead to?
shock and death
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What decreases C4?
active SLE, early glomerulonephritis, immune complex diseases
-
What increases C4?
many malignancies
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What is alpha-fetoprotein used for?
tumor marker for cancer, detection of neural tube defects in fetus (highest levels with hepatomas)
-
Where is c-reactive protein found?
blood, CSF, bullous fluid
-
What are the lab findings for a UTI?
leukocytosis, nitrite, leukocyte esterase, hematuria, WBC casts with pyelonephritis, culture and sensitivity
-
What is vesicouretheral reflex?
When the urethra is too small causing urine to go back up ureters when voiding (cause of frequent UTIs in little bodys)
-
What is nephrotic syndrome?
condition resulting from specific glomerular defects and indicates renal damage from severe, prolonged increase in glomerular permeability for protein, more prevelent in children
-
What lab tests are used to diagnose nephrotic syndrome?
Proteinuria, hyaline/granular/waxy casts in urine, decreased albumin in the blood
-
What are the lab findings with chronic glomerulonephritis?
proteinuria, granular casts, hematuria, RBC casts, elevated BUN and creatinine levels in blood
-
What causes acute glomerulonephritis?
type III hypersensitivity reaction - follows a URI (upper respiratory infection) or skin infection (impetigo- usually staph, very contagious, pus-filled), most common in young boys but can occur in anyone
-
What are the lab findings with acute glomerulonephritis?
proteinuria, RBC casts, WBC casts, low C3 and low C4 in blood, throat culture may be positive for strep (if caused by a strep infection)
-
What is one of the most common renal diseases caused by bacteria?
pyelonephritis, note: acute glomerulonephritis and UTIs are also common
-
What causes pyelonephritis?
bacteria from bladder spreads to ureters due to vesicoureteral reflux or benign prostatic hypertrophy
-
What are the lab diagnosis associated with pyelonephritis?
Leukocytes and pyuria, WBC casts, some hematuria, low specific gravity
-
What lab tests are done for renal infarction?
renal angiogram, other labs are not unique to infarction
-
What are the symptoms of a renal infarction?
severe upper abdominal pain, deep gnawing flank pain, costovertebral tenderness, fever, anorexia/vomiting/nausea
-
What are renal calculi?
kidney stones, made mostly of calcium
-
What are the signs and symptoms of renal calculi?
pain anywhere from costovertebral angle to suprapubic region, fever, chills, frequent urination or anuria, nausea/vomiting/abdominal discomfort, hematuria
-
Lab tests for renal calculi?
hematuria, urate or calcium crystals, casts, pyuria
-
Who are renal calculi most common in?
men 30 to 50, especially in southeastern US
-
What is polycystic kidney disease?
genetic disease characterized by multiple, bilateral, grapelike clusters of fluid-filled cysts that grossly enlarge the kidney, compressing and replacing the functional tissue
-
How does polycystic kidney disease differ in infants vs. adults?
- infants - deadly, kidney does not function
- adult - insiduous onset, benign
-
What is fanconi syndrome?
malfunctioning proximal renal tubules (lose everything to urine), aplastic anemia, growth hormones --> electolyte and hematological abnormalities
-
What tests would you do to diagnose fanconi syndrome?
24hr protein, clearance tests, 24 hour urine electrolyte
-
What is alport's syndrome?
hereditary nephritis characterized by recurrent gross or microscopic hematuria, deafness, albuminuria, progressive azotemia, x-linked disorder
-
What is Goodpasture's syndrome?
autoimmune, anti-glomerular basement antibodies, first manifests in lungs (hemoptysis - cough blood) then in kidney (hematuria, proteinuria, glomerulonephritis)
-
What are the functions of the thyroid?
- maintain metabolism
- stimulate oxygen consumption by cells
- growth and maturation
- lipid and carbohydrate metabolism
-
What controls the thyroid?
TRH from hypothalamus and TSH from the anterior pituitary
-
What is required for thyroid hormone synthesis?
iodine, tyrosine (amino acid)
-
How many iodine molecules does T3 and T4 have?
T3 has 3, T4 has 4
-
Is thyroid testing included on a biochemical profile?
No, ordered separately
-
What is included on a thyroid panel?
T3, T4 and TSH
-
What additional tests can be done for throid? (be able to recognize, don't need to memorize)
Free T4, FTI (T7), T3 RU (THBR), TBG, TRH, BMR, LATS, TSI, TGI, anti-microsomal antibodies, anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
-
What diagnostic imaging can be done on thyroid?
thyroid scan, RAI, US, fine needle aspiration
-
Which is the major hormone used to screen for thyroid function? Why?
T4, long half life (1 week)
-
What % of T4 and T3 are bound to protein (TBG)?
99% of T4, 70% of T3
-
What T4 is metabolically active?
Free/unbound
-
What increases T4 and T3?
Grave's disease, plummer's disease, acute thyroiditis (hashimotos - causes release of stored T4 and T3), pregnancy, estrogen, oral contraceptives, hyperproteinemia
-
What decreases T3 and T4?
Chronic thyroiditis (after gland has been destroyed), myxedema, cretinism, renal failure (T3 only), liver disease (T3 only), hypoproteinemia, nephrotic syndrome, serious illness
-
What % of circulating thyroid hormone is T3?
90%
-
Where is T3 made?
In the liver (converts T4 to T3)
-
What is TBG?
Thyroid binding globulin, major thyroid hormone protein carrier
-
What happens when TBG levels increase?
more T3 and T4 is bound, the pituitary thinks that thyroid is low so it makes more TSH, increasing T3 and T4
-
What is THBR?
Thyroid hormone binding ratio (used to be T3 resin uptake) - represents the amount of free thyroid hormone
-
What is the major test used to distinguish between primary and secondary hypothyroidism?
TSH
-
What will increase TSH?
Primary hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's), severe and chronic illness
-
What will decrease TSH?
Secondary hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
-
What two tests can be done as a suppression or stimulation test?
TSH and TRH
-
What is TRH test?
injection of TRH is given to patient, in normal person TSH will increase in response, in person with hyperthyroid there will be little to no increase in TSH (one of the most reliable tests for hyperthyroid)
-
What antibodies are present in hyperthyroid?
LATS (long acting thyroid stimulator), TSI (thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin), TBII, TBI
-
What antibodies are present in hypothyroid?
anti-thyroglobulin antibodies and anti-microsomal antibodies (note: both of these are also present in most hyperthyroid as well)
-
What antibody involved with the thyroid crosses the placenta?
LATS
-
What is a hot spot on a thyroid? What does it indicate?
area of activity which is seen on a radioactive uptake scintiscan of the thyroid, it is normal to have a few small hot spots but large hot spots indicate hyperthyroid
-
What can an ultrasound of a thyroid differentiate?
solid tumor (more likely to be malignant) from fluid filled cyst (usually benign)
-
What is the preferred diagnosis method for thyroid masses?
fine needle aspiration
-
What is required for a thyroiditis diagnosis?
swelling of the thyroid (painless but may cause pressure), antithyroglobulin antibodies are usually positive, thyroid function tests may vary but decreased T4, T3 and Thyroid uptake is expected, TSH and lipids are elevated
-
What is the major type of thyroiditis?
Hashimoto's
-
What is myxedema?
syndrome of decreased thyroid function (includes symptoms of hypothyroid)
-
What are the two most common types of thyrotoxicosis?
Grave's (most common) and Plummer's disease (2nd most common - it is a multi-nodular goiter)
-
What are the common lab findings with thyrotoxicosis?
Increased blood sugar (absorb more), T4, T3, Thyroid uptake, presence of LATS, TSI and TGI, decreased lipids and TSH
-
What is a goiter? What are the types?
most common cause of thyroid enlargement, usually seen at puberty, pregnancy or menopause, non-toxic or simple
-
What is euthyroid sick syndrome?
acute or chronic illness causes secondary hypothyroidism, often decreased pre-albumin is present
-
What are the symptoms of hashimoto's?
Female 30-50, genetic, enopthalmia, edema (puffy face), cold and yellow, speech difficulties (thick tongue), hair loss/coarse, thick/dry skin, hypersensitive to cold, constipated, personality changes, mental apathy
-
What are the symptoms of grave's?
"Basedow's disease", females 20-40, genetic, exopthalmia/stares, goiter, tachycardia, nervous/restless/tremors, velvet/moist skin, heat intolerance, loose stools, irritable/fatigue/weakness, menstrual irregularity
-
Which thyroid disease is auto immune? Which tends to occur with autoimmune diseases?
Both, both
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