AD 2/3

  1. Decreasing lift on the advancing blade and increasing lift on the retreating blade is known by what term?
    blade flapping
  2. What is the primary purpose of blade flapping?
    to equalize the lift over the rotor disc halves
  3. A main rotor that allows each of its blades to move vertically and horizontally is known as what type of rotor?
    articulated rotor
  4. Upward bending of rotor blades is known by what term?
  5. A mechanical offset linkage compensates for which of the following conditions?
    gyroscopic precession
  6. At what time is the ground cushion or ground effect most effective?
    when the helicopter is at a height of less than one-half of the rotor diameter
  7. The uncontrolled loss of altitude in a helicopter is referred to as stalling.
  8. The lift of a rotor is affected by the length of the rotor in what manner?
    lift is proportional to the square of the length of the rotor
  9. What happens to power requirements as the length of the rotor blade increases?
  10. What force increases as pitch increases?
  11. Rotor blades that have rough, dirty surfaces cause what condition?
    decreased lift, increased drag
  12. Density altitude refers to the altitude corrected for atmospheric conditions.
  13. Helicopter flight controls consist of what system(s)?
    cyclic pitch control, collective pitch control, and rotary rudder flight control systems
  14. What control system(s) provide(s) the means of controlling the lateral movement of the helicopter?
    cyclic only
  15. What control system(s) increase(s) the pitch of all the rotary wing blades equally and simultaneously?
    rotary rudder
  16. Directional heading of a helicopter is controlled by what means?
    by tilting the helicopter in the desired direction
  17. By which of the following means is/are torque reaction(s) eliminated?

    By using two main rotors?
    by using a tail rotor?
    by using counter-rotating rotor blades on a single rotor shaft?
    all of the above
  18. The most common Navy helicopter has what of rotor(s)?
    single main
  19. A helicopter must use two engine-driven rotors for lift and propulsion.
  20. Which of the following turboshaft engines is a member of what is known as the generation of aviation propulsion systems?
  21. What type of engine construction contributes to increased engine availability by decreasing component repair turnaround time?
  22. What total number of major sections make up the gas generator section of the T58-GE-10?
  23. The T58 turboshaft engine compressor is located in what basic engine section?
    gas generator assembly
  24. Which of the following is a major difference between the T58 and the T700 engines?
    The T700 has a front-ddrive power drive shaft and the T58 has a rear-drive power drive shaft
  25. The T700-GE-401 compressor section is comprised of which of the following components?
    a single-spool, five-stage axial and one-stage centrifugal flow compressor
  26. The engine gas generator turbine drives what type of free-power turbine?
    a two-stage, axial flow
  27. What component of the IPS system actually causes foreign material to be dumped overboard?
    the engine-driven blower
  28. What is the correct number of rows of variable vanes and stators in the T700-GE-401 turboshaft engine compressor section?
    one vane and no stator
  29. What type of combustion section is used in the T700-GE-401 turboshaft engine?
  30. What turbine or turbine stages drive the main gearbox in the SH-60?
    the power turbine
  31. The engine control quadrant shown in figure 7-9 in the text consists of which of the following controls?
    two power control levers, two fuel selector levers, two emergency off T-handles and two starter buttons
  32. Momentary movement of the power control lever to the LOCKOUT position provides manual control for which of the following engine parameters?
    Ng and Np
  33. What movements of the power lever, if any, are required to return to the automatic mode of engine control?
    IDLE and back to FLY
  34. The primary purpose of the transmission system is to reduce engine speed to drive the free-wheeling units.
  35. The SH-3 main gearbox drives all EXCEPT which of the following components?
    utility oil pump
  36. When the rotary wing head is disengaged in the SH-3, by what means are the accessories driven?
    by the freewheeling unit
  37. Power to drive the engine accessories on the ground without engaging the head comes from which of the following engines?
    by no.1 engine only
  38. What is the purpose of the intermediate gearbox?
    to change the angle drive from the main gearbox to the tail gearbox
  39. What feature of the intermediate gearbox allows folding and unfolding of the pylon without manually disconnecting the transmission?
    the spring-loaded disconnect jaw
  40. The electromagnetic chip detector/drain plug in the intermediate gearbox also detects overheating within the gearbox.
  41. Which of the following statements describe the purpose of the tail gearbox?

    It changes the direction of drive 90 degrees?
    It reduces the drive shaft speed?
    It drives the rotary rudder?
    all of the above
  42. By what means are the intermediate and tail gearboxes (a) lubricated and (b) cooled?
    (a) splash (b) air
  43. The SH-3H main drive shaft transmits torque from the engine to the
    main gearbox
  44. The primary purpose of the tail drive shaft is to transmit engine power to the rotary rudder. What other function, if any, is accomplished?
    it drives the main gearbox oil cooler blower fan
  45. What components in the tail drive system eliminate the need for universal joints?
    thomas couplings
  46. How is the main rotor brake applied?
    manually or automatically
  47. What NDI inspection method is used when inspecting blended areas on the bell crank support mounting pads?
    fluorescent dye penetrant
  48. What drive shaft repair, if any is allowed on the tail drive shafts?
    the outside diameter of the tubular shaft
  49. The two types of rotary wing heads are grease-lubricated and self-lubricated heads.
  50. Which of the following components permit movement of the flight controls to be transmitted to the rotary wing blades?
    the swash plate and adjustable pitch control rods
  51. Which of the following functions is performed by the damper-positioners?
    they restrict blade lead and lag motion
  52. What is the main purpose of the pressure indicator (BIM)?
    gives visual indication of spar pressure loss or impaired integrity of blade
  53. The blade must be replaced anytime the BIM shows an unsafe indication.
  54. Which of the following conventional flight controls is/are replaced by the tail rotor?
  55. What cleaning agent is recommended for cleaning rotary-wing areas joined by bonding adhesives?
    approved cleaners (listed in MIM) mixed with water
  56. Blade tracking is necessary to prevent what problem?
    vibration and structural damage
  57. Which of the following methods, if any, provide in-flight blade check/tracking?
    stobex method
  58. By what means is a turboprop propellor driven?
    indirectly by a turbine through a speed-reducing system
  59. What in-flight advantage does the turboprop have over the turbojet engine?
    more thrust at low subsonic speeds
  60. During takeoff and climb, what factor accounts for the high efficiency of the turboprop engine?
    the prop accelerates a large mass of air while the aircraft is moving at relatively low ground and flight speed
  61. A feature of the turboprop is that changes in power are related to...
    turbine inlet temperature
  62. Through what means does the propellor absorb increased torque in flight?
    blade angle increase
  63. The fuel control and propellor governor establish the correct combination of which of the following factors?
    Rpm, fuel flow, and propellorr blade angle
Card Set
AD 2/3
helicopters and turboshaft power plants and turboprop engines and propellers