IN2 review q's

  1. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to
    the potential for ______.
    Spacial Disorientation
  2. Before retracting gear and flaps, you should have indications of positive rate of climb on the ______.
    VSI and ALT
  3. The two DP types are ______.
    • Departure Procedure Plates/Charts
    • Obstacle Departure Procedures
  4. ______ departures provide heading and altitude to fly until you are capable of maintaining your cleared flight route using on-board navigation systems.
    Radar vector
  5. AETC Pilots are only required to read back numbers, what numbers?
    Heading, altitude, altimeter settings
  6. Holding fixes may be defined by what?
    • using a radial and DME from a NAVAID
    • a GPS Waypoint
    • a published intersection
  7. How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the
    pitch attitude for an ITO?
    • At the rate outside references become unreliable.
    • Rotate to 7-8° nose high at 85 KIAS
  8. The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.
    1.5 min
  9. You are 70 NM from the Palacios VORTAC at FL180 and 240 KTAS. You are instructed to descend
    to cross the Palacios VORTAC at 4000 feet MSL. What should your descent gradient be? What is the
    resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)?
    • Descent gradient = 140/70 = 2º (200 ft/NM)
    • VSI = 200 X (240/60) = 200 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 800 fpm descent
  10. At a groundspeed of 4NM per minute and a descent gradient of 3°, what is the VSI rate of descent?
    • VSI = angle (NM/min X 100)
    • VSI = 3 X (4 NM/min X 100)
    • VSI = 3 X 400
    • VSI = 1200 fpm
  11. Prior to the IAF you should complete a W-HOLDS check. What do the letters in W-HOLDS stand
    • Weather
    • Holding clearance
    • Obtain clearance
    • Letdown plate review
    • Descent check
    • Speed as required
  12. If starting a non-DME teardrop approach from below the published IAF altitude, you must fly
    outbound ______ for every ______ feet below the IAF altitude before initiating the descent
    15 seconds; 1000
  13. What are the two categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures (IAPs)?
    Course reversals, Procedure tracks
  14. What are the two types of low-altitude course reversal approaches?
    Procedure turn, Holding in lieu of procedure turn
  15. What are the three common types of low-altitude procedure track approaches?
    Straight-In, Arcing , Teardrop
  16. When can you descend to the FAF altitude?
    When established on the inbound segment of the approach
  17. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown?
    • Cleared for Straight in
    • NoPT
    • Established in Hold
    • Radar vectors
    • Timed approach
  18. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach you may use normal turn lead points if your
    heading is within ______ of the procedure track course
  19. How is a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach plate?
    • Plan view: same as a normal holding pattern but with bold black lines
    • Profile view: outbound and inbound course arrows shown
  20. True or false? When flying a low altitude procedure turn approach you may begin the turn inbound at
    any point.
    True. However, you must complete turn on maneuvering side and cannot exceed remain within distance.
  21. How are segments of procedure track approaches depicted?
    By heavy black lines with arrowheads showing intended aircraft ground track.
  22. You have been cleared the VOR/DME RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport. How many turns are you expected to complete in holding?
    One turn. If additional turns are required to lose excess altitude you must coordinate with ATC first.
  23. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?
    When established on the inbound segment of the approach.
  24. What descent angle and VSI do you need to descend at 210 KTAS from 15,000 feet MSL to 3000 feet MSL in 30 NM (no wind)?
    • Descent Angle: 120/30 = 4°
    • VSI: 3.5 NM/min X 400 feet/NM = 1400 fpm
  25. If flying a non-DME teardrop approach with no published turn altitude, initiate the inbound turn when
    the aircraft is ______.
    halfway between the IAF and FAF altitudes
  26. While being radar vectored to final, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately _____.
    1 min
  27. If IMC conditions are likely to be encountered, when will missed approach instructions for a radar approach normally be issued?
    On radar downwind or base leg
  28. If ceiling is less than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is less than 3 miles, the aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least ______ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____ degrees
    3 miles; 30
  29. You are flying an ASR approach and the radar controller is providing recommended altitudes onfinal. These recommended altitudes approximate the ______ glidepath and will cease at the ______.
    PAR; minimum descent altitude
  30. How do you know you are at the MAP on an ASR approach?
    You will be told by the controller.
  31. You are at DA on a PAR approach when _____.
    you reach published DA on the aircraft’s altimeter or the controller states “At Decision Altitude”, whichever occurs first
  32. Typical runway lighting consists of a row of ______ lights on each side of the runway, ______ lights identifying the runway threshold, and ______ lights at the departure end. (D/1/1)
    white; green; red
  33. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are flashing white lights used to ______.
    mark the approach end of the runway
  34. Where can you find a detailed diagram of the type of approach lighting identified by this symbol?
  35. Which runway minimums do you use when flying a circling approach?
    Use the circling minimums and MDA for the runway the approach is flown to. DO NOT use minimums for runway of intended landing.
  36. How much obstacle clearance is provided when circling at the published MDA?
    300 feet
  37. When flying a circling maneuver, is it permissible to fly at an altitude ABOVE the circling MDA?
  38. If you are executing climbout instructions and the departure end of the runway is in sight, delay any
    turn until ______.
    past the departure end of the runway and 400 feet AGL
  39. When executing a missed approach from a circling maneuver begin a _____.
    climbing turn in the last known direction of the landing runway until established on the missed approach procedure/climbout instructions as appropriate
  40. You have been cleared the GPS RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport and instructed to enter holding at VIENNA. What mode must you select for the GPS before entering holding?
    OBS mode
  41. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the track line to the MAP on the EHSI will turn
  42. You are flying an ILS approach. You are past the localizer FAF and above the localizer MDA. You go two dots below the ILS glidepath. Do you have to go missed approach?
    • No, you may descend to the localizer MDA and transition to a localizer-only approach.
    • If you recapture the glideslope prior to the localizer MDA, you may continue the ILS approach.
  43. Radar controllers provide obstacle clearance using _____.
  44. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.
    only when directed by the controller
  45. You would get a graphic depiction of the landing environment for a particular airfield _____.
    from the airport sketch on an instrument approach plate for that airfield
  46. When can you begin a descent from MDA during a circling maneuver?
    When you are in a position to make a normal descent to landing, from base or final depending on the situation
  47. When do you have to go missed approach from the MAP?
    • Landing environment not in sight
    • Not in a position to make a safe landing
    • Directed by the controller
  48. What is an instrument departure?
    • Any IFR transition from takeoff to enroute structure
    • Four types:
    • Departure Procedure (DP)
    • 1) Departure Procedure Plates/Charts
    • 2) Obstacle Departure Procedures
    • Diverse Departure
    • 1) Airfields with no Published Departure
    • 2) Not authorized at some airfields
    • Radar Vector
    • VFR departure/IFR pickup
  49. What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center?
    • IFR takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures are published
    • Information in front of IAP
    • Nonstandard mins do not apply to military
    • Nonstandard departure procedures do apply
  50. When receiving a new in-flight clearance, what items must you read back to the controller?
    Altimeter settings, Headings, Altitude assignments
  51. What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL?
    • Left turns, maximum length of inbound leg is one minute
    • Standard pattern - right turns
    • Maximum inbound leg length above 14,000 feet MSL is 1.5 minutes
  52. What are the three types of high altitude approaches?
    • Teardrop (DME or Non-DME)
    • Radial
    • Radial/arc
  53. What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)?What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach?
    • 120 – 150 KIAS
    • 500 – 2000 fpm
  54. What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track?
    A procedure track requires a specific flight path.(Arc, radials, courses, etc...)
  55. When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point?
    Reduce power to approximately 22% and lower the nose to “line-on-line” on the EADI
  56. You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____.
    +/- 1nm
  57. At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are
    approach active mode
  58. When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale.
    ± 0.3 NM
  59. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ on the EHSI will ______.
    track line; turn green
  60. When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ on
    PAR final
    1 minute; 15 seconds; 5 seconds
  61. When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______.
    • Runway to which approach will be conducted
    • MDA
    • Missed approach point
  62. A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____.
    contact is established with the final controller
  63. Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final
    standard rate; half-standard rate
  64. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.
    only when directed by the controller
  65. What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach?
    • The latest point where the decision is made to land
    • Decision Altitude
    • MAP identification
    • 1) Fix (DME/NAVAID)
    • 2) Timing
  66. When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______.
    when you get within 100-200 feet above the reported weather ceiling
  67. What are climbout instructions?
    • Instructions issued by the controller when flying multiple approaches
    • Constitute an ATC clearance
    • Supersede published missed approach instructions
  68. You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make a climbing turn during the missed approach?
    Toward the landing runway
  69. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?
    When established on the inbound segment of the approach
  70. When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?
    • Outbound abeam IAF
    • Wings-level outbound if you cannot determine abeam
  71. How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?
    Bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed half standard rate
  72. What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visual glidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?
    Accept a long landing.
Card Set
IN2 review q's
IN2 review q's