AD 2/3

  1. Which of the following compressed air pressure ratio(s) are supplied by the NCPP-105?
    3.6:1 OR 5:1
  2. Which of the following functions(s) can the A/M27T-5 be used for?

    Test for leaks and malfunctions?
    To flush and fill hydraulic systems?
    To test the bursting pressure of aircraft hydraulic hoses?
    Both 1 and 2 above
  3. What safety feature is most commonly used to secure the B-2 maintenance platform in place prior to use?
    Immobilizing jackscrews
  4. What is the overall raised height on the B-2 maintenance workstand?
    23 1/2 feet
  5. The U-lock feature, found on some models of maintenance platforms serves the same purpose as which of the following locks?
    Barrel
  6. On the B-4A and B-5A maintenance platforms, what component(s) prevent(s) the platform from collapsing in the event of the hydraulic failure?
    Two safety locking pins
  7. What force is used to elevate the platform and ladder assemblyh of a B-4A maintenance platform?
    Hydraulic
  8. What is the major difference between the B-4A and B-5 workstands?
    Their size and height range
  9. Engine installation and removal stand 3110 is used..
    to store the power plant
  10. Engine installation and removal stand 3000B is used...
    to transport the power plant
  11. Engine installation and removal stand 4000A is used...
    to remove/install the power plant
  12. Precision positioning of the 4000A air logistics trailer is accomplished through a combination of hyrdraulic and screw-type actuators to control which of the following movements of the paralleled rails?
    up and down, fore and aft, tilt, roll and yaw
  13. The 4000A and 4000B engine stands should NEVER be used to transport engines.
    true
  14. Which of the following safety procedures is NOT necessary when using the aero bomb hoist for engine removal?
    Place work stands under the engine in case the hoist cable breaks.
  15. Wha is the primary purpose of the corrosion control cart?
    Provide freshwater washing for helo compressor sections
  16. Which of the following types of brakes are incorporated on the jet engine corrosion control cart?
    A spring-loaded "deadman" type parking brake
  17. The freshwater tank and the preservative tank on the jet engine corrosion control cart can be distinguished from each other by which of the following means?
    The freshwater tank has a 4-inch opening and the preservation tank has a 2-inch opening
  18. The major reasons for improper use of support equipment are lack of effective training and lack of effective supervision.
    true
  19. Support equipment training, which includes OJT, and a practical and written exam is completed by which of the following departments or activities?

    The squadron or user activity?
    The IMA SE division?
    Public works department?
    Both 1 and 2 above
  20. What is the primary purpose of a fuel system?
    To supply fuel to the engine
  21. What are the two aircraft fuel systems?
    Airframe and engine
  22. When personnel work with petroleum products, they should remember that the vapors are dangerous for which of the following reaons?

    The constitute fire and explosion hazards?
    They are poisonous?
    They settle in low places?
    All of the above
  23. What is the tendency of a fuel to evaporate at a specific temperature?
    Vapor Pressure
  24. What is the temperature at which a fuel will continue to burn after ignition?
    Fire point
  25. What is the lowest temperature at which a flammable substance gives off vapor that will burn when a spark or flame is applied?
    Flash point
  26. What is the basic factor in measuring the potential energy of fuel?
    heat energy content
  27. What property of turbojet engine fuel affects nozzle performance most?
    viscosity
  28. In the fuel system of a turbojet engine, microscope fuel leaks caused by soluble gum usually occur at what fuel system components?
    valves
  29. What does FSII mean?
    Fuel system icing inhibitor
  30. The freezing point of an aviation fuel is the temperature at which..
    it becomes solid
  31. How are U.S. military grades of jet fuels designated?
    JP followed by a number
  32. What is the NATO symbol of the primary jet fuel used in the Navy today?
    F-44
  33. What is the minimum flash point of JP-5?
    140 degrees Fahrenheit
  34. Which of the following fuels are most hazardous because of their high volatility at low temperature?
    JP-4 and gasoline
  35. What, if anything does the number in the U.S. military grade designation for jet fuels mean?
    Approximate sequence in which the fuel specifications were accepted by the military.
  36. Organizational-level maintenance normally tests and inspects fuel samples for contamination by which of the following means?

    The inspect and measure solid contaminates by microns?
    They inspect and measure water contaminants by parts per millions?
    They conduct visual inspections?
    All of the above
  37. What visual standards must aircraft fuel meet to be acceptable?
    free of sediment, sparkling, and cloudless
  38. Which of the following statements is correct about the formation of a cloud of precipitation in a fuel?
    Even a slight cloud makes fuel unacceptable
  39. The most common of emulsion is the water-in-fuel emulsion. It appears as a...
    light-to-heavy cloud
  40. A naval aircraft flies from its shore base at NAS Roosevelt Roads. Puerto Rico, nonstop to NAS Norfolk. The indicators show that there is nearly as much fuel aboard when the aircraft landed as there was when it departed Roosevelt Roads. This situation illustrates which of the following hazards?

    Microbiological growth in the fuel tanks?
    Emulsions in the fuel and fuel tanks?
    Mixed fuels in the fuel tanks?
    Both 1 and 2 above
  41. The development and growth of micro-organisms in jet fuel is caused by what impurity(ies)?
    Free water
  42. Microbiological growth in fuel can be controlled by which of the following means?
    Removal of free water
  43. Which of the following actions are required if fuel samples have microbiological contamination?
    Send sample to Navy Petroleum
  44. After you visually check a fuel sample for correct color and water content, you should then check it for coarse particles by
    Whirling it to form a vortex that will force the sediment to the center
  45. Fuel tank construction depends upon which of the following factors?

    Materials available?
    Type of aircraft mission?
    Type of aircraft?
    Both 2 and 3 above
  46. Self-sealing cells contain what total number of primary layers of material?
    four
  47. The inner liner of the self-sealing fuel cell is made from what material?
    Synthetic rubber
  48. What material produces the self-sealimg action in the self-sealing fuel tanks?
    Sealant in contact with petroleum
  49. The retainer material used in self-sealing fuel cell construction is used for what purpose?
    To add strength and support to the cell
  50. As compared to self-sealing fuel cells, bladder-type fuels cells have which of the following advantages?
    They have greater fuel capacuty, weigh less, cost less
  51. Bladder-type fuel cells are fabricated to what sizes?
    Slightly larger than the aircraft's cavity
  52. Pliocel and rubber-type bladder cells may be repaired with the same materials.
    false
  53. Rubber-type fuel cells are repaired using Buna N rubber and adhesive.
    true
  54. External fuel systems consist of which of the following components or systems?

    External fuel tanks?
    Transfer system?
    Jettison system?
    All of the above
  55. Fuel must be transferred from the aircraft's external tanks for use in the engines. What is the source of power for this transfer?
    Electric transfer pumps
  56. Which of the following conditions would give an inaccurate fuel indication in a fuel quanitity gauge system?
    Fuel leak from tank and fuel supplied by emergency pump
  57. Which of the following types of valve is used to control the fuel level of all tanks during refueling?
    Float-type valve
  58. When a fuel line must carry fuel in only one direction, what valve prevents a reversal of the flow?
    check valve
  59. In the continuous-flow system, selector valves are NOT used for which of the following operations?
    normal operation
  60. What type of valve is used to control the flow when fuel is being bypassed because of a defective unit?
    Electronically operated shutoff valve
  61. What color marking is used for a lightweight fuel hose assembly?
    red
  62. In areas where extreme heat and/or abrasions could occur, rigid fuel tubing manufactured from which of the following materials is used?
    synthetic compound
  63. Whenever an engine fuel line requires replacement, the normal procedure is to obtain from supply a preformed line with fittings attched.
    true
Author
Jessicamadonna
ID
66569
Card Set
AD 2/3
Description
Aviation support equipment and Jet aircraft fuel and fuel systems
Updated