Study questions 1b

  1. If the PMU is activated with the IOAT above ___° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  2. With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below ______, while the electronic governor will maintain Np at 100%. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  3. With the PMU off (manual mode) the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  4. During normal engine start, at approximately _____ N1, the starter and igniters are de-energized and the boost pump is deactivated if fuel pressure is above ____ psi. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    50%; 10
  5. If the main system hydraulic pressure drops below 1800 psi indicated, then: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the hydraulic pressure display will change color to amber
  6. The air data computer provides air data corrected for temperature, position, or instrument error. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  7. AOA information is valid for all combinations of weight, configuration, and steady state bank angles. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  8. The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    Probes Anti Ice
  9. For high altitude ejections, an altitude sensing device and G-limiting device delay seat-man separation an parachute deployment until the seat and pilot are between _______ and _______ ft MSL and a safe parachute deployment speed. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    14,000 to 16,000
  10. Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • upper and lower harness locks
    • upper and lower bridle locks
    • the headbox deployment unit
  11. The GPS can store up to ___ flight plans with up to ___ waypoints on each flight plan. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    25, 30
  12. Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory ___ minutes after the GPS is turned off. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  13. When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately ___ minutes, during which the OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  14. The flaps will not extend normally during a Battery Bus failure. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  15. What does the Amber Oil Pressure annunciator indicate? (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • Oil Pressure is between 40 and 90 PSI for 10 sec with the PCL above Idle
    • Oil Pressure is between 15 and 40 PSI with the PCL at Idle
  16. A momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  17. 100% Torque is available from sea level to approximately what altitude on a standard day? (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    12,000 to 16,000 feet MSL
  18. Essential steps or items which are to be checked in both cockpits, if occupied, are indicated by _______ following the step. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  19. With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
  20. If ground egress door is locked, ground personnel _____ be able to operate CFS in an emergency. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    will not
  21. If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the system is fully serviced
  22. When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
  23. During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning properly, it will be _________ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  24. When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good (all four bulbs) in both cockpits (if occupied). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  25. Ensure minimum adequate canopy/helmet clearance by: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    placing closed fist on top of helmet when adjusting seat height
  26. Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM
  27. With the PMU STATUS annunciator illuminated, the PMU auto abort function may be unavailable. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  28. If an auto start is manually aborted by reselecting AUTO/RESET, retard PCL to ______ and manually _______ to clear the engine of residual fuel. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    OFF, motor the engine for 20 seconds
  29. After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for approximately _____ during OBOGS monitor warm-up. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    3 minutes
  30. To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ________ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  31. Limit taxi speeds to the equivalent of a fast walk with nose wheel steering engaged. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  32. Any fault discovered during the ________ check is reason for a ground abort. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  33. If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of _____ KIAS using normal procedures. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    15, 140
  34. If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    will sound and cannot be cancelled
  35. Performing a normal takeoff, the gear may be raised: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    once a positive rate of climb is established
  36. If obstacle clearance or noise abatement are not factors, _________ KIAS will result in improved forward visibility during the climb. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  37. If Delta P readings other than _____ psi are encountered at or above 18,069 feet, notify maintenance. (1T-6A-1)
    3.6 +- 0.2
  38. Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than ____ pounds. (1T-6A-1)
  39. The recommended missed approach attitude is ________ nose high. (1T-6A-1)
    10-15 degrees
  40. When landing with a crosswind: (1T-6A-1)
    maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare
  41. After landing with maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected: (1T-6A-1)
    • do not taxi into a congested area
    • do not set the parking brake
  42. Failure to deactivate both OBOGS regulators will result in: (1T-6A-1)
    • drain on the battery even with all other electrical switches off
    • discharging the aircraft battery
  43. Oil level must be checked ______. (1T-6A-1)
    • within 30 minutes of shutdown
    • Using the dipstick
  44. During the Before Exterior Inspection you will ensure the metal loop in the ejection handle is not frayed or broken. (1T-6A-1)
  45. Hold the auxiliary battery test switch forward and hold for a minimum of ___ seconds , then release. (1T-6A-1)
  46. The recommended holding speed is ___ KIAS in clean configuration or AOA gage reading no less than the maximum endurance AOA mark. (1T-6A-1)
  47. N1 will automatically reduce from flight idle (___) to ground idle (60%), approximately ___ seconds after touchdown. (1T-6A-1)
    67%, 4
  48. What must external power provide?
    • 28 to 28.5 VDC and 1000 amps for five seconds
    • 28 to 28.5 VDC and 500 amps for two minutes
    • 28 to 28.5 VDC and 300 amps continuous
  49. If possible, move the aircraft to a hangar when winds above ____ knots are expected. (1T-6A-1)
  50. To avoid aircraft movement, the aircraft should be _________ if the aircraft will remain unattended during strong winds. (1T-6A-1)
    • Tied down
    • Both main tires should be chocked
  51. In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run. (1T-6A-1)
  52. If an airstart is successful, useful power will be available after ______ seconds from starter engagement. (1T-6A-1)
  53. What condition will activate the FUEL BAL annunciator:
    A fault in the autobalance system
  54. Illumination of the L FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately ____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the left wing tank. (1T-6A-1)
  55. During a controllability check, in no case should the aircraft be slowed below _____ KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is _____. (1T-6A-1)
    90, higher
  56. With a sudden or rapid decompression at altitudes near 20,000 feet MSL, there may be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication. (1T-6A-1)
  57. The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds _____ feet. (1T-6A-1)
  58. For an engine failure, depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __ seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (1T-6A-1)
  59. Approximately _____ ft of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS. (1T-6A-1)
  60. Pulling the PROP SYS circuit breaker allows oil pressure to return, bringing the propeller out of feather within ___ - ____ seconds. (1T-6A-1)
    15, 20
  61. The generator will remain off line if the starter is in the MANUAL position and the starter will drain the battery in less than ___ minutes if left on. (1T-6A-1)
  62. Engine operation with high pressure pump suction feeding is limited to ___ hours. (1T-6A-1)
  63. Cabin pressurization will bleed out through the ________ when the inflow switch is set to OFF. (1T-6A-1)
    cabin pressurization outflow valves
  64. With the Battery Bus inoperative, plan to extend the landing gear using the emergency extension system
  65. Transit on an unprepared surface may make the CFS system inoperative and/or make the canopy difficult or impossible to open. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  66. Maximum ITT during takeoff/MAX is ______ deg C. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  67. At idle power during aerobatics or spins, allowable transient oil pressure is _____ psi minimum for a maximum of _____ seconds. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    15, 5
  68. Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  69. Oil temperatures up to _____ deg C are acceptable for ground operations with torque indicating 20% or less. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  70. Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ______ KIAS. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  71. Taxi over arresting cables at ____ . Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    as slow a speed as possible
  72. Inverted flight time is ____ seconds. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  73. Holding a zero G-loading for over __________ can cause engine damage and possible engine failure, regardless of oil pressure indications. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  74. The maximum operating VMO is ____ KIAS up to and including 18,769 feet MSL. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  75. Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements can result in structural damage to the aircraft. Vo is ___ KIAS. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  76. Ejection seat pilot weight limits are a minimum weight with equipment and flight gear of ____ pounds, and a maximum pilot weight with equipment and flight gear of ____ pounds. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    121, 171
  77. In general, OCF can be divided into three categories: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    poststall gyrations, incipient spins, and steady-state spins
  78. Takeoff with FLAPS LDG setting is not recommended with greater than 10 knots crosswind component. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  79. With power-off, lateral roll during a wings level stall is typically to the _____, and occurs near full _____ stick. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    right, aft
  80. While landing gear position has little effect on the stall, extending the _____ aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  81. ______ are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin. (T.O. 1T-6A-1
    Post-stall gyrations
  82. A(n) ______ is characterized by oscillations in pitch, roll, and yaw attitudes and rates. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    Incipient spin
  83. The incipient spin phase of the T-6A lasts approximately _____ turns. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  84. A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady state in that airspeed is _______ and motions are oscillatory. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  85. The best response to a spiral is to ______ controls and reduce the power to idle until motion stops. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    neutralize the
  86. In a steady-state spin, rotation rates will stabilize between _____ to ____ seconds with altitude loss of _____ to ____ feet per turn. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    2, 3, 400, 500
  87. In a steady-state spin, the angle of attack indicator will be over ____ units and airspeed will stabilize at approximately _____ KIAS. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    18, 120-135
  88. Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  89. With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  90. With ailerons held full opposite to direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw oscillations are damped out and the spin appears to reach steady state in all axes. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  91. During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below ____ psi with idle power. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  92. Spins below ______ feet MSL are prohibited, due to high stresses on the propeller. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  93. Altitude loss during a typical steady-state spin is approximately _____ feet for a 6-turn spin. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  94. During an erect spin recovery, spin rotation will abruptly cease with the aircraft in a steep nose down attitude within _____ turns after applying anti spin controls (full opposite rudder, stick forward of neutral). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  95. Controls-neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and generally, spin rotation will cease within _____ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  96. From an inverted spin, the most important factor for a successful recovery is to ________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    Reduce power to idle
  97. Above _____ % torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll at stall. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  98. Sustained aggravated spins are characterized by spins in excess of _____ turns and have the potential to exceed engine operating limits. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  99. If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute _____________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    a go around/waveoff
  100. The potential for lightning strikes increases near the ______. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    freezing level
  101. Hydroplaning can occur above _____ knots for the main tires when inflated to nominal tire pressures. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  102. The T-6 is approved for transit only through light rime icing conditions. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  103. For best cockpit cooling below 7,500 feet MSL, set RAM AIR switch to ______. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  104. During takeoff in hot weather, the aircraft will accelerate _____ than normal and ground run will be _____ because the air is less dense. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    slower, longer
  105. The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means all of the following: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
    • The flight was properly ordered and released
    • Current NOTAMs, weather and other pertinent flight data were obtained
    • The flight plan was reviewed for completeness and accuracy
  106. If power to the flap control circuit is lost (e.g. loss of power to the battery bus, or the FLAP CONT circuit breaker has opened), ________________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • the flaps will retract to the UP position
    • flap position will not be visible from the cockpit
    • the flap indication will be unreliable
  107. For off-station engine starts,___ to ___ VDC are acceptable external power voltage limits. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    24.0, 29.5
  108. Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated for ___ seconds following PCL movement to the Auto Start range may result in engine damage from the start being conducted in manual mode. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  109. The minimum altitude to complete a configured slip is ____ feet. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
Card Set
Study questions 1b
study questions