Study questions 1a

  1. The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates a(n): (AFI 11-205)
    engine malfunction.
  2. The formation signal for attention in the air is to: (AFI 11-205)
    execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
  3. If a solo student experiences an engine failure, the student may attempt a forced landing with the following restriction: minimum runway length ______ feet. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  4. Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  5. Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is ____ pounds: (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  6. Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is _____ feet. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  7. Emergency airfield minimum runway length for a T-6 is ____ feet: (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    Not specified
  8. When spinning over clouds, plan to complete all spin training (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  9. Perform all parts of aerobatics, unusual attitudes, abnormal recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above ______ feet AGL. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  10. The minimum altitude to begin a spin entry is ________: (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  11. Operations Group Commander approval is required to fly formation at night. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  12. For interval takeoffs, the ceiling and visibility must be greater than or equal to _____ feet and ____ miles, respectively. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    1500, 3
  13. The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  14. When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  15. Low levels may be flown solo. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  16. Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ___ knots. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  17. With operations group commander approval, aircrews may conduct operations at non-towered, public-use airfields, with the which of the following restrictions: (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    day only; single ship only
  18. During non-towered airfield operations no more than _____ aircraft (total), military and/or civilian, may be in the pattern at any time. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  19. Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (actual or forecast) in training or operating areas exceed _____ knots. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  20. The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  21. When on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan under radar control in a designated ATC military operating area, weather requirements for aerobatics, confidence maneuvers, and extended trail is clear of clouds with __ nm of in-flight visibility. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  22. Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____feet and on the taxiway centerline at night. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  23. Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ____ knots. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  24. While flying practice instrument approaches in VMC, if the pilot acknowledges reaching PWC minimums and states intentions to crewmembers, he may continue to published minimums. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  25. Minimum speed (except for wing takeoff/landings) for fingertip formation is ___ knots. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  26. Planned formation low approaches will________. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL
  27. For the first navigation sortie and all off-station, low-level navigation sorties, ______ is the minimum briefing time. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    1 hour and 45 minutes
  28. Minimum fuel is _____ pounds or less (_____ pounds or less on all solo student syllabus sorties). (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    150, 200
  29. To avoid entering IMC during OCF recovery training, a minimum of ______ feet of airspace, clear of clouds, must exist below entry altitude. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  30. The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation missions, dictated by operational or training requirements, is _________ feet AGL. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  31. After commencing a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot ________________. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher
  32. Solo students will not fly: (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    • Actual or simulated instrument approaches and landings as lead or wing.
    • Close trail as wingman.
    • Practice lost wingman procedures while on the wing.
    • Barrel rolls or over-the-top maneuvers while on the wing
  33. When leading fingertip formation and not configured, limit maneuvering to approximately _____ degrees of bank, _____ Gs, and _____ knots minimum. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    90, 2 to 3, 120
  34. The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  35. During non-towered airfield operations, no more than ____ aircraft (total), military and/or civilian, may be in the pattern at any time. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
  36. Over-water training flights will not be permitted when forecast or actual wave heights exceed ____ ft or surface winds exceed _____ knots in training or operating areas. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    10; 25
  37. Minimum altitude to fly Extended Trail is _______. (AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
    6,000' AGL
  38. The control and performance concept procedural steps are (in order): (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
    establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, cross-check, adjust.
  39. You are required to refer to the checklist to complete each individual item to ensure all items are completed. (AFMAN 11-248)
  40. Bingo fuel and at least one joker is briefed on every _____________. (AFMAN 11-248)
  41. Adverse yaw is the tendency of the aircraft to yaw away from direction of aileron input. (AFMAN 11-248)
  42. A slip is caused by ________________ bank angle in relation to the turn rate of the aircraft. (AFMAN 11-248)
    too much
  43. A low-level route abort altitude should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within ____ nautical miles of the planned course. (AFMAN 11-248)
    1,000; 2,000; 10
  44. Normal climb airspeed for the T-6A is_____ KIAS. (AFMAN 11-248)
    140- 180
  45. Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL (or per local directives) before the first turn after takeoff. (AFMAN 11-248)
  46. Initiate recovery from a power-on stall when: (AFMAN 11-248)
    control effectiveness is lost
  47. Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ______ knots. (AFMAN 11-248)
  48. For energy management, the optimum energy level for aerobatics is____ KIAS at an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits. (AFMAN 11-248)
  49. Proper spacing for a 30-degree bank final turn (Flaps TO), in calm winds, is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the _________ and the ______. (AFMAN 11-248)
    fuel filler cap, wingtip
  50. If excess altitude is too great to dissipate with a slip, S-turn, or by lowering the gear early, one technique is to make 360 degree turns prior to high key. Expected altitude loss will be approximately _______ feet for a 30-degree bank turn and _______feet for a 45-degree bank turn. (AFMAN 11-248)
    2,000, 1,500
  51. During an ELP, fly towards base key maintaining 120 knots. Fly the aircraft to be perpendicular to the runway at ____ to ____ feet AGL. (AFMAN 11-248)
  52. _______________________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation. (AFMAN 11-248)
    Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
  53. _______________________ are the top priorities of Number 2 in formation. (AFMAN 11-248)
    Maintaining flight path deconfliction and proper position as directed by #1
  54. If in other than fingertip or route when radio failure occurs and a planned rejoin will not shortly follow, the NORDO aircraft should: (AFMAN 11-248)
    rock wings (attention in the air) and move no closer than route until directed otherwise.
  55. During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, each aircraft or element will call: (AFMAN 11-248)
    when passing even thousands of feet (i.e.; 2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes
  56. Fighting Wing is a fluid position defined by a ___ degree cone ____ feet aft of lead. (AFMAN 11-248)
    30 to 45/ 500 to 1000
  57. Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ___ kias. (AFMAN 11-248)
  58. Because the circling approach is generally flown at a lower altitude than the overhead pattern, proper displacement will appear to be much wider than normal. A good visual reference for proper downwind spacing at 500 feet AGL is: (AFMAN 11-248)
    the wing tip on the landing runway
  59. How do you execute a missed approach?(AFMAN 11-248)
    • Smoothly advance the PCL to max.
    • Set attitude 10-15 nose high on EADI.
    • Check VSI and altimeter to verify climb and raise gear and flaps
  60. For low-level navigation, choose an initial point (IP) about _____ minutes from the target. (AFMAN 11-248)
  61. P-Factor is caused by: (AFMAN 11-248)
    AOA being higher on the downward moving propeller blade than on the upward moving propeller blade.
  62. Prior to performing a Barrel Roll select a reference point, such as a cloud or landmark, directly in front of the aircraft, _____________ the horizon. (AFMAN 11-248)
    on or slightly above
  63. Typical reactions from a clockwise-turning propeller (as viewed from the pilot's seat) include: (AFMAN 11-248)
    • If the nose is yawed to the left, the nose tends to pitch up.
    • If the nose is yawed to the right, the nose tends to pitch down.
    • If the nose is pitched down, a left yaw tends to develop.
    • If the nose is pitched up, a right yaw tends to develop.
  64. Maximum abort speed charts allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  65. Add ____ ft to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than __% torque. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    1000, 85
  66. What are the RCRs for dry, wet, and icy runway conditions respectively? (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  67. To set Maximum Climb Power (MCL), position the PCL so that ITT is ___ degrees below observed maximum ITT at critical altitude (not to exceed 807 degrees Celsius). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  68. Maximum _______ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  69. Landing distance charts assume what type of braking? (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    maximum braking
  70. The PT6A-68 engine is a reverse-flow design, with airflow entering the engine: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    at the rear
  71. Components of the oil system include the following system(s): (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • pressure
    • scavenge
    • cooling
    • breather
  72. The engine has been flat-rated to produce ______ shaft horsepower. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  73. Engine power output is measured by the __________: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    torque produced in the reduction gearbox.
  74. The engine oil system is designed with two oil pick-up elements to permit ________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    inverted flight
  75. The ________ displays oil pressure and temperature information on the engine/systems electronic instrument displays in each cockpit. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    Engine data manager (EDM)
  76. Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • engages the starter
    • energizes the spark ignition system
  77. During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ______, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  78. Power for the starter control (START) is provided through the ______ bus. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  79. Power for the ignition system (IGN) is provided through the _______ bus. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  80. The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  81. The PCLs are interconnected with a push-pull rod so that movement of one PCL moves the other. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  82. The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  83. The _______ and the _______ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    PMU, PIU
  84. When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    straight into
  85. Propeller feather may be selected to minimize drag during engine failure by placing the ______ to ______. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  86. PCL, OFF
  87. With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____ percent. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  88. Placing the ______ in the ______ position triggers a microswitch, which activates the feather dump solenoid valve. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    PCL, OFF
  89. Power for the feather dump solenoid valve is provided through a circuit breaker placarded________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  90. The _______ is a computer unit which monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates annunciators and engine systems displays. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    engine data manager (EDM)
  91. Power for the engine/systems/NACWS display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the _________ bus. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  92. The PMU provides two operating modes, ground and flight, which are controlled by the _________ . ( T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    weight-on-wheels switch on the main landing gear struts
  93. In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ______% and in the flight mode, idle is nominally _____%. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    60, 67
  94. Illumination of both the ______ and _____ annunciators indicates the system is in the manual mode. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  95. An amber PMU STATUS light one minute after touchdown indicates: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    PMU accommodated an in-flight fault
  96. An Amber PMU STATUS light in flight indicates: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    weight-on-wheels switch fault and/or mis-match between the weight-on-wheels switches
  97. When intentionally setting the PMU to off or attempting a reset, engine power should first be stabilized at ______ power setting to minimize power shift. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the lowest practical
  98. The PMU is normally powered by ________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
  99. During an automatic engine start, the PMU: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • activates the starter
    • activates the boost pump
    • activates the igniters
    • adds fuel at the proper N1
  100. The PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  101. During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can stop fuel flow and deactivate the igniters/starter to abort the start: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    any time provided the PCL is not past the start ready position
  102. After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  103. The start may be manually aborted by: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • placing the PCL back to OFF
    • reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate)
  104. If a start attempt is aborted after fuel has been introduced: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    manually motor the engine for 20 seconds to clear residual fuel
  105. To possibly discriminate between a fire or overheat condition: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    retard the PCL, if fire warning ceases or is not accompanied by other indications, suspect an overheat
  106. The left and right wing tanks have a capacity of _____ pounds of fuel each. (JP-8)(T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  107. During single-point pressure refueling, when pre-check valves are operating properly, both RH and LH pre-check valves should shut down ____________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    within 10 seconds
  108. During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _______ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    a minimum 15 seconds
  109. The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    as displayed on the fuel gauge
  110. If the fuel imbalance exceeds 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • the amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates
    • pilot action is required
  111. Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.
  112. If a fuel probe fails, ________ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the low fuel warning lights
  113. The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • all equipment on the generator bus
    • the battery bus equipment
    • charge the battery
  114. If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set to on in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF
    • generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON
  115. If there is a generator malfunction in flight: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • a red GEN light illuminates; reset using the GEN RESET button
    • a red GEN light illuminates; turn off the GEN switch if the generator cannot be reset
  116. The battery provides _____ volts DC for _______ and ______: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    24; engine starts; with the bus tie closed, all electrical systems (except air conditioning)
  117. Preflight testing of the auxiliary battery power level is accomplished: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • prior to application of battery power
    • using the AUX BAT test switch and light
  118. In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire detection system for approximately ________. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    30 minutes
  119. A chip detector is mounted in the _____ to detect metal contamination in the oil system. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    reduction gear box
  120. The hydraulic system provides ______ psi with a total system capacity of ______ gallons. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    3000, 1.25
  121. During normal operation, the hydraulic system operates the: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    landing gear, flaps, speed brake, nosewheel steering
  122. If hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below _______ psi, an amber EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    2400 (+/- 150)
  123. If main hydraulic pressure drops below ______ psi, the hydraulic pressure display will change color to indicate a caution (_______). (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    1800, amber
  124. A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ______ seconds. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  125. Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • three green gear lights
    • red main gear lights, red light in the gear handle
  126. The wheel brake system ______ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    is not
  127. Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    UP, TO, LDG
  128. Normal flap operation and indication are unavailable anytime: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • the battery bus has failed
    • when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power
  129. Emergency flap extension is enabled: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    after the gear have been lowered using emergency landing gear extension
  130. The flaps _______ be retracted after emergency extension until ______. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    cannot, the aircraft is serviced by maintenance
  131. During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    to an intermediate position between the marked settings to indicate flap motion
  132. Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • either speed brake switch is moved forward to retract
    • the flaps are extended
    • the PCL is moved to MAX
  133. The trim system control circuits give ________ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the rear cockpit
  134. Pressing and holding the trim interrupt button: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    interrupts power to all trim actuators.
  135. Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • remove power from the trim system
    • illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciators
    • cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage
  136. _________ provides indication of takeoff trim setting. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    A green band on each trim indicator
  137. The aileron trim actuator moves: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    the entire aileron
  138. A bobweight is installed on the front control stick which _______ stick forces as G-load on the aircraft increases, to improve control feel and help prevent overstressing the airframe. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
  139. The ______ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    trim aid device (TAD)
  140. Actuating the _______ will cause the TAD to disengage. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • trim interrupt button on the stick
    • TRIM DISCONNECT switch
  141. The ________ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    TAD automatically
  142. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
    • there is no weight on the wheels
  143. The ______ pitot system probe near the ______ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air data computer. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    primary, right
  144. The _______ pitot system probe near the _____ wing tip provides air pressures for the standby airspeed indicators in each cockpit. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    secondary, left
  145. The standby instruments operate from the _________ during a main battery bus failure. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    auxiliary battery
  146. As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately _____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ________, providing stall warning. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    18, stick shaker
  147. The AOA gage is marked with a green arc at 10 to 11 units, which indicates: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    on-speed AOA
  148. The AOA gage is marked with a white diamond at 8.8 units, which indicates: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    maximum endurance AOA
  149. The AOA gage is marked with a white triangle at 4.9 units, which indicates: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    maximum range AOA
  150. Engine bleed air is utilized for: (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system, pressurization, canopy seal
  151. To dump cockpit pressure, select ______ on the pressurization control switch. (T.O. 1T-6A-1)
    • DUMP
    • RAM DUMP
Card Set
Study questions 1a
study questions