BMR-CH13 Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Defense

1. What is defined as defensive measures taken against the effects of a chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons

2. What type of chemical was used in WWI, which forced the development of the gas mask?

3. What type of weapon was used for the first time in WWII?

4. Name the two types of agents that nations have began developing as a warfare tool?

5. What chemical agent was used in Japan's subway system?

6. What chemical agent was used on the Kurd's during the Iraq and Iran war?

7. Who must approve the initial use of chemical weapons against an attacking nation?

8. What type of agent will the United States not use regardless of source or manner of production?

9. What allows Navy Units to survive CBR attacks and continue to fight and defend their ship or unit?

10. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?

11. What is the primary purpose of biological and chemical attacks?

12. What are CBR weapons called because they destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of the

13. What type of agent can kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, eyes, skin, lungs or stomach?

14. What types of weapons produce explosions of great force and heat and release radiation?

15. What is the most probable method of delivery for chemical agents?

17. Name the two types of antipersonnel agents?

18. Name the two types of nerve agents?

19. What is the agent name for the blister agent?

20. What type of agent includes microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins to cause diseases that will kill

21. What is the agent name for the blood agent?

22. What types of agents are antipersonnel agents?

23. What are the two ways that casualty agents can be?

24. Name the four types of chemical agents that casualty agents are classified as?

25. What type of an effect does some casualty agents have?

26. What type of antipersonnel agent temporarily disables personnel but do not create permanent injury?

27. What type of chemical agent is the incapacitating agent classified as?

28. What are the two principal concerns of yours when dealing with the effects of CW agents?

29. What type of antipersonnel agent can cause death or severely incapacitate personnel for long periods of time?

30. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?

31. What does nerve agent-poisoning affects?

32. What type of symptom consists of excessive sudden drooling when exposed nerve agents?

33. What type symptoms are similar to the symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?

34. What type of symptom consists of wheezing when exposed nerve agents?

35. What does rapid actions of nerve agents’ calls for?

36. What type of symptom causes difficulty in seeing or (moisis) when exposed nerve agents?

37. Name the two antidotes that are used nerve agents?

38. What type of symptom consists of red eyes with tearing when exposed nerve agents?

39. What are the two affects that Atropine takes once administered?

40. What affect does Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CI) take once administered?

41. What type of symptom consists of localized muscular twitching when exposed nerve agents?

42. Name the four the parts of the body that blister agents act on?

43. What part of the body are both antidotes self-injected into?

44. What are the types of mustard agents that blister agents includes?

45. What are the four factors that the degree of damage depends on after being exposed to blister agents?

46. Name the two groups that riot control agents can be classified as?

47. What type of symptom consists of tightness in the chest when exposed nerve agents?

48. What riot control agent consists of the symptom diarrhea?

49. What areas of the body are burns form blister agents most severe?

50. How long from exposure to blister agents does redness of the skin follows?

51. What riot control agent consists of the symptom coughing?

52. What type of symptom consists of vomiting when exposed nerve agents?

53. What medical condition frequently develops after severe exposure of mustard vapors?

54. What chemical agent inhibits the action of an enzyme responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to

55. What type of symptom causes difficulty in breathing when exposed nerve agents?

56. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the skin?

57. What is the usual route of entry for blood agents?

58. What are the two factors that the symptoms produced by blood agents depend on?

59. What type of symptom consists of general weakness when exposed nerve agents?

60. What are the three advanced symptoms blood agents?

61. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?

62. What riot control agent consists of the symptom runny nose?

63. What type of symptom consists of difficult or labored respiration or cough when exposed nerve agents?

64. What is essential when exposed to blood agents?

65. What chemical agent produce an action on the respiratory system that results in the accumulation of fluid in

66. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the throat?

67. How fast does blood agents act?

68. What riot control agent consists of the symptom tightness and pain in the chest?

69. What are the two factors that can cause death when exposed to choking agents?

70. What are the symptoms that indicate the presence of fluid in the lungs?

71. What is important to begin after exposure to a high dose of a choking agent to prevent accumulation of fluid in

72. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irrigation of the eyes?

73. What are the two effects that riot control agents are characterized by?

74. What are riot control agents used for?

75. Name the two areas of the eyes that tear agents act rapidly on?

76. What are the two first aid procedures taken for personnel exposed to tear agents?

77. What riot control agent consists of the symptom uncontrollable winkling?

78. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irritation of the mucous membranes of the mouth?

79. What can be given to relieve headache and general discomfort after being exposed to riot control agents?

80. Cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent? (True or False)

81. What type of warfare might be used on a large scale?

82. What are the two protective measures being developed to be used to fight biological warfare?

83. What type of detection equipment is military forces using for biological warfare?

84. How many time are toxins and microtoxins are stronger than today’s chemical weapons?

85. What is the disadvantage of many biological weapons?

86. Name the five environmental conditions that biological weapons are rapidly degraded by?

87. What riot control agent can personnel usually perform duties despite their effects?

88. What can infect large numbers of people by contaminating a water supply?

89. Name the four types of diseases that can be spread through infected water or food supply?

90. What is the causative agent for anthrax?

91. How many days will death occur after being exposed to anthrax if left untreated?

92. Name the three types of carriers that can be used to spread biological weapon agents?

93. What is the fatal rate of pulmonary anthrax?

94. What riot control agent causes local inflammation of the respiratory tract, sinuses, and eyes?

95. What is the time of effect for anthrax?

96. What are the four physiological effects of anthrax?

97. What is the causative agent for plague?

98. What is the time of effect for plague?

99. What type of disease causes pneumonia?

100. What percent of fatality does untreated plague pneumonia approaches?

101. What percent can treated plague pneumonia reduces mortality to?

102. What is the causative agent for tularemia?

103. What percent of untreated tularemia can result in mortality?

104. What percent can treated tularemia reduces mortality rate?

105. What is the time of effect for tularemia?

106. What type of disease cause respiratory paralysis?

107. What is the causative agent for botulinum toxin?

108. What is the time of effect for botulinum toxin?

109. Name the five physiological effects of plague?

110. Name the four physiological effects of tularemia?

112. What are the three general symptoms of any biological disease in the early stages?

113. What does fevers depend on within each individual?

114. What condition serves as a rough guides to the severity of infection?

115. What often precedes the fever?

116. What condition is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?

117. Name the four symptoms that malaise includes?

118. Name the three symptoms that inflammation includes?

119. What added effect gives nuclear weapons a much more greater destruction capability than conventional high-explosive weapons?

120. What condition is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?

121. How are nuclear explosion classed?

122. Who many types of nuclear weapon explosion classifications are there?

123. Name the four types of nuclear weapon explosions?

124. What type of nuclear explosion is defined as a blast that takes place above 100,000 feet?

125. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout?

126. What type of nuclear explosion is a fireball blast that place below 100,000 feet?

127. What level is the radiation effect from an air blast?

128. What is the front of an air blast called?

129. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?

130. What type of nuclear explosion major aim is to destroy or interrupt satellites and communication system through the effect of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP)?

131. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that does not touch the earth’s surface?

132. What is done to a large amount of surface materials during a surface blast?

133. As the fireball rises, more debris is sucked up? (True or False)

134. What is debris sucked up by, as the fireball rises?

135. What type of nuclear explosion produces most of its damage by the shock waves that accompanies the explosion?

136. What does most of the debris returns to the earth as, from a surface blast?

137. What type of nuclear explosion blast causes an overpressurization that crushes everything in its path?

138. How many types of nuclear radiations are there?

139. Name the two types of nuclear radiations?

140. What type of nuclear radiation occurs within the first minutes after an explosion?

141. What type of nuclear explosion main reason of use is its destructive value in weapon detonation?

142. What type of nuclear radiation is dangerous because of the large amount of surface material drawn into the clouds?

143. What area of a surface blast is much larger than the area affected by heat and shock?

144. A fireball is formed in a subsurface burst? (True False)

145. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?

146. What type of nuclear radiation is of little consequence because the lethal range of its effects is less than that of the blast wave?

147. What type of nuclear explosion creates a large bubble that rises to the surface?

148. Name the three types of elements that a subsurface burst expels into air after it rises to the surface?

149. What type of nuclear radiation occurs thereafter?

150. What type of form is made after water has been thrown upward after rushing into the cavity of a subsurface burst?

151. What type of nuclear explosion would be most effective to use against a battle group at sea?

152. What height may the hollow column reach that’s formed by a subsurface burst?

153. What is formed around the base of the column when the hollow column collapses?

154. What is the circular cloud of mist called that forms around the base of the column?

155. What height will the base surge billows upward to?

156. What type of nuclear explosion is capable of structurally damaging and sinking many ships?

157. How far will the base surge rapidly expand outward?

158. What does the detonation of a nuclear bomb creates?

159. What direction does the blast wave travel in?

160. What is pressure at the wave front called?

161. Blast waves from nuclear bombs travel at a much greater speed than sound? (True or False)

162. What type of nuclear explosion blast is the effective range of blast damage of a surface blast less than because most of the energy is transmitted in the form of a ground or water shock wave?

163. What is formed when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?

164. What is the other wave formed by when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?

165. What type of wave is formed by the primary and reflected wave combined together?

166. What type of pressure causes most of the physical damage from a nuclear blast?

167. What type of burst creates large water waves?

168. Name the three categories that nuclear weapon effects are divided into?

169. What height does some large wave reach that's created by underwater burst?

170. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?

171. How many categories are the effects of nuclear weapons divided into?

173. What type of blast injury results from the direction of the air shock wave on the human body?

174. How many ways can fires originate in a nuclear explosion?

175. What is the first way that a fire can originated in a nuclear explosion?

176. What are the three sources from the second way that a fire can originate in a nuclear explosion?

177. What are the three important factors in determining the spread of fire?

178. Name the two types of nuclear weapon blast that flash burns are likely to occur from?

179. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may second-degree burns be received?

180. What type of blast injury is caused by strong blast winds?

181. What element may produce flash blindness that accompanies a nuclear blast?

182. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the daytime?

183. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the night?

184. What element causes a greater danger to your eyes?

185. Name the two categories that mass fires can be divided into?

186. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may permanent damages to the eyes occur from thermal radiation?

187. What type of blast injury is caused by collapsing buildings?

188. What type of mass fire will many fires merge to form a single column of hot gas that rises from the burning area?

189. What type of blast injury is caused by flinging debris?

190. What type of mass fire is associated with strong, fire-induced, radial winds?

191. What type of mass fire can spread as long as there is fuel?

192. How many elements does nuclear radiation hazards consist of?

193. Name the four elements that nuclear radiation hazards consist of?

195. What type of nuclear radiation is not easily stopped?

196. What type of blast injury is caused by shock waves accompanying an underwater burst at sea?

197. What type of nuclear radiation can present a hazard to personnel if the emitters of these particles come into contact with the skin or get inside the body?

198. What are the two routes that alpha particles must be taken into the body through to be injurious?

199. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that initial radiation contains?

200. What types of burns does beta particles cause?

201. What type of mass fire have moving fire fronts driven by the wing?

202. What type of nuclear radiation is pure energy?

203. What does gamma rays cause atoms to do that touches in the body?

204. What type of nuclear radiation has the greatest penetration power?

205. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that are released when neutrons are captured in the atoms of various elements, which become radioactive?

206. What type of nuclear radiation with enough intensity can cause skin burns?

207. What type of nuclear radiation can penetrate every region of the body?

208. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that residual radiation contains?

209. What the four effects from a nuclear explosion that a ship close to a detonation point may sustain considerable material damage?

210. What type of mass fire can develop from a single ignition?

211. What zone is located around ground zero?

212. What zone is located outside of ground zero?

213. What alters or inhibits radar or radio waves and affects all frequency bands?

214. What are the three impacts of water waves?

215. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?

216. Underwater shock travels much faster than an air blast? (True or False)

217. What type of nuclear radiation will pass right through the body without touching it?

218. What are the two primarily areas of the ship will damage be inflicted on from an air blast?

219. What are the four possible effects from an underwater shock?

220. What type of effect from an underwater nuclear burst seldom is the primary source of ship damage?

221. What is the interference of radio transmission through ion fields formed in a detonation?

222. What does the acronym EMP means?

223. What are the four protective measures that can be taken to protect or harden equipment against damage by EMP?

224. What does the acronym TREE means?

225. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation?

226. What are the effects of blueouts?

227. What are the four procedures that can be used to counteract the effects of black?

228. What zone will ships receive severe, moderate or light topside damage as well as operational and equipment damage?

229. Name the three members of the survey team or monitoring party?

231. What is caused by an atmosphere nuclear explosion?

232. What are the two important factors that ships or station must take to retain its offense power and carry out its mission against radiation, biological, and chemical agents?

233. What make radiation, biological, and chemical agents difficult to detect and identify them?

234. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for determining intensities of contamination?

235. What is caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?

236. What member of the survey team or monitoring party maintains a record of intensity readings?

237. What team goes through the ship to determine the extent and location of any contamination after a CW, BW, or nuclear attack?

238. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for the safety of the team?

239. How many members does the survey team or monitoring party contain at the minimum?

240. What occurs in the electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?

241. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for locations of contamination?

242. What member of the survey team or monitoring party may act as a marker?

243. How are all accessible areas and equipment surveyed by the detailed method?

244. What member of the survey team or monitoring party carriers high-range and low-range survey meters?

245. How many types of surveys are there?

246. What member of the survey team or monitoring party reports to DCC the contaminated areas and the readings obtained by the monitor?

247. What type of survey is also known as the gross survey?

249. What type of survey is used to determine the effectiveness of decontamination measures?

250. What type of wound should not be exposed to a contaminated area?

251. What type of survey is a preliminary reconnaissance?

252. What are the three things that are prohibited in contaminated areas?

253. What type of system is used to mark areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents?

254. What type of survey are limited numbers of readings taken in a minimum amount of time?

255. What shape are markers?

256. What is each type of contamination readily identified by?

257. What part of the marker indicates the safe limits of the contaminated area?

258. What type of survey is used to obtain a quick estimate of radiation levels at specified locations to determine the possibility of keeping stations manned?

259. What are the two types of measurements that are made?

260. Name the three labels that are assigned to each colors of the marker?

261. What part of the marker contains information about the contaminated area?

262. What are the three pieces of information that the marker contains about the contaminated area?

263. What is made to determine the degree of contamination when a ship is exposed to radiation?

264. What type of measurement involves the intensity of the radiation field?

266. What is the length of time a person may remain in an area without exceeding permissible radiation exposure levels called?

267. What is the total dose expressed in?

268. What does the radiac stand for?

269. What type of measurement involves the total amount received?

270. Described the appearance of the chemical markers?

271. Described the appearance of the biological markers?

272. Described the appearance of the radiological sign?

273. What are the four ranges that the self-reading pocket dosimeter comes in?

274. Name the two types of personnel dosimeters used for the detection of nuclear radiation?

275. What is the shape of the self-reading pocket dosimeter?

276. What type of personnel dosimeter is a high-range casualty dosimeter?

277. What is the range of the nonself-reading pocket dosimeter?

278. What are the two known phases used to detect BW contaminants?

279. Who conducts the sampling phase?

280. Who conducts the laboratory stage?

281. What are the two types of special detection equipment used to detect CW agents?

282. What type of equipment is used to detect the presence of phosgene gas?

283. What are the two other types of detection equipment used to detect CW agents?

284. What are the three purposes of the M256A1 vapor sample detector kit?

285. What should you do as soon as the initial effects of the explosion are over?

286. What should you do if you do not have a protective mask to put on at the time of the explosion?

287. What are the two materials that can be used to cover your nose and mouth?

288. What are the two types of actions that should be taken as protective measures?

289. Name the two types of clothing used in CBR defense?

290. What type of protective mask is used for BW and CW attacks?

291. What type of protective action is an immediate concern?

292. What is the most important piece of protective equipment used against CBR agents?

293. What are the two functions that the protective mask (MCU-2/P) serves?

294. What are the five types of gases that the protective mask doesn’t provide protection against?

295. How fast should you be able to don and adjust your protective mask?

296. What are the three types of elements that the MCU-2/P provides protection against?

297. What item does the MCU-2/P accommodates?

298. What type of rubber is the MCU-2/P facepiece made of?

299. What are the three features of the MCU-2/P?

300. How many voice emitters does the MCU-2/P has?

301. What are the two pieces of clothing that the chemical-protective overgarment consists of?

303. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when unopened?

304. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when opened?

305. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective overgarment provides?

306. What type of material are the overboots made of?

307. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective footwear covers provide?

308. What type protective clothing is described as impermeable or rubberized clothing?

309. What is the safest place to be during a nuclear attack?

310. What is a means of establishing levels of readiness?

311. What does the acronym MOPP means?

312. How many levels of MOPP are there?

313. What level of MOPP may readiness condition I be relaxed?

314. What are the two options that the MOPP gives the CO?

315. What level of MOPP are individual protective equipment and medical supply items issued to shipboard personnel?

316. What level of MOPP are new filter canisters installed on protective masks?

317. What levels of MOPP provides the most protection?

318. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves and medical supply items stowed in the overgarment coat pocket?

319. What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents?

320. What level of MOPP are protective masks fitted for immediate use?

321. What level of MOPP are detection and monitoring teams posted?

322. What level of MOPP are decontamination supplies preposition in decon stations and at repair lockers?

323. What level of MOPP is wet-weather gear provided for donning over protective clothing and equipment?

324. What levels of MOPP provides the least protection?

325. What level of MOPP consists of donning protective mask and securing the hood over the head?

326. What level of MOPP is the material condition zebra set?

327. What is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?

328. What level of MOPP is the protective mask worn on the person in a carrier?

329. What level of MOPP are overgarment trousers and coat donned with hood down?

330. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves donned?

331. What level of MOPP are chemical/biological defense equipment and supplies inventoried?

332. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective overboots donned?

333. What level of MOPP are continuous monitoring and operation of detection equipment initiated?

334. What level of MOPP are canteens filled with water?

335. What level of MOPP is the material condition yoke set?

336. What level of MOPP will you go to GQ?

337. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system continuously activated?

338. What level of MOPP is the material condition modify zebra set?

339. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 1?

340. What level of MOPP is personal decontamination kit stowed in mask carrier?

341. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 3 at the CO’s discretion?

342. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system intermittently activated?

343. What level of MOPP are stowed detection and monitoring equipment, supplies, and empty canteens preposition?

344. What level of MOPP are decontamination stations activated?

345. What level of MOPP is the material condition circle william set?

346. What are the three factors that the setting of MOPP levels depends on from various locations around the ship?

347. How many levels of decontamination are there?

348. Name the four levels of decontamination?

349. What level of decontamination is at sea?

350. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 1?

351. What level of decontamination is also known as full decontamination?

352. Name the four types of protective gear that level I safeguard you in?

353. What level of decontamination is a degree of decontamination where appropriate chemical tests fail to give positive response for a residual agent?

354. What kit gives you the ability to decontaminate skin surfaces?

355. What level of decontamination is necessary to let you, do your job with a minimum risk of contact of chemical agent contamination?

356. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 2?

357. What level of decontamination is performed so that the contamination of personal is reduced to a level that results in a significant operational benefit?

358. What are the three elements that the decontamination stations provide?

359. What level of decontamination is necessary to save your life?

360. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 3?

361. What level of decontamination is the lowest level possible?

362. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 4?

363. What level of decontamination is to destroy, neutralize, or remove persistent chemical agents?

364. How many types of contamination hazards are there?

365. What level of decontamination should be conducted when there is a reasonable chance that work can be performed without masks or gloves for limited periods?

366. What is the purpose of decontamination?

367. What level of decontamination is your responsibility?

368. How can radiological contamination be removed from the ship?

369. What level of decontamination can the ship’s mission be completed without undue hazards to personnel?

370. Name the two types of contamination hazards?

371. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?

372. What type of contamination hazard consists of a surface being touched by an individual, contaminating himself?

373. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?

374. How are chemical warfare agents treated or removed?

375. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?

376. How are biological warfare agents treated?

377. What type of service does a ship require for a complete decontamination?

378. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?

379. What are the two washdown methods used to remove radioactive particles?

380. What type of equipment supplies the water mechanical washdown?

381. What type of agent is the washdown system actually a preventive measure against?

382. What washdown method sprays water over all weather surfaces?

383. How must heavy contamination be washed away?

384. What type of contamination hazard consists of a chemical agent being picked up, transferred, and then deposited on an uncontaminated area?

385. What level of decontamination is by ship’s personnel?

386. What washdown method consists of hosing and scrubbing down the ship?

387. What team hose and scrub down the ship to remove contamination?

388. What washdown method consists of a system of piping and nozzles?

389. How many members does the decontamination team consist of?

390. Name the six members of the decontamination team?

391. Who’s in charged of the decontamination team?

392. What washdown method is called the ship’s water washdown system?

393. How should the hosemen wash down the hotspots with the fire hoses?

394. Where should the hosemen begin washing down the hotspots?

395. What hosing method is used to hose down the contaminated areas?

396. What term means eliminating the sources of infection?

397. What is the most effective way to decontaminate BW agents?

398. What are the three factors that the type of disinfectant used depends on?

399. What are the three alternatives for decontaminating BW agents?

400. What is an example of dry heat decontamination?

401. What degrees should the hot air oven be set to?

402. What is also an effective way to reduce BW contamination?

403. What is an example of moist heat decontamination?

404. What type of rays from the sunlight kills most BW agents?

405. What is the simplest means in CW contamination?

406. What is a decontaminant for CW contamination?

407. How many parts are decon stations divided into?

408. Name the three parts that decon stations divided into?

410. What area of the decon station is undressing done in?

411. How many minutes should you spend soaping, scrubbing, and rinsing?

412. What should you do after you rinse, soap, and scrub?

413. What is used to decontaminate the skin and equipment?

414. How many sealed foil packets the M291 Decontamination Kit contains?

415. How many complete skin applications should you get from a M291 Decontamination Kit?

416. What are the two antidotes used to counteract the effects of nerve agents?

417. How many atropine autoinjectors will each member be issued?

418. How many oxime autoinjectors will each member be issued?

419. How many minutes should you wait before you administer another autoinjector of atropine?

420. How many levels of protection are there?

421. What system protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR?

422. What level of protection consists of the shelter envelope?

423. How many zones is the CBS divided into?

424. Name the two zones of the CBS?

425. What level of protection is the maximum operational protection envelope?

426. What are the three factors that determine the protection level of a ship?

427. What level of protection is the minimum operational protection envelope?

428. What zone of the CBS provides a pressurized, toxic-free environment?

429. What level of protection provides protection for messing, berthing, sanitary, and BDF?

430. What zone of the CBS is not pressurized nor provides protection against chemical agents?

431. What level of protection provides sufficient protection of the ship for mission requirements?

432. What percent of protection does level I provides for the crew?

433. What level of protection provides protection for key operational functions?