-
1. What is defined as defensive measures taken against the effects of a chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons
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2. What type of chemical was used in WWI, which forced the development of the gas mask?
Ans: Chlorine Gas
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3. What type of weapon was used for the first time in WWII?
Ans: Nuclear
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4. Name the two types of agents that nations have began developing as a warfare tool?
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5. What chemical agent was used in Japan's subway system?
Ans: Nerve
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6. What chemical agent was used on the Kurd's during the Iraq and Iran war?
Ans: Blister
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7. Who must approve the initial use of chemical weapons against an attacking nation?
Ans: President
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8. What type of agent will the United States not use regardless of source or manner of production?
Ans: Biological
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9. What allows Navy Units to survive CBR attacks and continue to fight and defend their ship or unit?
Ans: CBR-D Training
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10. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
Ans: The mass destruction of targets and personnel
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11. What is the primary purpose of biological and chemical attacks?
Ans: The mass casualties of personnel, livestock, and crops
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12. What are CBR weapons called because they destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of the
- population?
- Ans: Weapons of Mass Destruction
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13. What type of agent can kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, eyes, skin, lungs or stomach?
Ans: Chemical Agents
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14. What types of weapons produce explosions of great force and heat and release radiation?
Ans: Nuclear
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15. What is the most probable method of delivery for chemical agents?
- Ans: Aerosol
- DT1 (SW/AW) ALLEN
- 16. How many types of antipersonnel agents are there?
- Ans: 2
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17. Name the two types of antipersonnel agents?
- Ans: Casualty
- Incapacitating
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18. Name the two types of nerve agents?
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19. What is the agent name for the blister agent?
Ans: Mustard
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20. What type of agent includes microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins to cause diseases that will kill
- or produce other casualties?
- Ans: Biological Agents
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21. What is the agent name for the blood agent?
Ans: Hydrogen Cyanide
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22. What types of agents are antipersonnel agents?
Ans: Chemical Agents
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23. What are the two ways that casualty agents can be?
- Ans: Persistent
- Nonpersistent
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24. Name the four types of chemical agents that casualty agents are classified as?
- Ans: Blood
- Choking
- Nerve
- Blister
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25. What type of an effect does some casualty agents have?
Ans: Cumulative Effect
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26. What type of antipersonnel agent temporarily disables personnel but do not create permanent injury?
Ans: Incapacitating
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27. What type of chemical agent is the incapacitating agent classified as?
Ans: Riot Control
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28. What are the two principal concerns of yours when dealing with the effects of CW agents?
- Ans: Recognizing the symptoms
- Relieving the effects of exposure
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29. What type of antipersonnel agent can cause death or severely incapacitate personnel for long periods of time?
Ans: Casualty Agents
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30. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?
- Ans: Mild Symptoms
- Severe Symptoms
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31. What does nerve agent-poisoning affects?
Ans: Body Functions
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32. What type of symptom consists of excessive sudden drooling when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Mild
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33. What type symptoms are similar to the symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
Ans: Heat Stress Symptoms
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34. What type of symptom consists of wheezing when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Severe
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35. What does rapid actions of nerve agents’ calls for?
Ans: Immediate administration of nerve agent antidotes
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36. What type of symptom causes difficulty in seeing or (moisis) when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Mild
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37. Name the two antidotes that are used nerve agents?
- Ans: Atropine
- Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CI)
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38. What type of symptom consists of red eyes with tearing when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Severe
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39. What are the two affects that Atropine takes once administered?
- Ans: Dries up secretions in the respiratory tract
- Stimulates the central respiratory functions
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40. What affect does Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CI) take once administered?
Ans: Simultaneously relieves muscle paralysis
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41. What type of symptom consists of localized muscular twitching when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Mild
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42. Name the four the parts of the body that blister agents act on?
- Ans: Eyes
- Mucous Membranes
- Lungs
- Skin
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43. What part of the body are both antidotes self-injected into?
Ans: Lateral Thigh Muscle
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44. What are the types of mustard agents that blister agents includes?
- Ans: Mustard Vapors
- Mustard Liquids
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45. What are the four factors that the degree of damage depends on after being exposed to blister agents?
- Ans: Type and concentration of the agent
- Weather
- The amount of activity of the individual
- Exposure Time
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46. Name the two groups that riot control agents can be classified as?
- Ans: Tear Agents
- Vomiting Agents
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47. What type of symptom consists of tightness in the chest when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Mild
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48. What riot control agent consists of the symptom diarrhea?
Ans: Tear Agents
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49. What areas of the body are burns form blister agents most severe?
Ans: Moist Areas
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50. How long from exposure to blister agents does redness of the skin follows?
Ans: ½ - 36 hours
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51. What riot control agent consists of the symptom coughing?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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52. What type of symptom consists of vomiting when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Severe
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53. What medical condition frequently develops after severe exposure of mustard vapors?
Ans: Pneumonia
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54. What chemical agent inhibits the action of an enzyme responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to
- the cells of the body?
- Ans: Blood Agents
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55. What type of symptom causes difficulty in breathing when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Mild
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56. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the skin?
Ans: Tear Agents
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57. What is the usual route of entry for blood agents?
Ans: Inhalation
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58. What are the two factors that the symptoms produced by blood agents depend on?
- Ans: Concentration of the agent
- Exposure Time
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59. What type of symptom consists of general weakness when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Severe
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60. What are the three advanced symptoms blood agents?
- Ans: Convulsions
- Coma
- Death
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61. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?
- Ans: Initial Symptoms
- Advanced Symptoms
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62. What riot control agent consists of the symptom runny nose?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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63. What type of symptom consists of difficult or labored respiration or cough when exposed nerve agents?
Ans: Severe
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64. What is essential when exposed to blood agents?
Ans: Donning your protective mask
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65. What chemical agent produce an action on the respiratory system that results in the accumulation of fluid in
- the lungs?
- Ans: Choking Agents
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66. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the throat?
Ans: Tear Agents
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67. How fast does blood agents act?
Ans: Within Seconds
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68. What riot control agent consists of the symptom tightness and pain in the chest?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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69. What are the two factors that can cause death when exposed to choking agents?
- Ans: Accumulation of fluid in the lungs
- High Concentrations
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70. What are the symptoms that indicate the presence of fluid in the lungs?
- Ans: Shallow and Rapid breathing
- Hacking and painful cough
- Frothy Saliva
- Ashen gray color of the skin
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71. What is important to begin after exposure to a high dose of a choking agent to prevent accumulation of fluid in
- the lungs?
- Ans: Medical Treatment
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72. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irrigation of the eyes?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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73. What are the two effects that riot control agents are characterized by?
- Ans: Very Low Toxicity
- Brief Action
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74. What are riot control agents used for?
Ans: Produce temporary misery and harassment
-
75. Name the two areas of the eyes that tear agents act rapidly on?
- Ans: Nerve ends in the cornea
- Mucous membranes
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76. What are the two first aid procedures taken for personnel exposed to tear agents?
- Ans: Providing a supply of fresh air
- Changing exposed clothing
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77. What riot control agent consists of the symptom uncontrollable winkling?
Ans: Tear Agents
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78. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irritation of the mucous membranes of the mouth?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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79. What can be given to relieve headache and general discomfort after being exposed to riot control agents?
Ans: Analgesics
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80. Cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent? (True or False)
Ans: True
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81. What type of warfare might be used on a large scale?
Ans: Biological Warfare
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82. What are the two protective measures being developed to be used to fight biological warfare?
- Ans: Biological Immunization
- Detection Equipment
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83. What type of detection equipment is military forces using for biological warfare?
Ans: Interim Biological Agent Detection System (IBADS)
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84. How many time are toxins and microtoxins are stronger than today’s chemical weapons?
Ans: Hundreds to Thousands
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85. What is the disadvantage of many biological weapons?
Ans: They are rapidly degraded by environmental conditions
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86. Name the five environmental conditions that biological weapons are rapidly degraded by?
- Ans: Ultraviolet Radiation
- Visible Radiation
- Heat
- Dryness
- Humidity
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87. What riot control agent can personnel usually perform duties despite their effects?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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88. What can infect large numbers of people by contaminating a water supply?
Ans: Saboteurs
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89. Name the four types of diseases that can be spread through infected water or food supply?
- Ans: Anthrax
- Typhoid Fever
- Cholera
- Influenza
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90. What is the causative agent for anthrax?
Ans: Bacillus Anthracis
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91. How many days will death occur after being exposed to anthrax if left untreated?
Ans: Within 5-12
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92. Name the three types of carriers that can be used to spread biological weapon agents?
- Ans: Animals
- Insects
- Rodents
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93. What is the fatal rate of pulmonary anthrax?
Ans: 90%
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94. What riot control agent causes local inflammation of the respiratory tract, sinuses, and eyes?
Ans: Vomiting Agents
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95. What is the time of effect for anthrax?
Ans: 1-5 days
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96. What are the four physiological effects of anthrax?
- Ans: Mild Fever and Fatigue
- Severe Respiratory Disorders
- High Fever
- Rapid Pulse Rate
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97. What is the causative agent for plague?
Ans: Yersinia Pestis
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98. What is the time of effect for plague?
Ans: 2-3 days
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99. What type of disease causes pneumonia?
Ans: Plague
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100. What percent of fatality does untreated plague pneumonia approaches?
Ans: 100%
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101. What percent can treated plague pneumonia reduces mortality to?
Ans: 5%
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102. What is the causative agent for tularemia?
Ans: Francisella Tularensis
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103. What percent of untreated tularemia can result in mortality?
Ans: 30%-60%
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104. What percent can treated tularemia reduces mortality rate?
Ans: 1%
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105. What is the time of effect for tularemia?
Ans: 3-5 days
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106. What type of disease cause respiratory paralysis?
Ans: Botulinum Toxin
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107. What is the causative agent for botulinum toxin?
Ans: Clostridium Botulinum
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108. What is the time of effect for botulinum toxin?
Ans: 2 - 26 days
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109. Name the five physiological effects of plague?
- Ans: Fever
- Headache
- Rapid Heart Rate
- Hemorrhaging the skin
- Hemorrhaging the mucous membranes
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110. Name the four physiological effects of tularemia?
- Ans: Fever
- Chills
- Headaches
- Muscular Pain
- 111. Name the physiological effects of botulinum toxin ?
- Ans: Extreme Weakness
- Nausea
- Headaches
- Intestinal Pain
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112. What are the three general symptoms of any biological disease in the early stages?
- Ans: Fever
- Malaise
- Inflammation
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113. What does fevers depend on within each individual?
Ans: The person’s resistance
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114. What condition serves as a rough guides to the severity of infection?
Ans: Fever
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115. What often precedes the fever?
Ans: A violent chill
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116. What condition is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?
Ans: Malaise
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117. Name the four symptoms that malaise includes?
- Ans: Nausea
- Dizziness
- Loss of appetite
- General aches and pains
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118. Name the three symptoms that inflammation includes?
- Ans: Pain
- Redness
- Swelling
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119. What added effect gives nuclear weapons a much more greater destruction capability than conventional high-explosive weapons?
Ans: Nuclear Radiation
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120. What condition is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?
Ans: Inflammation
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121. How are nuclear explosion classed?
Ans: According to the point of detonation with relationship to the surface of the earth
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122. Who many types of nuclear weapon explosion classifications are there?
Ans: 4
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123. Name the four types of nuclear weapon explosions?
- Ans: High Altitude Blast
- Air Blast
- Surface Blast
- Subsurface Burst
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124. What type of nuclear explosion is defined as a blast that takes place above 100,000 feet?
Ans: High Altitude Blast
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125. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout?
Ans: Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP)
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126. What type of nuclear explosion is a fireball blast that place below 100,000 feet?
Ans: Air Blast
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127. What level is the radiation effect from an air blast?
Ans: Minimal
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128. What is the front of an air blast called?
Ans: Mock Front
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129. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?
Ans: Surface Blast
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130. What type of nuclear explosion major aim is to destroy or interrupt satellites and communication system through the effect of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP)?
Ans: High Altitude Blast
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131. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that does not touch the earth’s surface?
Ans: Air Blast
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132. What is done to a large amount of surface materials during a surface blast?
Ans: Vaporized and taken into the fireball
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133. As the fireball rises, more debris is sucked up? (True or False)
Ans: True
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134. What is debris sucked up by, as the fireball rises?
Ans: Strong after winds
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135. What type of nuclear explosion produces most of its damage by the shock waves that accompanies the explosion?
Ans: Surface Blast
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136. What does most of the debris returns to the earth as, from a surface blast?
Ans: Radioactive Fallout
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137. What type of nuclear explosion blast causes an overpressurization that crushes everything in its path?
Ans: Air Blast
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138. How many types of nuclear radiations are there?
Ans: 2
-
139. Name the two types of nuclear radiations?
-
140. What type of nuclear radiation occurs within the first minutes after an explosion?
Ans: Initial
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141. What type of nuclear explosion main reason of use is its destructive value in weapon detonation?
Ans: Air Blast
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142. What type of nuclear radiation is dangerous because of the large amount of surface material drawn into the clouds?
Ans: Residual
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143. What area of a surface blast is much larger than the area affected by heat and shock?
Ans: Fallout Area
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144. A fireball is formed in a subsurface burst? (True False)
Ans: True
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145. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?
Ans: Surface Blast
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146. What type of nuclear radiation is of little consequence because the lethal range of its effects is less than that of the blast wave?
Ans: Initial
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147. What type of nuclear explosion creates a large bubble that rises to the surface?
Ans: Subsurface Burst
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148. Name the three types of elements that a subsurface burst expels into air after it rises to the surface?
-
149. What type of nuclear radiation occurs thereafter?
Ans: Residual
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150. What type of form is made after water has been thrown upward after rushing into the cavity of a subsurface burst?
Ans: Hollow Column
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151. What type of nuclear explosion would be most effective to use against a battle group at sea?
Ans: Air Blast
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152. What height may the hollow column reach that’s formed by a subsurface burst?
Ans: Several Thousand Feet
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153. What is formed around the base of the column when the hollow column collapses?
Ans: Circular Cloud of Mist
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154. What is the circular cloud of mist called that forms around the base of the column?
Ans: Base Surge
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155. What height will the base surge billows upward to?
Ans: Several Hundred Feet
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156. What type of nuclear explosion is capable of structurally damaging and sinking many ships?
Ans: Air Blast
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157. How far will the base surge rapidly expand outward?
Ans: Several Thousand Yards
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158. What does the detonation of a nuclear bomb creates?
Ans: Blast Wave
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159. What direction does the blast wave travel in?
Ans: Outward
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160. What is pressure at the wave front called?
Ans: Overpressure
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161. Blast waves from nuclear bombs travel at a much greater speed than sound? (True or False)
Ans: True
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162. What type of nuclear explosion blast is the effective range of blast damage of a surface blast less than because most of the energy is transmitted in the form of a ground or water shock wave?
Ans: Air Blast
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163. What is formed when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?
Ans: Another Wave
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164. What is the other wave formed by when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?
Ans: Reflection
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165. What type of wave is formed by the primary and reflected wave combined together?
Ans: Reinforced Blast Wave
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166. What type of pressure causes most of the physical damage from a nuclear blast?
Ans: Overpressure
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167. What type of burst creates large water waves?
Ans: Underwater Bursts
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168. Name the three categories that nuclear weapon effects are divided into?
- Ans: Blast waves or shock waves
- Incendiary
- Radiation
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169. What height does some large wave reach that's created by underwater burst?
Ans: 90 feet
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170. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
Ans: The mass destruction of property and personnel
-
171. How many categories are the effects of nuclear weapons divided into?
Ans: 3
- 172. Name the two types of blast injuries that can be caused by blast waves?
- Ans: Primary (Direct)
- Secondary (Indirect)
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173. What type of blast injury results from the direction of the air shock wave on the human body?
Ans: Primary Blast Injury
-
174. How many ways can fires originate in a nuclear explosion?
Ans: 2
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175. What is the first way that a fire can originated in a nuclear explosion?
Ans: Kindling fuels that can be ignited as a direct result of thermal radiation
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176. What are the three sources from the second way that a fire can originate in a nuclear explosion?
- Ans: Electrical Short Circuits
- Broken Gas Line
- Other interrupted heat source
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177. What are the three important factors in determining the spread of fire?
- Ans: Interaction of the blast wave
- Fire
- Extent of blast damage
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178. Name the two types of nuclear weapon blast that flash burns are likely to occur from?
- Ans: Air Blast
- Surface Blast
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179. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may second-degree burns be received?
Ans: 25 or more
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180. What type of blast injury is caused by strong blast winds?
Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
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181. What element may produce flash blindness that accompanies a nuclear blast?
Ans: Intense Flash of Light
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182. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the daytime?
Ans: 15
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183. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the night?
Ans: 45
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184. What element causes a greater danger to your eyes?
Ans: Thermal Radiation
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185. Name the two categories that mass fires can be divided into?
- Ans: Firestorms
- Conflagrations
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186. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may permanent damages to the eyes occur from thermal radiation?
Ans: 40 or more
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187. What type of blast injury is caused by collapsing buildings?
Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
-
188. What type of mass fire will many fires merge to form a single column of hot gas that rises from the burning area?
Ans: Firestorms
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189. What type of blast injury is caused by flinging debris?
Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
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190. What type of mass fire is associated with strong, fire-induced, radial winds?
Ans: Firestorms
-
191. What type of mass fire can spread as long as there is fuel?
Ans: Conflagrations
-
192. How many elements does nuclear radiation hazards consist of?
Ans: 4
-
193. Name the four elements that nuclear radiation hazards consist of?
- Ans: Alpha Particles
- Beta Particles
- Gamma Rays
- Neutrons
- 194. What type of nuclear radiation has little skin-penetrating power?
- Ans: Alpha Particles
-
195. What type of nuclear radiation is not easily stopped?
Ans: Gamma Rays
-
196. What type of blast injury is caused by shock waves accompanying an underwater burst at sea?
Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
-
197. What type of nuclear radiation can present a hazard to personnel if the emitters of these particles come into contact with the skin or get inside the body?
Ans: Beta Particles
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198. What are the two routes that alpha particles must be taken into the body through to be injurious?
-
199. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that initial radiation contains?
-
200. What types of burns does beta particles cause?
Ans: Radiation Burns
-
201. What type of mass fire have moving fire fronts driven by the wing?
Ans: Conflagrations
-
202. What type of nuclear radiation is pure energy?
Ans: Gamma Rays
-
203. What does gamma rays cause atoms to do that touches in the body?
Ans: Ionize
-
204. What type of nuclear radiation has the greatest penetration power?
Ans: Neutrons
-
205. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that are released when neutrons are captured in the atoms of various elements, which become radioactive?
- Ans: Beta Particles
- Gamma Rays
-
206. What type of nuclear radiation with enough intensity can cause skin burns?
Ans: Beta Particles
-
207. What type of nuclear radiation can penetrate every region of the body?
Ans: Gamma Rays
-
208. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that residual radiation contains?
- Ans: Gamma Rays
- Beta Particles
-
209. What the four effects from a nuclear explosion that a ship close to a detonation point may sustain considerable material damage?
- Ans: Air Blast
- Underwater Shock
- Water Waves
- Thermal Radiation
-
210. What type of mass fire can develop from a single ignition?
Ans: Conflagrations
-
211. What zone is located around ground zero?
Ans: Kill Zone
-
212. What zone is located outside of ground zero?
Ans: Damage-Survival Zone
-
213. What alters or inhibits radar or radio waves and affects all frequency bands?
Ans: Blackout
-
214. What are the three impacts of water waves?
- Ans: Distortion of the superstructure
- Carry away deck gear
- Flood through damaged weather doors
-
215. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?
Ans: Underwater Shock
-
216. Underwater shock travels much faster than an air blast? (True or False)
Ans: True
-
217. What type of nuclear radiation will pass right through the body without touching it?
Ans: Gamma Rays
-
218. What are the two primarily areas of the ship will damage be inflicted on from an air blast?
- Ans: Superstructure
- Hull above the waterline
-
219. What are the four possible effects from an underwater shock?
- Ans: Damage to the Hull
- Heavy Machinery
- Gun Mounts
- Electronics Systems
-
220. What type of effect from an underwater nuclear burst seldom is the primary source of ship damage?
Ans: Water Wave
-
221. What is the interference of radio transmission through ion fields formed in a detonation?
Ans: Blackout
-
222. What does the acronym EMP means?
Ans: Electromagnetic Pulse
-
223. What are the four protective measures that can be taken to protect or harden equipment against damage by EMP?
- Ans: Metal Shielding
- Good Grounding
- Use Of Surge Arresters
- Proper Arrangement Of Electric Wiring
-
224. What does the acronym TREE means?
Ans: Transient Radiation Effects on Electronics
-
225. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation?
Ans: Blueout
-
226. What are the effects of blueouts?
Ans: Temporary
-
227. What are the four procedures that can be used to counteract the effects of black?
- Ans: Providing alternate paths for communications
- Shifting radio operating frequencies
- Changing transmission modes
- Waiting for blackout effects to diminish
-
228. What zone will ships receive severe, moderate or light topside damage as well as operational and equipment damage?
Ans: Damage-Survival Zone
-
229. Name the three members of the survey team or monitoring party?
- Ans: Monitor
- Recorder
- Messenger
- 230. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is in charged?
- Ans: Monitor
-
231. What is caused by an atmosphere nuclear explosion?
Ans: Blackout
-
232. What are the two important factors that ships or station must take to retain its offense power and carry out its mission against radiation, biological, and chemical agents?
- Ans: Detection
- Identification
-
233. What make radiation, biological, and chemical agents difficult to detect and identify them?
Ans: Their Nature
-
234. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for determining intensities of contamination?
Ans: Monitor
-
235. What is caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?
Ans: Blueout
-
236. What member of the survey team or monitoring party maintains a record of intensity readings?
Ans: Recorder
-
237. What team goes through the ship to determine the extent and location of any contamination after a CW, BW, or nuclear attack?
Ans: Survey Team
-
238. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for the safety of the team?
Ans: Monitor
-
239. How many members does the survey team or monitoring party contain at the minimum?
Ans: 3
-
240. What occurs in the electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?
Ans: Transient Radiation Effects on Electronics
-
241. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for locations of contamination?
Ans: Monitor
-
242. What member of the survey team or monitoring party may act as a marker?
Ans: Recorder
-
243. How are all accessible areas and equipment surveyed by the detailed method?
Ans: In a slow methodical manner
-
244. What member of the survey team or monitoring party carriers high-range and low-range survey meters?
Ans: Monitor
-
245. How many types of surveys are there?
-
246. What member of the survey team or monitoring party reports to DCC the contaminated areas and the readings obtained by the monitor?
Ans: Messenger
-
247. What type of survey is also known as the gross survey?
Ans: Rapid
- 248. What are the four items that each member of the survey team or monitoring party wears?
- Ans: Protective Mask
- Protective Clothing
- Pocket Dosimeter
- High-Range Casualty Dosimeter
-
249. What type of survey is used to determine the effectiveness of decontamination measures?
Ans: Detailed
-
250. What type of wound should not be exposed to a contaminated area?
Ans: Open Cuts
-
251. What type of survey is a preliminary reconnaissance?
Ans: Rapid
-
252. What are the three things that are prohibited in contaminated areas?
- Ans: Smoking
- Drinking
- Eating
-
253. What type of system is used to mark areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents?
Ans: Standard System
-
254. What type of survey are limited numbers of readings taken in a minimum amount of time?
Ans: Rapid
-
255. What shape are markers?
Ans: Triangular
-
256. What is each type of contamination readily identified by?
Ans: The color of the marker
-
257. What part of the marker indicates the safe limits of the contaminated area?
Ans: Front
-
258. What type of survey is used to obtain a quick estimate of radiation levels at specified locations to determine the possibility of keeping stations manned?
Ans: Rapid
-
259. What are the two types of measurements that are made?
-
260. Name the three labels that are assigned to each colors of the marker?
-
261. What part of the marker contains information about the contaminated area?
Ans: Front
-
262. What are the three pieces of information that the marker contains about the contaminated area?
- Ans: Date of the detection
- Time of the detection
- Type of agent
-
263. What is made to determine the degree of contamination when a ship is exposed to radiation?
Ans: Survey
-
264. What type of measurement involves the intensity of the radiation field?
Ans: Dose Rate
- 265. What is the time after exposure when an area may be entered safely called?
- Ans: Safe Entry Time
-
266. What is the length of time a person may remain in an area without exceeding permissible radiation exposure levels called?
Ans: Stay Time
-
267. What is the total dose expressed in?
Ans: Rads
-
268. What does the radiac stand for?
Ans: Radioactivity Detection, Indication, and Computation
-
269. What type of measurement involves the total amount received?
Ans: Dose
-
270. Described the appearance of the chemical markers?
Ans: Yellow triangle with red letters (GAS)
-
271. Described the appearance of the biological markers?
Ans: Blue triangle with red letters (BIO)
-
272. Described the appearance of the radiological sign?
Ans: White triangle with black letters (ATOM)
-
273. What are the four ranges that the self-reading pocket dosimeter comes in?
- Ans: 0 to 5 roentgens
- 0 to 200 roentgens
- 0 to 600 roentgens
- 0 to 200 milliroentgens
-
274. Name the two types of personnel dosimeters used for the detection of nuclear radiation?
- Ans: Self-Reading
- Nonself-Reading
-
275. What is the shape of the self-reading pocket dosimeter?
Ans: Fountain Pen
-
276. What type of personnel dosimeter is a high-range casualty dosimeter?
Ans: Nonself-Reading
-
277. What is the range of the nonself-reading pocket dosimeter?
Ans: 0 to 600 roentgens
-
278. What are the two known phases used to detect BW contaminants?
- Ans: Sampling Phase
- Laboratory Stage
-
279. Who conducts the sampling phase?
Ans: CBR survey team
-
280. Who conducts the laboratory stage?
Ans: Medical Personnel
-
281. What are the two types of special detection equipment used to detect CW agents?
- Ans: M256A1 Vapor Sample Detector Kit
- M8 and M9 Liquid Chemical Agent Papers
-
282. What type of equipment is used to detect the presence of phosgene gas?
Ans: Draeger Tubes
-
283. What are the two other types of detection equipment used to detect CW agents?
- Ans: Portable AN/KAS-1A Chemical Warfare Directional Detector
- Permanent Chemical Agent Point Detector System
-
284. What are the three purposes of the M256A1 vapor sample detector kit?
- Ans: To check areas suspected of being contaminated
- To test an area after decontamination operations
- To indicate when masks might be removed
-
285. What should you do as soon as the initial effects of the explosion are over?
Ans: Put on your mask immediately
-
286. What should you do if you do not have a protective mask to put on at the time of the explosion?
Ans: Cover your nose and mouth
-
287. What are the two materials that can be used to cover your nose and mouth?
-
288. What are the two types of actions that should be taken as protective measures?
-
289. Name the two types of clothing used in CBR defense?
- Ans: Wet Weather Clothing
- Ordinary Work Clothing
-
290. What type of protective mask is used for BW and CW attacks?
Ans: MCU-2/P
-
291. What type of protective action is an immediate concern?
Ans: Individual
-
292. What is the most important piece of protective equipment used against CBR agents?
Ans: Protective Mask (MCU-2/P)
-
293. What are the two functions that the protective mask (MCU-2/P) serves?
- Ans: Filters the air
- Purify
-
294. What are the five types of gases that the protective mask doesn’t provide protection against?
- Ans: Smoke
- Toxic Gases
- Carbon Monoxide
- Carbon Dioxide
- Ammonia
-
295. How fast should you be able to don and adjust your protective mask?
Ans: 10 seconds
-
296. What are the three types of elements that the MCU-2/P provides protection against?
- Ans: Chemical Agents
- Biological Agents
- Toxins
- Radiological Fallout
-
297. What item does the MCU-2/P accommodates?
Ans: Tri-Service/NATO Canister
-
298. What type of rubber is the MCU-2/P facepiece made of?
Ans: Silicone
-
299. What are the three features of the MCU-2/P?
- Ans: Voice Emitters
- Drinking Tube
- Flexible Lens
-
300. How many voice emitters does the MCU-2/P has?
Ans: 2
-
301. What are the two pieces of clothing that the chemical-protective overgarment consists of?
- 302. What are the three procedures that can reduce sweating and lengthen tolerance time in the wet-weather clothing?
- Ans: Reduce exercise rate
- Using water-spray cooling
- Reduce exposure to direct sunlight
-
303. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when unopened?
Ans: 5 years
-
304. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when opened?
Ans: 14 days
-
305. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective overgarment provides?
Ans: 6
-
306. What type of material are the overboots made of?
Ans: Loose-Fitting, Impermeable, Butyl Sheet Rubber
-
307. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective footwear covers provide?
Ans: 6
-
308. What type protective clothing is described as impermeable or rubberized clothing?
Ans: Wet-Weather Clothing
-
309. What is the safest place to be during a nuclear attack?
Ans: Below the main deck
-
310. What is a means of establishing levels of readiness?
Ans: MOPP
-
311. What does the acronym MOPP means?
Ans: Mission Oriented Protective Posture
-
312. How many levels of MOPP are there?
Ans: 4
-
313. What level of MOPP may readiness condition I be relaxed?
Ans: 3
-
314. What are the two options that the MOPP gives the CO?
- Ans: No Protection
- Full Protection
-
315. What level of MOPP are individual protective equipment and medical supply items issued to shipboard personnel?
Ans: 1
-
316. What level of MOPP are new filter canisters installed on protective masks?
Ans: 3
-
317. What levels of MOPP provides the most protection?
Ans: 4
-
318. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves and medical supply items stowed in the overgarment coat pocket?
Ans: 3
-
319. What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents?
Ans: MOPP
-
320. What level of MOPP are protective masks fitted for immediate use?
Ans: 1
-
321. What level of MOPP are detection and monitoring teams posted?
Ans: 3
-
322. What level of MOPP are decontamination supplies preposition in decon stations and at repair lockers?
Ans: 2
-
323. What level of MOPP is wet-weather gear provided for donning over protective clothing and equipment?
Ans: 3
-
324. What levels of MOPP provides the least protection?
Ans: 1
-
325. What level of MOPP consists of donning protective mask and securing the hood over the head?
Ans: 4
-
326. What level of MOPP is the material condition zebra set?
Ans: 3
-
327. What is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?
Ans: MOPP
-
328. What level of MOPP is the protective mask worn on the person in a carrier?
Ans: 2
-
329. What level of MOPP are overgarment trousers and coat donned with hood down?
Ans: 3
-
330. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves donned?
Ans: 4
-
331. What level of MOPP are chemical/biological defense equipment and supplies inventoried?
Ans: 1
-
332. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective overboots donned?
Ans: 3
-
333. What level of MOPP are continuous monitoring and operation of detection equipment initiated?
Ans: 4
-
334. What level of MOPP are canteens filled with water?
Ans: 3
-
335. What level of MOPP is the material condition yoke set?
Ans: 1
-
336. What level of MOPP will you go to GQ?
Ans: 3
-
337. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system continuously activated?
Ans: 4
-
338. What level of MOPP is the material condition modify zebra set?
Ans: 2
-
339. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 1?
Ans: III
-
340. What level of MOPP is personal decontamination kit stowed in mask carrier?
Ans: 3
-
341. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 3 at the CO’s discretion?
Ans: II
-
342. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system intermittently activated?
Ans: 3
-
343. What level of MOPP are stowed detection and monitoring equipment, supplies, and empty canteens preposition?
Ans: 2
-
344. What level of MOPP are decontamination stations activated?
Ans: 3
-
345. What level of MOPP is the material condition circle william set?
Ans: 4
-
346. What are the three factors that the setting of MOPP levels depends on from various locations around the ship?
- Ans: Mission
- Work Rate
- Heat Buildup
-
347. How many levels of decontamination are there?
Ans: 4
-
348. Name the four levels of decontamination?
- Ans: Emergency Personnel Decontamination
- Limited Operation Decontamination
- Operationally Complete Decontamination
- Complete Decontamination
-
349. What level of decontamination is at sea?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
350. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 1?
Ans: Emergency Personnel Decontamination
-
351. What level of decontamination is also known as full decontamination?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
352. Name the four types of protective gear that level I safeguard you in?
- Ans: Mask
- Protective Overgarment
- Boots
- Gloves
-
353. What level of decontamination is a degree of decontamination where appropriate chemical tests fail to give positive response for a residual agent?
Ans: Level 4, Complete Decontamination
-
354. What kit gives you the ability to decontaminate skin surfaces?
Ans: Personnel Decontamination Kit M291
-
355. What level of decontamination is necessary to let you, do your job with a minimum risk of contact of chemical agent contamination?
Ans: Level 2, Limited Operation Decontamination
-
356. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 2?
Ans: Limited Operation Decontamination
-
357. What level of decontamination is performed so that the contamination of personal is reduced to a level that results in a significant operational benefit?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
358. What are the three elements that the decontamination stations provide?
- Ans: Soap
- Detergent
- Shower Facilities
-
359. What level of decontamination is necessary to save your life?
Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
-
360. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 3?
Ans: Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
361. What level of decontamination is the lowest level possible?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
362. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 4?
Ans: Complete Decontamination
-
363. What level of decontamination is to destroy, neutralize, or remove persistent chemical agents?
Ans: Level 2, Limited Operation Decontamination
-
364. How many types of contamination hazards are there?
Ans: 2
-
365. What level of decontamination should be conducted when there is a reasonable chance that work can be performed without masks or gloves for limited periods?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
366. What is the purpose of decontamination?
Ans: To remove or reduce CBR contamination so that the ship can carry out its mission
-
367. What level of decontamination is your responsibility?
Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
-
368. How can radiological contamination be removed from the ship?
Ans: Washing it over the side
-
369. What level of decontamination can the ship’s mission be completed without undue hazards to personnel?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
370. Name the two types of contamination hazards?
- Ans: Pickup Hazards
- Transfer Hazards
-
371. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?
Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
-
372. What type of contamination hazard consists of a surface being touched by an individual, contaminating himself?
Ans: Pickup Hazards
-
373. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
374. How are chemical warfare agents treated or removed?
Ans: Neutralized
-
375. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?
Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
-
376. How are biological warfare agents treated?
Ans: Destroyed
-
377. What type of service does a ship require for a complete decontamination?
Ans: Shipyard
-
378. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
379. What are the two washdown methods used to remove radioactive particles?
-
380. What type of equipment supplies the water mechanical washdown?
Ans: Firemain
-
381. What type of agent is the washdown system actually a preventive measure against?
Ans: Fallout
-
382. What washdown method sprays water over all weather surfaces?
Ans: Mechanical
-
383. How must heavy contamination be washed away?
Ans: Hosed down with water under pressure
-
384. What type of contamination hazard consists of a chemical agent being picked up, transferred, and then deposited on an uncontaminated area?
Ans: Transfer Hazards
-
385. What level of decontamination is by ship’s personnel?
Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
-
386. What washdown method consists of hosing and scrubbing down the ship?
Ans: Manual
-
387. What team hose and scrub down the ship to remove contamination?
Ans: Decontamination Team
-
388. What washdown method consists of a system of piping and nozzles?
Ans: Mechanical
-
389. How many members does the decontamination team consist of?
Ans: 6
-
390. Name the six members of the decontamination team?
- Ans: 1 Monitor
- 2 Hosemen
- 3 Other team members
-
391. Who’s in charged of the decontamination team?
Ans: Monitor
-
392. What washdown method is called the ship’s water washdown system?
Ans: Mechanical
-
393. How should the hosemen wash down the hotspots with the fire hoses?
Ans: Moving from the less contaminated area towards the greater contaminated area
-
394. Where should the hosemen begin washing down the hotspots?
Ans: From top to bottom
-
395. What hosing method is used to hose down the contaminated areas?
Ans: Hosing-Scrubbing-Hosing
-
396. What term means eliminating the sources of infection?
Ans: BW Decontamination
-
397. What is the most effective way to decontaminate BW agents?
Ans: Using Chemical Disinfectant
-
398. What are the three factors that the type of disinfectant used depends on?
-
399. What are the three alternatives for decontaminating BW agents?
- Ans: Burning
- Dry Heat
- Moist Heat
-
400. What is an example of dry heat decontamination?
Ans: Hot Air Oven
-
401. What degrees should the hot air oven be set to?
Ans: 180
-
402. What is also an effective way to reduce BW contamination?
Ans: Sunlight
-
403. What is an example of moist heat decontamination?
Ans: Hot Water or Steam
-
404. What type of rays from the sunlight kills most BW agents?
Ans: Ultraviolet rays
-
405. What is the simplest means in CW contamination?
Ans: Weather
-
406. What is a decontaminant for CW contamination?
Ans: Bright Sunlight
-
407. How many parts are decon stations divided into?
Ans: 3
-
408. Name the three parts that decon stations divided into?
- Ans: Contaminated or an Unclean Area
- Washing Area
- Clean Area
- 409. What system filters the air supply and maintains an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants?
- Ans: Collective Protection System (CBS)
-
410. What area of the decon station is undressing done in?
Ans: Unclean Area
-
411. How many minutes should you spend soaping, scrubbing, and rinsing?
Ans: 5
-
412. What should you do after you rinse, soap, and scrub?
Ans: Rinse
-
413. What is used to decontaminate the skin and equipment?
Ans: M291 Decontamination Kit
-
414. How many sealed foil packets the M291 Decontamination Kit contains?
Ans: 6
-
415. How many complete skin applications should you get from a M291 Decontamination Kit?
Ans: 3
-
416. What are the two antidotes used to counteract the effects of nerve agents?
-
417. How many atropine autoinjectors will each member be issued?
Ans: 3
-
418. How many oxime autoinjectors will each member be issued?
Ans: 2
-
419. How many minutes should you wait before you administer another autoinjector of atropine?
Ans: 10 - 15
-
420. How many levels of protection are there?
Ans: 3
-
421. What system protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR?
Ans: Collective Protection System (CBS)
-
422. What level of protection consists of the shelter envelope?
Ans: Level I
-
423. How many zones is the CBS divided into?
Ans: 2
-
424. Name the two zones of the CBS?
- Ans: Total Protection Zone
- Limited Protection Zone
-
425. What level of protection is the maximum operational protection envelope?
Ans: Level III
-
426. What are the three factors that determine the protection level of a ship?
- Ans: Its Mission
- Operational Requirements
- Overall cost of installation
-
427. What level of protection is the minimum operational protection envelope?
Ans: Level II
-
428. What zone of the CBS provides a pressurized, toxic-free environment?
Ans: Total Protection Zone
-
429. What level of protection provides protection for messing, berthing, sanitary, and BDF?
Ans: Level I
-
430. What zone of the CBS is not pressurized nor provides protection against chemical agents?
Ans: Limited Protection Zone
-
431. What level of protection provides sufficient protection of the ship for mission requirements?
Ans: Level III
-
432. What percent of protection does level I provides for the crew?
Ans: 40%
-
433. What level of protection provides protection for key operational functions?
Ans: Level II
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