1. Which of the following numbers is a supply Project code?

  2. Your squadron is categorized as a FAD II activity and you require a mission essential part. What is the highest priority that can be assigned to your request?
  3. When a FAD III is assigned to your activity, what is the highest priority you should use to order routine replenishment stock?
  4. Information from which of the following sources is used by supply department personnel as justification for stocking material?
    Usage statistics
  5. Which of the following numbers is listed first in an alphanumeric parts listing?
  6. Which of the following part numbers follows sequence number 08643759 in an alpha numeric listing?
  7. What type of code identifies the agent or agency that has design control over an item?
  8. Which of the following is a purpose of an illustrated parts breakdown?
    To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment.
  9. What section in an IPB contains general information and instructions for using the publication?
  10. Besides the introduction, each IPB includes which of the following information?

    Table of contents or alphabetic index
    Group assembly parts list
    Numerical Index
    Each of the above
  11. What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the source or SM&R codes used in the IPB?
  12. What listing in the IPB lists aircraft assemblies and identifies the pages or figure numbers where the assemblies are shown in the IPB?
    Alphabetical Index
  13. What section of the IPB contains a description of a component listed in the IPB?
    Group assembly parts list
  14. What section of the IPB lists supplementary handbooks to which you may refer?
  15. What is the purpose of an index number in IPB?
    To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list
  16. In what figure can the next higher assembly for the flow regulator be found?
  17. Which of the following is a description of the units per assembly (callout 5 of figure 3-4)?
    A specific quantity has not been established
  18. Find index No. 5. A total of how many screws (part number MS27039-1-22) are used on the bracket assembly?
  19. Find index No.9. Where must the maintenanceman refer to for wheel assembly, NLG (part number 3-1328) required per aircraft?
    Figure 046-00 in the IPB
  20. Find index No. 7. The fitting assembly (part number A51G10561-1) can be used on an aircraft with which of the following bureau numbers?
  21. What is the Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE) code for part number 2577818-011I<F?
  22. What is the Usable-On code for Index No.2?
  23. What is the SM&R code for the NLG shock strut?
  24. What is the description of part nuber MS21042L3?
  25. You need to order a replacement component for an aircraft, and you do not know the part nujber of the item. Which of the following basic information should you be able to provide the AK so that he or she can research the IPB?

    Type of aircraft on which the part was installed?
    The component on which the part was installed?
    The bureau number of the aircraft from which the part was removed?
    All of the above
  26. An SM&R code is a five- or six- position alphanumeric code.
  27. What part of a part's SM&R code indicates how the part is to be acquired?
    Source code only
  28. What position of the SM&R code identifies the maintenance level assigned to completely repair an item?
  29. What information does the third position of an SM&R code provide?
    The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
  30. What two instructions govern policies, procedures, and definitions applicable to SM&R codes?
    NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and NAVAIRINST 4423.3
  31. When removal of a component from an aircraft is not feasible or advisable until a replacemnt is on hand, supply personnel can exempt the turn-in of the component (retrograde) if its part number is listed in what document?
  32. What ASO publication contains a complete list of Navy-managed material that is classified as MTR?
  33. What type of material is listed in the CRIPL?
    Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule
  34. The reference number on a master cross-reference list refers to what number or numbers?
    Either a manufacterer's part number, a drawing number, or a design control number
  35. The MCRL is used to provide a cross-reference between what items of information?
    Reference number and NSN
  36. What is the purpose of the ICRL-A?
    To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them.
  37. An ICRL-A is revised at what specified interval?
  38. What ICRL Capability code is used for check and test only?
  39. Within the ICRL listing, what code is equivalent to Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM)-3?
  40. To what reference should you refer to obtain an NSN or reference number for an item when you only know the description?
  41. What is the 13-digit number called that identifies an item of material in the supply system?
  42. What is the title of the overall program that provides the data required for effective management of support equipment at all levels of maintenance?
  43. What command exercises overall program management for the AMMRL program?
  44. What information is provided by the first two digits in the FSC code number?

    The FSC group?
    The major or broad category of the stock?
    Manager that controls the category of material?
    The detailed breakdown of a category of material?
  45. The NSN is comprised of what total number of digits?
  46. Which of the following acronyms identifies equipment that is required on the ground to make a system, subsystem, or end item of equipment operational?
  47. Within an activity, personnel in what rating normally maintain the IMRL?
  48. The IMRL contains how many major sections?
  49. At the organizational maintenance level, the point of contact for all material requirments generated by a squadron is located in what organization?
    Material control center
  50. What Material Condition code tells you that an item of supply is fast moving and in high demand?
  51. To determine whether an intermediate maintenance activity has apability to test/check or repair an item, what I-level supply area screens all components turned into ASD/SSC?
  52. The AAD/SSC is composed of what section?
    SRS and CCS
  53. The SRS limits the quantity of any item in the pre-expended bin to a 30-day supply.
  54. Within an activity, what officer must approve the item of PEB stockage when it costs more than $150?
    The commanding officer
  55. Supply will remove an item from the PEB if there has been no demand for the item within what total period of time?
    12 months
  56. What is the purpose of the component control section within the supply department?
    To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC
  57. A LRCA is assigned a workload priority. The priority assigned is one of what total number of priorities that can be assigned to the LRCA?
  58. An aircraft iis in NMCS/PMCS status. What priority is assigned to LRCA in support of this aircraft?
    Priority 1
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Aviation Supply