Spinal Anatomy, Dr. Guy

  1. What connects the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle?
    Interventricular foramen of monro
  2. What does the proencephalon develop into?
    Telencephalon and Diencephalon
  3. What does the mesenceophalon develop into?
  4. What does the Rhombencephalon develop into?
    Metencephalon and Myelencephalon
  5. What is the forebrain?
  6. What is the Midbrain?
  7. What is the hindbrain?
  8. List the ventricles in order.
    Lateral ventricle, third, cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of sylvius), forth, central canal
  9. Where is the lateral ventricles?
  10. Where is the third ventricle?
  11. Where is the cerebral aqueduct of sylvius?
  12. Where is the forth ventricle?
    Metencephalon and myelencephalon
  13. What are the lateral apertures? Where do they go? How many are there?
    • Foramen of luschka
    • Into subarachnoid space of the pontine cistern to the spinal canal
    • Two
  14. What are the median aperture? Where do they go? How many are there?
    • Foramen of Magendie
    • Into subarachonid space of the cisterna magna (cebebellomedulary cistern)
    • One
  15. What CN's come from the Telencephalon?
  16. What CN's come from the Diencephalon?
  17. What CN's come from Mesencephalon?
  18. What CN's come from Metencephalon?
  19. What CN's come from Myelencephalon?
  20. What structures come from the Telencephalon?
    Cerebrum and higher function
  21. What structures come from the Diencephalon?
    Thalamus, hypophysis, mamillary body
  22. What strucutres come from Mesencephalon?
    Midbrain and everything else
  23. What structures come from the Metencephalon?
    pons and cerebellum
  24. What structures come from the Myelencephalon?
    medulla oblongata
  25. What are the lateral ventricles?
    1st and 2nd ventricles
  26. What is the roof of the 4th ventricle? What is the floor of the 4th ventricle?
    • roof - cerebellum
    • floor - pons and medulla
  27. What reabsorbs the CSF?
    arachnoid granulations
  28. What separates the lateral ventricles?
    septum pellucidum
  29. What produces CSF?
    Choroid plexus - Ependymal cells which line the ventricles
  30. What does the nervous system develop from?
    dorsal ectoderm, neural plate --> neural groove --> neural fold --> neural tube --> brain and spinal cord
  31. What forms the neural crest?
    Neuroectodermal cells not in the neural tube
  32. What does the neural crest develop into?
    • Sympathetics
    • Meninges
    • Schwann Cells
    • Melanocytes
    • Branchial arches
    • Adrenal medulla
    • DRG's
    • Meisners plexus
    • Auerbach plexus
    • "SMSM BAD MA"
  33. What neural tissue is the adenohypophysis derived from?
  34. What is the Anterior Pituitary derived from?
    Rathke's pouch (ectoderm)
  35. What is the epithelial lining of the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, floor of the mouth, soft palate, ducts of the sublingual glands and submandibular glands derived from?
  36. What is the epithelial lining of the GI tract derived from?
  37. What are Hepatocytes and the epithelial lining of the biliary tree derived from?
  38. What are the kidneys, testes, ovaries, genital ducts and accessory sex glands derived from?
    Intermediate mesoderm
  39. What are Epidermis, hair, sweat and cutaneous glands derived from?
  40. What are acinar cells, islet cells and the epithelial lining pancreatic ducts derived from?
  41. What are the skeletal muscles of the limbs derived from?
    lateral mesoderm
  42. What are CNS derived from?
  43. What is the neurohypophysis derived from?
  44. What is the neural crest derived from?
  45. Ectoderm gives rise to?
    Nerves and Epidermis
  46. Endoderm gives rise to?
    Respiratory tract and gut
  47. Mesoderm gives rise to?
    Everthing else
  48. Where do pharyngeal pouches develop?
    In the lateral wall of foregut or pharynx
  49. What does the 1st pharyngeal pouch give rise to?
    Epithelial lining of the auditory tube and middle ear cavity
  50. What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch give rise to?
    Epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil crypts
  51. What does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch give rise to?
    Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus
  52. What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch give rise to?
    Superior parathyroid gland, parafollicular cells of the thyroid
  53. What pouch is CN 5 derived from?
  54. What pouch is CN 7 derived from?
  55. What pouch is CN 9 derived from?
  56. What pouch is CN 10 derived from?
    4, 6
  57. What does the foregut give rise to?
    mouth, pharynx, lower respiratory tract, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, duodenum
  58. What does the midgut give rise to?
    small intestine, appendix, cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon
  59. What does the hindgut give rise to?
    distal 1/3rd of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
  60. What are the 4 types of support cells in the CNS? What do they do?
    • Astrocyte - Blood brain barrier, repair, many functions
    • Oligodendrocyte - makes myelin in CNS
    • Microglia - macrophage of CNS (engulf foreign and dead particles)
    • Ependymal - makes up choroid plexus (line the ventricles)
  61. What type of cell forms myelin sheath around cells in the PNS?
    Schwann cells
  62. From where are the extensors formed?
    hypomere of myotome
  63. What muscles do the epimere of the myotome form?
    Those innervated by the dorsal ramus of the spinal nerves (back muscles)
  64. What are the three parts of the mesoderm? What do they form?
    • Dermatome --> Dermis
    • Sclerotome --> Bone (vertebral column)
    • Myotome --> muscle
  65. What controls the skeletal muscles?
    Somatic nerves
  66. What controls the visceral organs?
    Splanchnic nerves
  67. What is hypomere?
  68. What is epimere?
  69. What is the Falx cerebri?
    crescent shaped extension of the dura mater, projects between the two cerebral hemispheres
  70. What sinus runs along the Falx Cerebri?
    superior sagittal sinus
  71. What are the 4 lobes of the brain? What are their main functions?
    • Frontal - motor
    • Parietal - evaluation of emotion
    • Temporal - hearing and smell
    • Occipital - vision
  72. What is the main function of the prefrontal area?
    Social interaction
  73. What three sulcus surround and divide the motor and sensory parts of the brain? Name them from ant. to post.
    Precentral sulcus, central sulcus of rolando and postcentral sulcus
  74. What is the primary function of the precentral gyrus?
  75. What is the main function of the postcentral gyrus? What is another name for it?
    • Sensory
    • Anterior parietal lobe
  76. What is Wernickes area? Where is it?
    • Sensory speech - Comprehension of words
    • Parietal lobe
  77. Where does the blood supply for the brain originate?
    • Anterior - Internal carotid artery
    • Posterior - Vertebral artery
  78. What is the lowest level that the vertebral that the vertebral artery passes through the transverse foramen?
  79. What artery feeds broca's area?
    Middle cerebral artery
  80. What arteries are in the circle of Willis?
    Posterior Cerebral, Posterior Communicating, Internal Carotid, Anterior Cerebral, Anterior Communicating
  81. What is the circle of Willis?
    where the anterior circulation of the brain meets the posterior circulation
  82. What are the branches of the internal carotid artery?
    Anterior cerebral artery, opthalmic artery and middle cerebral artery
  83. Where is the anterior communicating artery?
    Between the right and left anterior cerebral arteries
  84. What are the branches of the middle cerebral artery?
    Posterior communicating artery and anterior choroidal artery
  85. What are the branches of the vertebral artery?
    Posterior Inferior cerebellar artery, Anterior and posterior spinal arteries, basilar artery, posterior meningeal artery
  86. What are the branches of the basilar artery?
    • 10 medullary arteries including Anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries and superior cerebellar artery
    • Also Posterior cerebral arteries
  87. Where do Berry aneurysms occur?
    Usually the circle of Willis
  88. Where does the middle cerebral artery supply?
    Lateral surface of the cortex
  89. Where does the anterior cerebral artery supply?
    Most of the medial surface of the neocortex
  90. Where does the posterior cerebral artery supply?
  91. What is the tentorum cerebelli? What sinus runs in the tentorum cerebelli?
    • Dura extension separating the cerebellum from the occipital lobe
    • Transverse sinus
  92. What veins empty into the External jugular vein?
    Posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein
  93. What veins empty into the straight sinus?
    Inferior sagittal and great vein of Galen (great cerebral vein)
  94. What veins empty into the Confluence of the sinuses?
    Superior sagittal sinus, occipital sinus, straight sinus
  95. Where does blood flow from the confluence of the sinuses?
    to the transverse sinus then the sigmoid sinus
  96. Where does blood go from the sup. and inf. petrosal sinuses?
    • sigmoid sinus --> internal jugular vein --> subclavian vein
    • "internal jugular vein drains the brain
  97. What are the three types of fibers in the cerebrum and what do they do?
    • Association fibers - connect regions of the same hemisphere
    • Commissural fibers - connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres
    • Projection fibers - send information to other parts of the brain and spinal cord
  98. What lobe is the precentral gyrus in? What special cells does it have? What are the functions of this gyrus?
    • Frontal
    • Betz cells in 4th layer
    • Voluntary motor, origin of corticospinal tract
  99. What lobe is the postcentral gyrus in? What are the functions of this gyrus? What areas is it?
    • Parietal (anterior)
    • Primary somesthetic (sensory) area, receives fibers from the thalamus
    • 1,3,2
  100. What lobe is the prefrontal gyrus in? What are the functions of this gyrus? What areas is it?
    • Frontal
    • Social Interaction
    • 12
  101. What lobe is the Broca's area in? What are the functions of this gyrus? Where is it? What would a lesion here cause?
    • Frontal
    • Motor speech
    • Left area 44 (interior frontal gyrus)
    • Motor aphasia
  102. What lobe is the Transverse temporal gyrus in? What are the functions of this gyrus?
    • Temporal
    • Hearing
  103. What lobe is the Angular gyrus in?
    Parietal lobe
  104. What lobe is the uncus in? What are the functions of the uncus?
    • Temporal
    • Smell
    • "I smell a skuncus in the uncus"
  105. What lobe is the Calcarine sulcus in? What are the functions of it?
    • Occipital
    • Vision (along with visual cortex)
  106. What pathway brings information into the brain from the body?
  107. What pathway brings info. from the spinal cord/brain to the body?
  108. What part of the face covers the largest area of the sensory part of the neocortex?
  109. What is the main function of the cerebellum?
    unconscious coordination of muscle movements
  110. Name the four cerebellar nuclei from medial to lateral.
    • Fastigial
    • Globose
    • Embelliform
    • Dentate (the largest and most lateral)
    • "Fat Guy's Eat Doughnuts"
  111. What are the three layers of the cerebellum?
    • Purkinje
    • Molecular
    • Granular
  112. What are the three lobes of the cerebellum and their function?
    • Flocculonodular - equilibrium
    • Anterior - proprioception (unconscious, spinocerebellar tract)
    • Posterior - fine motor skills
  113. What are the three different types of fibers that enter the cerebellum and what is their function?
    • Superior cerebellar peduncle - connects the cerebellum and cerebrum
    • Pontocerebellar fibers (middle cerebellar peduncle) - connects the cerebellum and the pons
    • Infereior cerebellar peduncle (climbing fibers) - come from the inferior olivary nucleus of the medulla
    • "Climb the olive tree"
  114. Name the 12 cranial nerves.
    • 1. Olfactory
    • 2. Optic
    • 3. Oculomotor
    • 4. Trochlear
    • 5. Trigeminal
    • 6. Abducens
    • 7. Facial
    • 8. Vestibulocochlear
    • 9. Glossopharyngeal
    • 10. Vagus
    • 11. Accessory nerve (cranial root and spinal root)
    • 12. Hypoglossal nerve
  115. Where is the decussation of the pyramids?
    Lower medulla
  116. What is another name for the corticospinal tract?
    Pyramidal tract
  117. What is the lateral geniculate body involved in?
  118. What is the medial geniculate body involved in?
  119. What is the superior colliculus involved in?
  120. What cranial nerve comes off dorsal to the brainstem?
    Trochlear (CN IV)
  121. What pathway does sight follow?
    Rods and cones (layer 2) --> bipolar cells --> ganglion cells of the retina --> Optic nerve --> Optic chiasm --> optic tract --> lateral geniculate body --> Superior colliculus (visual motor functions) and calcarine cortex of occipital lobe (via the geniculocalcarine tract)
  122. What pathway does hearing follow?
    • Spiral organ of corti --> CN VIII (cochlear nucleus) --> Lateral lemniscus (through trapezoid body) --> Inferior colliculus --> medial geniculate body --> temporal lobe of the cortex
    • LIME = Lateral, Inferior, Medial, Ear
  123. Where are the Superior and inferior colliculi located?
    Dorsal Mesencephalon
  124. What is the obex?
    The fold at the bottom of the 4th ventricle
  125. Where are the geniculate bodies located?
    Lateral to the colliculi in the dorsal mesencephalon
  126. What is the main function of the pons?
    To relay fibers going to the cerebellum (pontocerebellar fibers via the Middle cerebellar peduncle)
  127. Where is the pons located?
    • Superior to the medulla oblongata
    • Ventral to the cerebellum
    • Inferior to the midbrain
  128. Where is the medulla oblongata located?
    Caudal to the pons
  129. What two important structures does the medulla oblongata contain?
    Olives and the pyramids
  130. What is the main function of the basal ganglia?
    Background muscle tone
  131. What 4 structures are in the basal ganglia?
    • Lentiform nucleus
    • Caudate nucleus
    • Substantia Nigra
    • Subthalamus
  132. What makes up the lentiform nucleus?
    • putamen
    • globus pallidus
  133. Where do fibers from the globus pallidus terminate?
    substantia nigra
  134. What does a lesion of the basal ganglia cause?
    Parkinson's disease (Paralysis agitans)
  135. What does a lesion in the basal ganglia result in?
    No dopamine in substantia nigra
  136. What are the symptoms of Parkinson's?
    • Resting tremor
    • Festinating gate
    • Toe walk
    • Mask face
    • Rigidity
  137. What is another name for the anterior pituitary? What is it derived from?
    • Adenohypophysis
    • Rathke's Pouch (oral ectoderm)
  138. What is the link between the CNS and the Adenohypophysis?
    Hypophyseal Portal system (blood)
  139. What is another name for the Posterior pituitary? What type of tissue is it?
    • Neurohypophysis
    • nerve tissue
  140. Where are oxytocin and ADH (Vasopressin) formed? Where are they released?
    • Formed in hypothalamus
    • Released by posterior pituitary
  141. What is the thalamus?
    The major sensory integration center, it recives all senses except smell prior to the cortex
  142. Sensory fibers ascend through the thalamus to where?
    the sensory cortex via the Internal capsule
  143. What part of the thalamus recieves input from the cerebellum?
  144. What part of the thalamus is a synaptic region for ascending spinal sensory pathways?
  145. What part of the thalamus projects to sensory areas of the parietal and temporal lobes?
  146. What are the main functions of the thalamus?
    Temperature regulation, thirst, hunger, defensive reactions
  147. What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?
    GHRH, GHIH (somatostatin), CRH, TRH, GnRH (LHRH), PRH, PIH
  148. What does GHRH do?
    Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release growth hormone which stimulates the liver to produce somatomedians
  149. What does GHIH do?
    Decrease the production of GH
  150. What does CRH do?
    Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH which stimulates the adrenal gland to produce Glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids and androgens
  151. What does TRH do?
    Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release TSH which stimulates the follicular cells of the thyroid to produce thyroxine
  152. What does GnRH (LHRH) do?
    • Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
    • FSH in females stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen
    • FSH in males stimulates the production of sperm
    • LH in females stimulates the production of progesterone and estrogen and stimulates the development of the ovum
    • LH in males stimulates the production of testosterone
  153. What does PRH do?
    Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release Prolactin which stimulate the breast to produce milk (oxytocin stimulates the release of milk)
  154. What does PIH do?
    Decreases the production of Prolactin
  155. What effect does osmolarity and Na+ have on the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei?
    • High osmolarity will stimulate the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei
    • High Na+ will only stimulate the paraventricular nucleus
    • Both release ADH (vasopressin)
  156. Which cranial nerves are parasympathetic?
    CN III, VII, IX, X
  157. The vagus nerve supplies parasympathetic to how much of the body?
  158. Where does CN I exit the skull?
    Ethmoid bone (cribiriform plate)
  159. Where does CN II exit the skull?
    Optical canal
  160. What CN constricts the pupils?
    CN III
  161. Where does the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?
    • Opthalmic division (I) - Superior orbital fissure
    • Maxillary division (II) - Foramen rotundum
    • Mandibular division (III) - Foramen ovale
  162. What cranial nerves exit through the superior orbital fissure?
    III, IV, V1, VI
  163. What is the function of CN V?
    General nose sensation, Senosry to face, Motor to muscles of mastication
  164. What is the function of CN VII?
    Taste to ant. 2/3 tongue, muscles of fascial expression
  165. What CN's exit the skull through the internal auditory meatus?
  166. What CN's exit through the jugular foramen?
    IX, X, XI
  167. What is the function of CN IX?
    Stylopharyngeus muscle (motor), taste to post. 1/3 of tongue
  168. What is the function of CN XI?
    SCM, trapezius motor
  169. Where does CN XII exit the skull?
    Hypoglossal canal
  170. What is the function of CN XII?
    Motor to the tongue
  171. Which CN's are sensory only?
    I, II, VIII
  172. Which CN's are motor only?
    III, IV, VI, XI, XII
  173. Which CN's are both motor and sensory?
    V, VII, IX, X
  174. What CN is the greater petrosal/intermediate nerve associated with?
  175. What is the chorda tympani?
    Branch of CN 7 which carries taste
  176. Pathway of CN VII.
    • Internal acoustic meatus --> lacrimal gland, stapedius, taste (ant. 2/3), submaxillary and submandibular glands
    • --> Stylomastoid foramen --> facial muscles
  177. What CN innervates the tounge muscles?
    CN XII innervates all but palatoglossus which is innervated by CN X
  178. What nerve innervates the Styloglossus? What does this muscle do?
    • CN XII
    • Retract and elevate tongue
  179. What nerve innervates the Genioglossus? What does this muscle do?
    • CN XII
    • Protrude tongue
  180. What muscle closes the mouth? What muscle opens the mouth?
    • Medial (internal) pterygoid closes
    • "MMMMM"
    • Lateral (external) pterygoid opens
    • "Lalalala"
  181. What are the muscles of the TMJ and what CN innervates them?
    • Buccinator (VII), Internal Pterygoid (V), Temporalis (V), External Pterygoid (V), Masseter (V)
    • "BITEM"
  182. What part of the neuron conducts impulses toward the cell body?
  183. What part of the neuron conducts impulses away from the cell body?
  184. What is a nucleus?
    A group of neuron cell bodies in the CNS
  185. What is a ganglion?
    A group of cell bodies in the PNS
  186. What is the function of unipolar cells?
    Sensory, cell bodies in DRG
  187. What is the function of bipolar cells?
    Special senses
  188. What is the function of multipolar cells?
    Most neurons, motor and interneurons
  189. What type of fibers are big and myelinated?
    A Alpha fibers
  190. What type of fibers are small and unmyelinated?
    A Delta and C fibers
  191. What are the 4 main types of sensory receptors?
    Pain, temperature, touch, proprioception
  192. What are pain receptors?
    Nociceptors, free nerve endings, non-encapsulated
  193. What are the two types of temperature receptors?
    Krause (cold) and Ruffini (hot)
  194. What are the 4 types of touch receptors?
    • Merkel discs (non-encapsulated)
    • Meissner corpuscles
    • Pacinian corpuscles (pressure)
    • Peritrichial nerve endings
  195. What are the two main proprioception receptors?
    • Muscle spindles (stretch --> triggers muscle to contract)
    • Golgi tendon organs (protective, stretch --> triggers muscle to relax)
  196. What are the two enlargements of the spinal cord?
    Cervical enlargement (1-3cm) and lumbar enlargement (1-2cm)
  197. What is the conus medullaris?
    The end of the cord (at L1-2 level)
  198. What is the lumbar cistern?
    • Subarachnoid space from L2 to S2
    • Contains the Cauda Equina (ends at S2)
  199. List the meninges from inside to outside.
    Pia, arachnoid, dura (PAD)
  200. What is the Leptomeninx?
    • Pia and arachnoid
    • "Leprachaun peed on a spider"
  201. What is Pachymeninx?
    Dura mater
  202. What are the three major projects of dura mater into brain fissure?
    • Falx cerebri - between the cerebral hemispheres
    • Tentorium cerebelli - between the cerebellum and cerebrum
    • Falx cerebelli - between the cerebellar hemispheres
  203. Where are arachnoid granulations?
    In the subarachnoid space where CSF is located
  204. What are the two many functions of the pia mater?
    • Denticulate ligaments which hold the spinal cord in place (tooth-like projections)
    • Filum terminale interna at a the end of the spinal cord is pia only
  205. What are the three names for the posterior plate of a spinal cord?
    Dorsal, alar, sensory plate
  206. What are the three names for the anterior plate of the spinal cord?
    Basal, Ventral, Motor plate
  207. What do the dorsal primary rami innervate?
    Postural muscles, back
  208. What is the DRG?
    Dorsal root ganglion - cell bodies of somatosensory neurons
  209. What plexuses come from the ventral primary rami?
    cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral
  210. What is the sulcus limitans?
    separation between the sensory (alar) and the motor (basal) plate
  211. What is the mantle layer of the spinal cord?
    gray matter
  212. What is the marginal layer of the spinal cord?
    white matter
  213. What is gray matter made of?
    lamina and nuclei
  214. What lamina are in the posterior horn?
    1 to 6
  215. What is lamina 2?
    Substantia gelatinosa
  216. What lamina are in the anterior horn?
    8 and 9
  217. Where are the cell bodies of the lower motor neurons?
    Anterior horn of the spinal cord
  218. Where do neurons to axial muscle originate?
    Anterior horn
  219. What does lamina 7 contain?
    Lateral horn or intermediaolateral cell column
  220. Where do sympathetic fibers originate?
    lateral horn of T1 to L2
  221. Where do parasympathetic fibers originate?
    Cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10 and S2,S3,S4
  222. The sympathetic and parasympathetic are part of what nervous system?
    Autonomic (visceral)
  223. What does the anterolateral tract contain?
    Spinothalamic and spinoreticular tracts
  224. Where is the lateral corticospinal tract?
    Dorsolateral part of spinal cord
  225. Where is the Ventral corticospinal tract?
    Medial, ventral part of spinal cord
  226. What makes up the dorsal columns?
    Fasiculus Gracilis (legs) and Fasciculus cuneatus (arms)
  227. What is the pathway for the dorsal columns? What is another name for it?
    • Upper limb unconscious proprioception: DRG --> Fasiculus --> nuclei --> Accessory cuneate nucleus --> inf. cerebellar peduncle --> cerebellum
    • Lower limb unconscious proprioception: DRG --> Dorsal nucleus of clark (lamina VII, C8 to L3) --> Dorsal spinocerebellar tract --> cerebellum
    • All others: DRG --> Fasiculus --> nuclei --> Medial lemniscus --> Thalamus (VPL) --> postcentral gyrus (somatosensory)
    • Medial leminiscal system
  228. What parts of dorsal column/ML pathway are ipsilateral? Contralateral?
    • Lower limb unconscious proprioception, whole limbs is ipsilateral (crosses over twice)
    • Lower limb unconscious proprioception, individual muscles and all others are contralateral
  229. What is the function of the dorsal columns?
    Conscious and unconscous proprioception, vibration, 2 point discrimination
  230. What is the function of the posterior spinocerebellar tract?
    Unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum from lower limbs
  231. What is the function of the anterior spinocerebellar?
    stretch from spindle cells of lower limbs
  232. What is the spinocerebellar pathway?
    DRG --> nucleus of clark C8 to L3 --> inferior cerebellar peduncle --> cerebrum
  233. What causes Fredeicks ataxia?
    damage to the spinocerebellar pathway
  234. What does the lateral spinothalamic pathway carry?
    pain and temperature
  235. What does the anterior spinothalamic pathway carry?
    Light touch and pressure
  236. What is the spinothalamic pathway?
    First order neuron to DRG (2nd order synapse) --> crosses over --> 2nd order neuron to medulla then midbrain then thalamus (3rd order synapse) --> 3rd order neuron to somesthetic area of cortex (post central gyrus)
  237. Where is the 2nd order synapse for the spinothalamic tract?
    Lamina 4,5,6 (nucleus proprius)
  238. What type of fibers are the anterior spinothalamic 1st order neurons?
    A beta fibers
  239. What type of fibers are the lateral spinothalamic 1st order neurons?
    A delta and C fibers
  240. What does the spinotectal pathway carry?
    Tactile stimulation causing visual reflexes
  241. What is the spinotectal pathway?
    DRG --> crosses over --> tectum (superior colliculus)
  242. What does the spinoreticular pathway carry?
  243. What is the spinoreticular pathway? What is another name for it?
    • Same as spinothalamic except it also synapses in the reticular formation and hypothalamus as well as the thalamus
    • Paleospinothalmic tract
  244. What are the pyramidal tracts?
    Lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts
  245. What is the function of the corticospinal tract?
    Conscious, voluntary motor movements form the cerebral cortex of Giant cells (betz cells) especially fine movements of the hands
  246. What will a lesion in the corticospinal tract cause?
  247. What is the lateral corticospinal pathway?
    Motor cortex --> contralateral pyramid (lower medulla - dexussation of pyramids) --> spinal cord anterior horn
  248. What is the anterior corticospinal pathway?
    Motor cortex --> ipsilateral medulla --> contralateral spinal cord anterior horn (crosses at level of muscle)
  249. What % of the corticospinal tract is lateral? anterior?
    • 85% lateral
    • 15% anterior
  250. What descending tracts are extra pyramidal tracts?
    Rubrospinal, Reticulospinal, Vestibulospinal, Tectospinal
  251. What does the rubrospinal tract do?
    Facilitates flexors, inhibits extensors, coordinates movements
  252. Where does the rubrospinal tract originate?
    Red nucleus in tegmentum (floor of the midbrain)
  253. What is unique about the rubrospinal tract?
    Some fibers can cross at termination
  254. What does the reticulospinal tract do?
    Control of respiration and heartbeat, faciliate muscles, inhibit antagonists (Involuntary) - unconscious focusing while maintaining balance
  255. Where does the reticulospinal tract orginate?
    reticular formation
  256. What does the vestibulospinal tract do?
    • Posture and balance
    • Head and eye coordinated movement
    • Extension of erector spinae
    • Involuntary
    • Truns head toward sight and sound
  257. Where does the vestibulospinal tract originate?
    Vestibular nucleus
  258. What does the tectospinal tract do?
    Postrual reflexes to sight and sound
  259. Where does the tectospinal pathway originate?
    tectum of midbrain (superior colliculus)
  260. What is an upper motor neuron lesion?
    Lesion that involves any central neuron conveying impulses to the anterior horn (from brain to anterior horn but does NOT include the anterior horn cell)
  261. What is a lower motor neuron lesion?
    Involves the anterior horn cell, the anterior roots of the peripheral nerve
  262. What are the symptoms of an UMNL?
    Spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, pathological reflexes
  263. What are the symptoms of an LMNL?
    Flaccid paralysis, decreased muscle tone, hyporeflexia, NO pathological reflexes
  264. What is a preganglionic neuron?
    • Visceral efferent neuron whose cell body is in the brain or spinal cord
    • Terminates at an autonomic ganglion where it synapses with a postganglionic neuron
  265. What is a postganlionic neuron?
    • Lies entirely outside the CNS
    • Cell body is located in an autonomic ganglion
    • Unmyelinated axon, terminates in a visceral effector
  266. What preganglionic neuron does not end on an autonomic ganglion?
    Sympathetic innervation to the adrenal medulla (releases Norepinephrine and Epinephrine)
  267. What does cholinergic mean?
    That the neuron uses acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter
  268. What does adrenergic mean?
    That a neuron uses epinephrine and norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter
  269. What nerves in the autonomic nervous system are cholinergic?
    • All parasympathetic
    • Preganglionic sympathetic
    • Postganglionic sympathetic to sweat glands, erector pilae and blood vessels
  270. What nerves in the autonomic nervous system are adrenergic?
    Sympathetic postganglionic to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
  271. What is the parasympathetic nervous system?
    • Craniosacral
    • Wine and Dine system - rest and digest
  272. What is the pathway of CN 3 parasympathetic fibers?
    • Preganglionic to ciliary ganglion
    • Postganglionic to Intrinsic eye muscles (sphincter pupillae - consticts, ciliary muscle)
  273. What is the pathway of CN 7 parasympathetic fibers?
    • Preganglionic to Submandibular/Pterygopalatine ganglion
    • Postganglionic to lacrimal and salivary glands (tears)
  274. What is the pathway of CN 9 parasympathetic fibers?
    • Preganglionic to otic ganglion
    • Postganglionic to parotid gland (stensons duct - opposite second molar)
  275. What is the pathway of CN 10 parasympathetic fibers?
    • Preganglionic to myenteric and auerbach plexus
    • Postganglionic to smooth muscle and glands of the thoracoabdominal cavity up to the left colic/splenic flexure
  276. What is the pathway of S2,S3,S4 parasympathetic fibers?
    • Preganglionic to pelvic plexus via pelvic splachnics of hypogastric plexus
    • Postganglionic to colon below the splenic flexure (descending colon, sigmoid, rectum), sex organs, kidney, bladder
  277. What are the main functions of the 4 parasympathetic cranial nerves?
    • CN 3 - pupil and ciliary body constriction
    • CN 7 - tearing and salivation
    • CN 9 - salivation
    • CN 10 - vagus
  278. What nerves are needed to maintain an erection?
    • Parasympathetic (S2, S3, S4)
    • "S2,3,4, keep your penis off the floor
  279. How does the parasympathetic system effect the body? (6)
    • Constricts eye pupil
    • Increases secretions of lacrimal gland (tears)
    • Increases saliva in all salivary glands
    • Bronchoconstriction of larynx, trachea, bronchii, lungs
    • Decreases heart rate
    • Increases digestive activity
  280. What is the Sympathetic nervous system?
    • "fight or flight" system
    • thoracolumbar
  281. Fate of sympathetic fibers. (3)
    • Fibers go to paravertebral sympathetic chains (pre --> post here) then out to organs
    • Fibers leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing and leave via splanchnic nerves to synapse at a prevertebral splanchnic ganglion
    • Innervate the adrenal medulla
  282. What innervation do blood vessels have?
    • Arteries and veins have sympathetic only, capillaries have no innervation
    • Blood vessels have NO parasympathetic innervation
  283. What are the splanchnic nerves and what levels do they come from?
    • T5-T9 --> greater splanchnic nerve
    • T10-T11 --> lesser splanchnic nerve
    • T12 --> least splanchnic nerve
    • L1-L3 --> Lumbar splanchnic nerve
  284. What are the 4 splanchnic ganglion and what organs do they go to?
    • Greater: celiac --> thoracoabdominal cavity through the small intestine
    • Lesser: superior mesenteric --> ascending colon
    • Least: superior mesenteric --> ascending colon
    • Lumbar: inferior mesenteric --> descending colon, sigmoid, rectum, sex organs, bladder
  285. What does the superior cervical ganglion do?
    • Dilates eye
    • Stimulates tear production
    • Squeezes out saliva from glands then cuts off blood supply to salivary glands --> dry mouth
  286. What does the malleus attach to?
    tympanic membrane
  287. What does the incus attach to?
    malleus and stapes
  288. What does the stapes attach to?
    oval window
  289. What are the main parts of the inner ear?
    Cochlea and semicircular canals and vestibule
  290. The auditory/eustachian tube is part of what?
    Middle ear
  291. What are the boundaries of the middle ear?
    Tympanic membrane to the oval and round window of the inner ear
  292. Name the ear bones from tympanic membrane to oval window.
    • Malleus, Incus, Stapes
    • "can't MIS the order of the bones"
  293. What does the posterior wall of the middle ear communicate with?
    Mastoid air cells
  294. What does the anterior wall of the middle ear open to?
    Eustachian tubes
  295. What is the vestibule of the ear?
    The central part of the bony labyrinth, contains the utricle and saccule
  296. What are the semicicular canals?
    Canals (3) which open into the posterior part of the vestibule. Each canal has a swelling at one end called the christa ampullaris
  297. What is the cochlea?
    resembles a snail shell, opens into the anterior part of the vestibule, it consists of a central pillar called the modiolus which is perforated by the cochlear nerve
  298. What does the basilar membrane of the ear do? What does it line?
    • seperates the cochlea into two canals: the scala vestibuli (above) and the scala tympani (below)
    • spiral organ of corti
  299. What is the bony labyrinth?
    cavities within the bone, they each contain fluid called perilymph (between membranous and bony labyrinth)
  300. What is the membranous labyrinth?
    • Within the boney, consists of utricle, saccule and three semicircular ducts (inside the canals) and the duct of the cochlea
    • filled with endolymph
  301. How is sound heard?
    • Vibration of the ossicles in the middle ear push the oval window and cause waves of in the fluid of the cochlea
    • These waves move the hair cells on the spiral organ of corti and stimulate nerve impulases via CN VIII to the cochlea nucleus
  302. What is the purpose of the saccule?
    • static equilibrium and linear acceleration
    • lying down or horizontal
  303. What is the purpose of the utricle?
    • Static equilibrium and linear acceleration
    • standing or vertical
  304. What is the macula?
    thickening on the saccule and utricle walls
  305. What are sterocilia and kinocilium?
    • Ends of hair cells in the macula which extend through an otolithic membrane
    • When you move your head the otolithic membrane slides and stimulates the hair cells which are connected to CN VIII
  306. What do semicircular canals detect?
    • rotational movement in three planes (rotational, circular and angular) - dynamic equilibrium
    • Anterior and posterior canal - vertical
    • Lateral canal - horizontal
  307. What is the ampulla?
    • Dilated portion of each duct, contains crista (hair cells covered with gel called cupula)
    • As you rotate your head hair cells move in the gel and stimulate the vestibular part of CN VIII
  308. What is chemoreceptor sense?
    smell (chemicals stimulate the sense)
  309. Where does smell go?
    • NOT through the thalamus
    • Olfactory bulb, limbic system
  310. Where is the emotional part of smell?
    Uncus of the anterior parahippocampus
  311. Pathway of smell
    Fila olfactoria (Olfactory neurosensory neuron, CN I) --> cribiform plate of ethmoid bone --> olfactory bulb (mitral cells) --> uncus
  312. What are the three nasal meatuses and what drains into them?
    • Superior (olfactory epithelium) - posterior ethmoidal air cells
    • Middle - Maxillary and frontal
    • Inferior - Nasolacrimal
  313. What are the nasal meatuses and concha?
    • Nasal meatuses - spaces found between the nasal concha
    • Superior and middle concha - on ethmoid bone
    • Inferior concha - own process (not part of ethmoid bone)
  314. What is the olfactory bulb an extension of?
  315. What are the functional cells of smell?
    Mitral and tufted cells
  316. What type of neurons project through the cribiform plate?
  317. What type of cells make up the olfactory bulb and tract?
    Mitral cells
  318. What are the two types of interneurons?
    • periglomerular cells - spread the impulse around
    • granule cells - have only dendrites (no axons) (dendrodendritic synapses)
  319. Layers of the eye out to inner
    • sclera (continuation of the conjunctiva)
    • choroid (vascular layer)
    • Uvea (choroid, ciliary body and iris - all pigmented)
    • Retina (rods = black and white vision, peripheral vision; cones = color vision, concentrated in the macula)
  320. What happens when ciliary muscles contract?
    suspensory ligaments relax and the lens becomes convex (spherical)
  321. What are the three chambers of the eye?
    • Anterior - cornea to iris (CIA)
    • Posterior - Iris to lens
    • Vitreous - lens to retina
  322. What does the posterior chamber contain?
    Ciliary body which produces aqueous humor
  323. What is the flow of aqueous humor? What will a blockage cause?
    Posterior chamber to anterior chamber and out Canal of Schlemm to venous system (blockage at Canal of Schlemm --> Glaucoma)
  324. Where are cones the most concentrated?
    Macula lutea and fovea centralis (center of the macula)
  325. What is the optic disc?
    Blind spot which allows the passage of vessels and optic nerve out of eye, the retina develops from here
  326. What artery supplies the eye?
  327. What reaction does the pupillary light reflex cause?
    • CN II sees the light
    • Parasympathetic from Edinger Westphal nucleus send signals through CN III to constrict the pupil
    • CN III causes the reaction
  328. How will Argyll-Robertson pupil present?
    Pupil accomodates but does not react
  329. What type of cells is the retina made of?
  330. Extraocular muscles are supplied by?
    SO4 LR6, the rest are CN III
  331. What occurs in accomodation?
    • Convergence of eyes
    • Constriction of pupil
    • Contraction of the lens
    • "3C's"
  332. Which CN opens the eye? Which closes?
    • CN III opens
    • CN VII closes
  333. What are the four types of partial vision loss? What part of the vision is lost in each?
    • Anopsia of one eye - vision is lost completely in one eye and remains normal in the other
    • Right nasal hemianopsia - vision is lost in the nasal half of the vision field in right eye
    • Bitemporal hemianopsia - vision lost in the temporal half of the vision field in both eyes
    • Left homonymous hemianopsia - Loss of the left half of the vision field in both eyes
  334. Where does vision from the superior retina go?
    Parietal lobe optic radiation to the area above the calcarine fissure
  335. Where does vision from the inferior retina go?
    Temporal lob optic radiation to the area below the calcarine fissure
  336. Where does vision from the left half of each retina go?
    To the left side of the brain
  337. Where do objects in right visual field go?
    Left side of the brain
  338. Damage to the optic chiasm will cause vision loss where?
    In the temporal fields of vision (nasal part of retina)
  339. Damage to the left optic nerve will cause vision loss where?
    Left eye
  340. Damage to the left optic tract will cause vision loss where?
    Right visual field in both eyes
  341. Damage to the left temporal lobe optic radiation will cause vision loss where?
    Superior half of right visual field in both eyes
  342. What does the endoneurium do?
    surrounds individual nerve fibers
  343. What does the perineurium do?
    Surrounds small bundles or fascicles of fibers
  344. What does epineurium do?
    Surrounds the entire nerve
  345. What nerves innervate the diaphragm?
    C3,4,5 (phrenic nerve) - "C3,4,5 keeps the diaphragm alive"
  346. What nerves innervate the SCM and trapezius?
    CN XI and C1-5
  347. What nerves are in the cervical plexus?
  348. Where cutaneous (sensory) nerves does the cervical plexus supply?
    • Small/lesser occipital nerve from C2
    • Great auricular nerve
    • Transverse cervical (anterior cutaneous) nerve
    • Supraclavicular nerve (top of shoulders)
  349. What nerves make up the brachial plexus?
    Ventral rami of C5-T1
  350. Where does the axillary nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
    • Motor: Teres Minor, Deltoid
    • Sensory: Anterior shoulder
  351. Where does the musculocutaneous nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off of the lateral cord, accompanies the radial artery
    • Motor: Coracobrachialis, biceps, brachialis (forearm flexors)
    • Sensory: Anterior forearm
  352. Where does the Median nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off medial and lateral cord, accompanies brachial artery
    • Motor: Wrist flexors and pronators, thenar muscles
    • Sensory: First 3.5 digits and palm
  353. What does a lesion of the median nerve cause? Ulnar nerve? Radial nerve?
    • Median --> Ape hand
    • Ulnar --> Claw hand
    • Radial --> wrist Drop
    • "Dr. Cu Ma"
  354. Where does the Ulnar nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off medial cord
    • Motor: Hand interossei and lumbricals, hypothenar muscles, thumb adduction
    • Sensory: Pinky and 1/2 of ring finger
  355. Where does the Radial nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off posterior cord
    • Largest branch
    • Motor: Forearm and wrist extensors and supinators, tumb extension
    • Sensory: Posterior arm and hand
  356. What is another name for the long thoracic nerve? What does it supply?
    • External respiratory nerve of bell
    • Motor: serratus anterior
  357. What does the suprascapular nerve supply?
    Supra and infra spinatus
  358. What does the medial and lateral pectoral supply?
    • Medial --> Pec major and minor
    • Lateral --> Pec major only
  359. Where does the Thoracodorsal nerve come from? What does it supply?
    • Off posterior cord
    • Also called Middle subscapularis
    • Motor: Latissimus dorsi
  360. Summary of which nerves come from which cord.
    • PART: Posterior --> Axillary, Radial, Thoracodorsal
    • MUM: Middle --> Ulnar, 1/2 of Median
    • LMM: Lateral --> 1/2 of Median, Musculocutaneous
  361. Summary of thumb movements.
    • "RUM"
    • Radial --> Extension
    • Ulnar --> Adduction
    • Median --> Flexion (opposition)
  362. What nerves are part of the lumbar plexus?
    T12 to L4
  363. What supplies the ilioinguinal nerve?
  364. What supplies the genitofemoral nerve?
  365. What supplies the Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve?
    • L2-3
    • "She's 23 and too CUTe for me"
  366. What supplies the Femoral nerve?
  367. What supplies the obturator nerve?
  368. What nerves make up the sacral plexus?
    L4 to S3
  369. What nerves are in the lumbosacral trunk?
  370. What supplies the superior gluteal nerve?
  371. What supplies the Inferior gluteal nerve?
    L5 to S2
  372. What supplies the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve?
  373. What makes up the sciatic nerve?
    Common peroneal and tibial nerves, L4 to S3
  374. What bones are in the axial skeleton?
    Skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum and hyoid
  375. Which skull bones are paired?
    Temporal, parietal, maxilla, nasal, lacrimal, inferior concha, zygomatic
  376. Which skull bones are not paired?
    Frontal, occipital, mandible, sphenoid, ethmoid (includes cribiform plate and superior and middle concha)
  377. What bones are part of the eye?
    Zygomatic, frontal, lacrimal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid
  378. What type of joint are sutures?
  379. What does the coronal suture separate?
    frontal from parietal bones
  380. What does the sagittal suture separate?
    2 parietal bones
  381. What does the squamous suture separate?
    temporal from parietal bones
  382. What does the lambdoidal suture separate?
    occipital from parietal
  383. What does the internasal suture separate?
    2 nasal bones
  384. What does the intermaxillary suture separate?
    2 maxillary bones
  385. What does the frontonasal suture separate?
    Frontal and nasal bones
  386. What does the occipitomastoid suture separate?
    occiput from the mastoid
  387. What does the parietomastoid suture separate?
    parietal from the mastoid
  388. What is the bregma?
    Intersection of the coronal and sagittal sutures
  389. What is the glabella?
    flattened triangular area of the forehead
  390. What is the nasion?
    Intersection of frontal and nasal sutures
  391. What is the pterion?
    Intersection of the frontal, sphenoid, temporal and parietal bones
  392. What is the asterion?
    Intersection of squamous and lambdoid sutures and the mastoid sutures
  393. What is lambda?
    Intersection of lambdoid and sagittal sutures
  394. How many vertebrae are there?
    • 26
    • 24 moveable (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar)
    • Sacrum, coccyx
  395. How many spinal and cranial nerves are there? Where do they exit?
    • 31 pairs of spinal nerves
    • 12 cranial nerves
    • Cervical nerves 1-7 exit above the corresponding veretebra, all others exit below, Cervical nerve 8 exits between C7 and T1
  396. What part of the spine is made up of IVDs?
  397. Which vertebra are typical?
    C3-6, T2-8, L1-4
  398. Typical cervical vertebra.
    • Oval body
    • Triangular spinal canal
    • Joint plane coronal 45 degrees
    • Superior facet direction is posterosuperior, slightly medial
  399. Typical thoracic vertebra.
    • heart-shaped body
    • oval spinal canal
    • joint plane coronal 65 degrees
    • Superior facet direction is posterosuperior, slightly lateral
  400. Typical lumbar vertebra.
    • kidney-shaped body
    • triangular spinal canal
    • Joint plane is sagittal 90 degrees
    • Superior facet direction is posteromedial
  401. Which cervicals have a bifurcated Spinous?
  402. What are joints of luschka? Where are they found?
    • Uncovertebral joints
    • C2/3 to C6/7
  403. Which joints of the spine have the most mechanoreceptors?
    Zygaphophyseal joints of cervicals
  404. Which TP has the carotid tubercle?
  405. Which vertebra have transverse foramen?
    C1-7 but vertebral artery does not always pass through C7 foramen, usually starts at C6
  406. What forms the IVF?
    • Posterior border: articular pillars (facet)
    • Roof and floor: pedicles (inferior vertebral notch of the vertebra above and the superior vertebral notch of the vertebra below)
    • Anterior: uncinate processes (body and IVD)
  407. Which veretebra are atypical?
    C1, C2, C7, T1, T9-12, L5, sacrum, coccyx (11 total)
  408. Where does the longus coli muscle insert?
    anterior tubercle of atlas
  409. Where is the groove for the suboccipital nerve and vertebral artery?
    Superior aspect of the posterior arch of atlas
  410. What is the fovea denatalis?
    groove on the posterior surface of the anterior arch, dens fits in it
  411. What is tropism? Where is it most common?
    assymetrical facets, most common at L5/S1 (one coronal, one sagittal)
  412. What is sacralization? lumbarization?
    • sacralization - incomplete separation of L5 and sacrum
    • lumbarization - S1 separates from sacrum
  413. What are the major parts of the sacrum? What are they analogous to?
    • Median crest - SPs
    • Intermediate crest - articular pillars
    • Lateral crest - TPs
    • Sacral promentory - anterior portion of the most superior aspect
    • Cornu - horn
  414. Which ribs are typical? what do they articulate with?
    • Ribs 2-9
    • superior demifacet of corresponding vertebra
    • inferior demifacet of vertebra above
    • full costal facet on the TP articulates with rib tubercle
  415. Which ribs are true ribs?
  416. Which ribs are false ribs?
  417. Which ribs are floating?
    11 and 12
  418. Which ribs articulate with one rib?
    1, 10, 11, 12 (all have a 1 in them)
  419. What type of joints do the ribs participate in?
    • costovertebral and costotransverse - gliding
    • costochondral - cartilaginous
  420. What is the pars interarticularis?
    region of bone between the superior articular process and the inferior articular process
  421. What is a good rule of thumb for determining how superficial a back muslce is?
    Loner muscles are more superficial
  422. What are the actions of rhomboideus major and minor?
    • major - adduct scapula
    • minor - retracts scapula
  423. What are the three erector spinae (layer IV) muscles?
    • Iliocostalis - most lateral, attaches to ribs, no attachement to vertebra
    • Longissimus
    • Spinalis - most medial
    • "I Love Spinal!"
  424. What muscles are in layer 1 of the back muscles?
    Trapezius, latissimus dorsi
  425. What muscles are in layer 2 of back muscles?
    Rhomboideus major and minor, levator scapulae
  426. What muscles are in layer III of the back muscles?
    Splenius capitis and cervicis, serratus posterior superior and inferior
  427. What muslces are in layer V of the back muscles?
    All other back muscles not mentioned for layers I to IV (transverse spinal, sub-occipital, anterior vertebral, lateral vertebral)
  428. Where does the rectus capitis anterior originate?
    lateral mass of occiput
  429. Where does the psoas major insert?
    Lesser trochanter
  430. Where does the iliacus originate and insert?
    • origin - iliac crest and sacrum
    • insertion - psoas major
  431. What layer is the levator costorum in?
    layer 5 (lateral vertebral)
  432. What nerve supplies the suboccipital triangle?
    Posterior primary divison of C1
  433. What runs through the suboccipital triangle?
    vertebral artery and 1st cervical nerve (suboccipital)
  434. What is another name for the lumbar triangle? What are its boundaries?
    • Petit's
    • Lateral: external oblique
    • Medial: latissimus dorsi
    • Inferior: iliac crest
    • Floor: Internal oblique
  435. What are the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation?
    • Medial: traps
    • Inferior: lats
    • Lateral: medial scapula
  436. At what level is the PSIS? Iliac crest?
    • PSIS - S2
    • Iliac crest - L4
  437. What are the 9 common ligaments of the spine?
    IVD, ALL (anterior longitudinal), PLL (posterior longitudinal), Capsular, Interspinous, Supraspinous, Ligamentum nuchae, Intertransverse, Ligamentum flavum
  438. What is the IVD made of? Where do its parts originate from? What is its function?
    • fibrocartilage (symphysis joint)
    • Annulus fibrosis - from sclerotome
    • nucleus pulposis - from notochord
    • resists flexion and extension and all motions of the spine
  439. What is the tectoral membrane a continuation of?
  440. What is the function of the PLL? Where is it located?
    • prevent the disc from herniating into the vertebral canal
    • posterior to the body, on the anterior part of the vertebral canal
  441. Where is the interspinous ligmament?
    between the spinous processes
  442. Where is the supraspinous ligament? What does it become?
    • lays over the spinous processes
    • above C7 it is the nuchal ligament
  443. What si the function of the intertransverse ligament?
    resist lateral flexion (runs TP to TP)
  444. Hypertrophy of what ligament will cause canal stenosis?
    ligamentum flavum (yellow ligament)
  445. Where is the yellow ligament? What is its function? What is unique about it?
    • runs from lamina to lamina in posterior portion of vertebral canal (it is inside the canal)
    • strengthens the medial aspect of the zygapophyseal joint and resists flexion
    • only elastic ligament in the body
  446. Where does the tectoral membrane attach?
    C2 to foramen magnum, superior continuation of PLL
  447. What is another name for the alar ligament? Where does it attach?
    check ligament, attaches the occipital condyles to dens, limits rotation of axis
  448. What is another name for the apical ligament? Where does it attach?
    suspensory ligament, attaches the dens to the foramen magnum
  449. What is the purpose of the transverse ligament?
    Holds the odontoid (dens) to atlas in the fovea dentalis
  450. What membrane has the greatest tendency to ossify?
    posterior atlantooccipital membrane
  451. What is the denticulate ligament?
    extension of pia
  452. What does the sacrotuberous ligament do? Where does it attach?
    resists flexion, attaches the sacrum to the ischial tuberosities
  453. What does the iliolumbar ligament do?
    becomes taut during hip extension
  454. Where does the inguinal ligament attach? What is it formed by?
    ASIS to pubic tubercle, formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal muscle
  455. What is the cremasteric muscle formed by?
    aponeurosis fo the internal abdominal oblique muscle
  456. What ligaments make up the cruciate ligament?
    Transverse, superior longitudinal and the inferior longitudinal
  457. What passes around the sacrospinous ligament?
    The pudental nerve and vessels pass around this ligament to the ischiorectal fossa
  458. What structures are in the greater sciatic foramen?
    • Piriformis muscle
    • Superior and inferior gluteal vessels
    • Superior and inferior gluteal nerves
    • Internal pudendal vessels
    • Pudendal nerve
    • Sciatic nerve
    • Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
    • Nerves to the obturator internus and quadratus femoris muscles
  459. What structures are in the lesser sciatic foramen?
    • Tendon of the obturator internus
    • Nerve to the obturator internus
    • Internal pudental vessels
    • Pudendal nerve
Card Set
Spinal Anatomy, Dr. Guy
Spinal Anatomy flashcards based on Dr. Guy's notes for NBCE study