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SFP Cooling/Handling/Containment

  1. State the function of the Containment Building
    • •Protect the public, acts as the 3rd fission barrier
    • •Protect the equipment from the outside elements
    • •Support for Rx, S/G, PZR
    • •Protect the systems from debris after a HELB
  2. State the Design Basis for the Containment Building
    • •55 psig
    • •@ 283oF
  3. How many and what size wire is in a run of the Containment tendons ?
    90 1/4 inch steel wires
  4. According to the to the EOPs, all pumps will be stopped when the RWST level reach
    60,000 gallons
  5. List the interlocks associated with the containment personnel access hatch
    • both doors can’t be opened at the same time.
    • both equalizing valves can’t be open at the same time.
    • Prevents opening doors with > 1 psid
    • equalizing valve & door must be in same position for door to operate (open/close)
  6. How many inches of water is required on the Containment floor to insure NPSH for RHR pumps
    • •427 inches high
    • •249,000 gals
    • •2.93 feet above the 14 foot elevation
  7. State the Tech Spec associated with the Containment Personnel Access Hatch
    If one containment air lock door is inoperable for > 24 hours, either lock the OPERABLE air lock closed and verify locked closed once/31 days, or SHUT DOWN
  8. What are the requirements for closing the Containment Personnel and Equipment Hatches
    • •15 minutes for the Personnel Hatch
    • •30 min. for the Equipment Hatch /4 bolts
    • •blockages shell be limited order to facilitate removal and closure times
  9. Which of the following is the minimum Spent Fuel Pit Boron Concentration per Tech Specs
    2100ppm
  10. A cavity seal failure has occurred on Unit 3 during a refueling. What describes the impact on a fuel assembly that is upright in the spent fuel pool upender? Assume no operator actions
    Uncovered
  11. A cavity seal failure has occurred on Unit 4 during a refueling. The Tube Gate Valve is open and the SFP keyway is removed. What describes the impact on fuel assemblies in the SFP? Assume no operator actions
    Covered with a few feet of water
  12. According to 3-OP-038.1,Prepartion for Refueling Activities, what must be directly supervised by and SRO in the containment who has no other collateral duties?.
    Control Rod Latching
  13. According to Tech Specs, what correctly describes the minimum amount of time the reactor must be shutdown prior to moving fuel?.
    72 hrs
  14. According to Tech Specs, what correctly describes the minimum number of neutron flux monitors that must be operable in Mode 6?
    2
  15. According to Tech Specs, what correctly describes the maximum time allowed to achieve containment closure if the Equipment Door is open during core alterations and by what means this is accomplished if a fuel handling accident (FHA) occurs?
    30 minutes, designated crew
  16. During refueling operations Tech Specs prohibit movement of loads in excess of _______ over the fuel assemblies in the SFP
    2000lbs
  17. What correctly defines “recently irradiated fuel”?


    Fuel that has been in a critical reactor core within the previous _____
    72 Hrs
  18. What could exist during Mode 6 operation without requiring refueling activities be immediately stopped
    Refueling canal boron concentration is at 1915 ppm
  19. What is the bases for the minimum spent fuel pool level during refueling
    Removal of iodine during a fuel handling accident
  20. What is the bases for the minimum level of 23 feet above the Reactor Vessel Flange
    Removal of one train of RHR for 1 hour
  21. During fuel movement the gripper tube and fuel assembly will indicate approximately ______ lbs. This will prevent exceeding the Manipulator Crane overload limit of _____ lbs ?
    2500, 2700
  22. Region I spent fuel storage racks are ?
    Newer fuel assemblies / packed further apart than Region II
  23. Region II spent fuel storage racks are ?
    Older fuel assemblies / closely packed
  24. The geometric arrangement, packing sequence, boraflex and Metamic lined storage locations ensures a Keff of _____ with and minimum of ____ ppm of borated water
    0.95, 650
  25. During fuel movement the what interlocks are provided on the Manipulator Crane to prevent the gripper from an inadvertent release when loaded ?
    The gripper locking mechanism and air solenoid are prevented from operating
  26. The _________ between assemblies, neutron absorbing material and cell packing criteria ensure a keff of _____ if the SFP is flooded with a minimum of _____ ppm borated water.
    Distance, 0.95, 650
  27. Why is there no auto start feature associated with the Emergency Spent Fuel Pit Pump?
    It must be manually connected
  28. Region I spent fuel storage racks are ?
    Newer fuel assemblies / packed further apart than Region II
  29. Region II spent fuel storage racks are ?
    Older fuel assemblies / closely packed
  30. With irradiated fuel in the SFP, what is the minimum Tech Spec Water Level?
    57’
  31. Which of the following correctly represents the minimum boron concentration for the SFP per Tech Specs?
    2100 ppm
  32. Unit 4 fuel is undergoing shuffle when the suction line to SFP Pump 4A ruptures and cannot be isolated? Assuming the unit is at 100% power and that SFP level was 57 feet when the break occurred what represents the correct actions regarding fuel movement?
    Must stop due to insufficient volume to maintain SFP temperature <200 F
  33. The Containment Post Accident Monitoring System (CPAMS) is comprised of four (4) subsystems that monitor conditions inside the containment building.
    1.Post Accident Hydrogen Monitoring System

    2.Cnmt High Radiation Indication

    3.Cnmt High Range Pressure Indication

    4.Cnmt High Range Level Indication
  34. CONTAINMENT INTEGRITY shall exist when:
    • 1.All penetrations required to be closed during accident conditions are either
    • a.Capable of being closed by an OPERABLE containment automatic isolation valve system
    • b. Closed by manual valves, blind flanges, or deactivated automatic valves secured in their closed positions, except as provided in Specification 3.6.4

    • 2. The equipment hatch is closed and sealed
    • 3. Each air lock is in compliance with the requirements of Specification 3.6.1.3
    • 4. The containment leakage rates are within the limits of Specification 3.6.1.2 and
    • 5. The sealing mechanism associated with each penetration is OPERABLE
  35. The Containment Ventilation and Heat Removal System consists
    • –four (4) normal containment cooling units (NCCUs) and their ductwork
    • –the two (2) Control Rod Drive Mechanism (CRDM) cooling units and associated ductwork
    • –three (3) emergency containment coolers (ECCs)
    • –three (3) emergency containment filters (ECFs)
    • –3 penetration cooling systems
  36. What is the purpose of the Normal Containment Coolers
    Maintains containment temperature at or below 120°F during unit operation.

    Provides suitable atmosphere for personnel access for maintenance after reactor shutdown.

    Cooling to the CRDMs.
  37. What is the design basis for the Normal Containment Coolers
    Ensures a suitable atmosphere for both equipment and personnel during normal operations and maintenance periods.
  38. Normal Containment Coolers Rad Monitoring
    R‑11 and R‑12 ‑ particulate and gaseous activity atmosphere monitors.

    To be operable, PRMS R-11 and R-12 require at least one Normal Containment Cooler to be Running. Do not stop the last Running NCC if R-11 and R-12 are in service.
  39. What is the purpose if the Control Rod Drive Mechinism Coolers
    • Supplement normal containment cooling
    • Provide cooling for CRDMs
    • Direct driven ‑ van axial fan
    • Cooling coil cooled by CCW
    • Located above Rx vessel flowpath
  40. What is the flow path of CRDM Coolers
    • –Containment atmosphere down through CRDM shroud (U3) or baffle (U4)
    • –Around CRDMs
    • –Circular plenum
    • –Ductwork to suction of CRDM cooling unit
    • –Back to containment atmosphere
  41. State the alignment of the containment ventilation in Abnormal Operation
    • All normal ventilation units trip
    • CCW supply and return valves to NCCs close. (Phase A isolation)
    • Restart of normal ventilation (required for RCP operation)
    • Reset p.b. below each fan depressed (following Phase A reset)
    • Open CCW isolations
    • Take control switch to "reset/off" position, then to "on position"
    • Verify cooler starts.
  42. What is the purpose of the containment purge system
    • –Used to purge gases and radioactivity from the containment atmosphere.
    • –Independent of the Containment and Auxiliary Building ventilation systems.
    • Designed to purge the containment atmosphere for unlimited access during shutdown periods
  43. Describe the Containment Isolation Valves
    Valves are quick closing butterfly valves capable of closing in less than five seconds.

    Valves have mechanical stops installed to limit the valves from opening more than 30% from full closed position to meet the five-second or less closing time requirement.
  44. Describe containment purge under normal operations
    During normal plant operations purge system secured with all isolation valves shut.

    • Purge operations
    • –Ensure limits and precautions met; have purge permit
    • –Open exhaust and supply isolation valves
    • –Start exhaust fan
    • –Start supply fan

    Fuses are pulled to ensure valves are closed & isolated
  45. What is the purpose of the Emergency Cooling Filter System
    • –Cooling and pressure reduction following Design Base Accident
    • –Iodine Filtration following Design Base Accident
    • Cooled by CCW
  46. Describe the design basis for Emergency Cooling and Filtration
    –Prevent exceeding Containment Design Pressure and Temperature as a result of a DBA.

    –Filters reduce Iodine to prevent exceeding off-site radiation dose defined in 10CFR100.

    • Coolers-Assumes 1or 2 of the 3 ECCs and a single Containment Spray pump operable for Post LOCA heat removal and that the second ECC will be running within 24 hours of the event. (Basis for equipment qualification)
    • 1 train of CS or 2/3 ECCs could provide sufficient heat removal capability at 283°F and 100% relative humidity to keep Containment below design limits.
  47. Describe the Emergency Containment Coolers
    • –Direct driven vane axial fans
    • Bare tube cooling coils cooled by CCW
    • Capacity
    • –25,000 CFM
    • –60 x 106 BTU/hr each
    • Location
    • –Above refueling floor around containment wall
    • –Provides individual isolation, prevents recirculation between units.
  48. Describe the ECF Flow Switches
    Consist of a thermal flow sensor located in ECF fan discharge stream. Has electronics unit located in either the 3B or 4B MCC room.

    If an ECF fan has been running for at least 5 minutes and low flow is detected a signal is sent to auto open the spray valve
  49. Describe the swing ECF
    • All 3 ECFs get a start signal from the sequencer. The 3B/4A is a swing ECF. The sequencer that starts the swing ECF is a function of the electrical lineup of the H LC. If normal electrical lineup then B sequencer starts it.
    • If a sequencer fails after initiation of SI and either of the other ECF fans (3A or 3C/4B or 4C) breaker is not closed, the associated swing ECF will be started from the SI signal.

    • Occurs 39 seconds after SI initiation signal
    • Ensure 2 ECFs will be operating after DBA.
  50. What is the purpose of the penetration cooling system
    –To cool penetrations associated with Main Steam and Blowdown, Main Feedwater and Letdown systems.

    –Forced air cooling has been provided at these penetrations to cool the space between the liner plate closures and the penetrations in the containment concrete wall.
  51. What is the design basis for the penetration cooling system
    • –Do not provide any quality or safety related functions and are not identified in the Technical Specifications.
    • –Temperature requirements for the concrete.
    • The maximum temperature for general concrete structures is 1500 F.
    • Localized areas (e.g. penetrations) are allowed to have a maximum temperature of 2000 F for long term operation and

    A maximum allowable temperature of 3500 F for accident or short-term conditions
  52. Describe the operations of the penetration cooling system
    • –NORMAL OPERATIONS
    • A penetration Cooling Fan should be operating anytime the penetration has hot (150°F or greater) fluid passing through it.
    • –ABNORMAL OPERATIONS
    • Should the operating fan trip, the standby fan will auto start providing the control switch is selected to AUTO.

    Should both Penetration Cooling Fans be Out of Service, operation must comply with special requirements:
  53. Any material not part of any system or component asdesigned or modified. This includes unexpected dirt and debris, tools,equipment, combustible materials, machine tailings, grinding particles, trimmedpieces of lock wire and electrical wire, paint chips, leak sealing compounds,unapproved chemicals, or any other item or residue which left inside thesystem, could adversely affect its operation, components or chemistry.
    Foreign Material (FM)
  54. A work area around an open process,instrumentation or electrical component, which may be surrounded by aphysical boundary with signs. This requires specific controls to prevent theintroduction of foreign material into the system, components or processesduring work activities that could impact plant safety or power generation. Thisshould include a review of overhead areas and adjacent work activities
    Foreign Material Exclusion Area (FMEA)
  55. A zone or area established when a loss of FME integrity could resultin personnel injury, nuclear fuel failure, reduced safety system or stationavailability, or an outage extension or significant cost for recovery. This is thehighest level of FME control imposed on a system or component. Also established in situations where a final visual inspection of internalcleanliness prior to system closure is not possible due to configuration or othercircumstances, such as ALARA concerns, etc. Additionally, controls may be applied based on risk to systems, components, or structures for whichthe introduction of FM could be irreversible
    FMEA 1
  56. An FMEA established in situations where a final visual inspection ofinternal cleanliness prior to system closure is possible
    FMEA 2
  57. A physical boundary around an area or task, generallyconsisting of a rope and a sign visibly identifying a specific area as a FMEA.Boundaries may consist of rope, fabric curtains, metal walls, fencing, or existingstructure and components.
    FMEA Boundary
  58. A log used to keep track of items, tools andparts, including their condition, that are moved in and out of an FMEA
    Material/Tool Accountability Log
  59. An internal device (such as temporary dams and covers, pipeplugs, etc.) or external opening cover installed to prevent foreign materialintrusion
    FME Device
  60. A trained individual(s) assigned to monitor and log the movementof tools and materials in and out of an FMEA
    FME Monitor
  61. Describes an item that is too large to fit through any openings in abreached system.
    Fail-Safe
  62. FME Area 1 Examples
    • –Exciter or generator
    • –Turbine
    • –Filled lube oil reservoir
    • –Spent fuel pool
    • –Cavity with head removed
    • –Pump casing without plugging nozzles
  63. FME Area 2 Examples
    • –Turbine work with nozzles plugged
    • –Empty turbine lube oil reservoir
    • –Pump casings with nozzles plugged
  64. INPO’s List of FMI Problems
    • Nuclear Fuel Clad Damage
    • Major Equipment Damage
    • Heat Transfer Capability Degradation
    • Increased Radiation Levels
    • Increased Discrete Radioactive Particles
    • Increased Radioactive Waste Generation
    • System Flow Characteristics Degradation
    • Unscheduled and Extended Outages
  65. New Fuel Storage shall ensure Keff is (a) _______ with (b) _________ water flooding the storage area and a Keff of (c) ___________ if under an optimum moderator condition.

    a. 0.95 or 0.90 or 0.98
    b. borated or pure or hydrogenated
    c. 0 .90 or 0.98
    a. 0.95 b. pure c. 0.98
  66. The new fuel stored in the new fuel storage area is provided with sufficient center-to-center spacing to ensure:
    Keff of (a) _____, if flooded with unborated water (pure)
    Keff of (b) _____, if under an optimum moderator condition.
    • (a) 0.95
    • (b) 0.98
  67. The distance between assemblies and the boroflex lined cells in the Two Region Spent fuel storage locations ensures a Keff of ___________.
    0.95
  68. State the function of the Control Rod Drive Mechanism Cooling Units.
    Circulating air around the CRDMs to remove heat.
  69. State TWO functions of the Emergency Containment Cooling AND Emergency Containment Filtering System.
    • 1. To provide cooling to the containment atmosphere following a Design Basis Accident (DBA) thus reducing cont. pressure.
    • 2. Filter iodine from the containment atmosphere following a DBA.
  70. State the function of the Containment Purge System.
    Purges the containment atmosphere of noble gases and airborne radioactivity to allow personnel access during shutdown.
  71. What is the purpose of the containment purge system?
    Its purpose is to purge the containment of possible airborne particulate and gaseous activity.
  72. State the function of the "Flow Switch" in the exhaust duct work of the Emergency Containment Filtering Units.
    To detect loss (or a reduction of) air flow leaving the filters once the fans are running AND to open the charcoal spray valves.
  73. What system protects the Emergency containment filter system ¯CHARCOAL¯ filters from excessive heat or fire?
    The Containment Spray System
  74. Name the two radiation monitors that detect particulate and gaseous activity in the containment building.
    • R-11, Particulate
    • R-12, Gaseous
  75. State the design basis Temperature and Pressure for the Containment building.
    • Temperature - 283øF
    • Pressure - 55 Psig
  76. The containment purge supply and exhaust Containment Isolation Valves are designed to close in less than ________ seconds.
    5 seconds
  77. State the approximate Component Cooling Water flow rate through each Emergency Containment Cooler during accident conditions.
    2000 GPM
  78. What causes heat generation in the charcoal filter during accident operation
    The Decay of Iodine-131 produces heat.
  79. Describe why BOTH Control Rod Drive Mechinism (CRDM) cooling units are in operation during normal reactor operation.
    To prevent reverse rotation of the Non-operating fan due to Damper Leakage
  80. State the nominal BYPASS flow of component cooling water that must be established for each Emergency Containment Cooler.
    200 GPM
  81. During normal operations (100% power) _____CRDM cooler(s) should be running and ______ CRDM cooler(s) should be in standby.
    2,0
  82. During normal operations, _______ normal containment cooler(s) should be running and______ normal containment cooler(s) should be in standby.
    3,1
  83. Describe the Cooling Air flow path for the control rod drive mechanisms
    Air is drawn from the containment atmosphere down through the CRDM shroud. Around the shroud is a circular plenum with holes in it which is connected to the CRDM cooling unit by ductwork.

    Air is drawn through the plenum, after passing around the CRDM's through the suction side ductwork, through the CRDM cooler dampers, into the cooling unit, and discharged back to the containment atmosphere.
  84. State the MAJOR components that makeup the containment purge system.
    • 1. Two purge supply and,
    • 2. Two purge exhaust fans
    • 3. Purge and exhaust roughing filters, (one each)
    • 4. Four containment isolation valves, (one inside and one outside of both the purge supply & exhaust lines).
  85. Is it necessary to obtain a purge permit prior to beginning a Containment purge?
    Yes
  86. What is the basis for stopping the Containment Purge Supply Fan before stopping the Containment Purge Exhaust Fan?
    This prevents the containment from becoming pressurized by having the supply fan running with no exhaust fan running.
  87. List four (4) signals that will ¯directly¯ initiate containment ventilation isolation.
    • 1. High Containment Radiation as monitored by R-11
    • 2. High Containment Radiation as monitored by R-12
    • 3. Any Safety Injection
    • 4. Phase "A" isolation signal manual PB
    • 5. Phase "B" isolation signal manual PB
  88. State the temperature setpoint at which the containment spray valves must be manually opened by the RCO to supply water to the Emergency Containment Filter Systems charcoal filters.
    325oF
  89. In the event of the Containment Activity Monitor alarming, causing the Containment Purge Isolation valves to close, what two other automatic actions would occur from this actuation?
    • 1. Instrument air bleed valves would close.
    • 2. Control room ventilation isolation actuates
  90. State 2 functions of the primary shield wall.
    • 1. support the reactor vessel
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
  91. State 2 functions of the upper secondary shield wall
    • 1. support the 58ft level
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
    • 4. provide support for the 30ft 6 in level
  92. State 2 functions of the lower secondary shield wall
    • 1. support the 30 ft level
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
  93. State the function of the containment recirculation sumps.
    The recirculation sumps are used to provide a suction to the RHR pumps following a LOCA.
  94. State the function of the Containment sump
    To collect leakage from any system in containment & pump that leakage to the #1 Waste Hold Up Tank.
  95. How would the effects of a local earthquake be monitored at Turkey Point?
    With the seismograph. (Located in the unit 3 south electrical penetration room)
  96. In what modes, is Containment Integrity required?
    Modes 1 through 4
  97. The containment sump is located on the _______ft level, whereas the containment recirculation sumps are located on the _______ft level of containment.
    -23 Ft , 14 ft
  98. Where are the cavity drain valves (12-001 & 12-002) located?
    At the northeast end of the cavity on the 14 ft level.
  99. Where are the recirculation sumps located?
    On the 14 ft level of containment at the northeast end & the southeast end of the cavity.
  100. Where are the pressure transmitters and pressure switches located that monitor the containment pressure?
    On the top level of the (south) electrical penetration room.
  101. What indication does the control room operator have for the personnel hatch & escape hatch door position ?
    Each door has a position switch which causes its associated door position light on VPB to illuminate when the when the door is opened
  102. What prevents opening a personnel air-lock door with a pressure differential across the door.
    An Interlock that will only allow the door to open if the differential pressure across the is less than 1 psid
  103. The personnel air lock doors have interlocks associated with their operation. These interlocks are designed to prevent opening both air lock doors at the same time which could violate Primary CONTAINMENT INTEGRITY. List three (3) interlocks associated with the personnel air lock doors.
    • 1. Both air lock doors cannot be opened at the same time.
    • 2. An air lock door cannot be opened if the associated equalizing valve is open.
    • 3. An equalizing valve cannot be closed unless the associated air lock door is closed.
    • 4. Both equalizing valves cannot be opened at the same time.
    • 5. The inside air lock door cannot be opened with the air lock pressure ò 1 psig above containment pressure.
    • 6. The outside air lock door cannot be opened with the atmosphere pressure ò 1 psig above air lock pressure.
  104. Of the 4 containment building functions, state the one that directly protects the health & safety of the public.
    Barrier against fission product release.
  105. Name THREE(3) of the FOUR(4) Functions of the Containment Building.
    • 1. Barrier against fission product release
    • 2. Equipment & Component Protection
    • 3. Structural Support
    • 4. Missile barrier protection
  106. Of the 4 containment building functions, state the one that Hurricane Andrew unsucessfully challenged.
    Equipment & component protection (from the environment)
  107. Of the 4 containment building functions, state the one that prevents catastrophic failure of one component from damaging another.
    Missile barrier protection
  108. Of the 4 containment building functions, state the one that limits movement of RCS piping.
    Provides structural support for systems.
  109. State 2 functions of the primary shield wall.
    • 1. support the reactor vessel
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
  110. State 2 functions of the upper secondary shield wall.
    • 1. support the 58ft level
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
    • 4. provide support for the 30ft 6 in level
  111. State 2 functions of the lower secondary shield wall
    • 1. support the 30 ft level
    • 2. provide radiation shielding
    • 3. provide missile barrier protection
  112. State the function of the containment recirculation sumps
    The recirculation sumps are used to provide a suction to the RHR pumps following a LOCA.
  113. State the function of the Containment sump.
    To collect leakage from any system in containment & pump that leakage to the #1 Waste Hold Up Tank.
  114. How much blockage can the containment recirculation sumps endure and still perform its intended function?
    100% of one screen and 50% of the other
  115. In what modes, is Containment Integrity required?
    In modes 1 through 4
  116. One function of the Spent Fuel Pool Purification System is to purify the a)__________ or the b)________________.
    • Spent Fuel Pool (pit) water (SFP)
    • Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST)
  117. State the function of the Spent Fuel Pool Skimmer Loop
    Removes the surface debris from the Spent Fuel Pit water.
  118. The function of the SFP filters in the SFP Purification Loop is to remove

    a) ____________ matter and
    b) ____________ fines from the water.
    • a. Particulate
    • b. resin
  119. The Spent Fuel Pool cooling and purification loop on one unit consists of a)_________ pump(s), b)__________ heat exchanger(s), c)___________ demineralizer(s) and d)___________ filter(s).
    • a) 3 pumps
    • b) 1 heat exchanger
    • c) 1 demineralizer
    • d) 3 filters
  120. List (in order of preference per 3-OP-033, "Spent fuel Pit Cooling System") the (4) four sources of makeup water to the Spent Fuel Pool.
    • 1. Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST)
    • 2. Primary Water System (PWST)
    • 3. Demineralized Water System (WTP)
    • 4. CVCS Holdup Tanks
  121. The Spent Fuel Pool Purification Loop maximum allowable temperature is ___________________________.
    140øF
  122. The Spent Fuel Pool demineralizer discharge valve is adjusted to maintain purification flow < (a) ___________ gpm.
    The SFP water has a temperature restriction of ó (b)__________øF for resin considerations.
    • a. 100 gpm
    • b. 140øF
  123. State the reason, the Spent Fuel Pit (SFP) water temperature is restricted to a maximum of 140øF when in the Purification Loop.
    Temperatures in excess of 140øF tend to breakdown the resin exchange capability of the beads (Resin beads start to melt)
  124. What design feature and restrictions are considered when placing spent fuel or new fuel in the racks to ensure criticality does NOT occur in the Spent Fuel Pool?
    Fuel racks designed in regions with center-to-center distance to ensure < .95 keff for spent fuel (0.5) (even if unborated water is used). AND We are only allowed the place fuel elements of certain enrichment in designated regions.
  125. State the location of the valves used to drain the Spent Fuel Pit Transfer Canals on each unit. (valves 12-028, 12-029 & 12-030)
    Unit 3 _______________________________________
    _______________________________________

    Unit 4 _______________________________________
    _______________________________________
    • Unit 3 - In the BAST room. (* At floor level between the Batch Tank & "C" BAST.)
    • Unit 4 - In U-4 Charging pump room.(*At floor level on the South side of the non-regenerative Hx.)
  126. Where is the RWST purification pump located?
    On the West side of the RWST.
  127. Where is valve 821 (Primary/Demineralized water make-up to SFP) located?

    A. On Unit 3 ________________________________________

    B. On Unit 4 ________________________________________
    • A. On the SFP Hx outlet piping above the SFPHX.
    • B. On the SFP Hx outlet piping above the SFPHX
    • (same as A).
  128. List the TWO (2) sources of Borated Water that makeup to the Spent Fuel Pit.
    • 1. Refueling Water Storage Tank
    • 2. CVCS Holdup Tank
  129. A. What valve is used to fill the SFP with primary water?
    B. What valve is used to fill the SFP with demineralized water?
    • A. 821
    • B. 821
  130. State the valves by number/name that isolate the RWST purification flow path.

    A. _____

    B. _____
    • 802A (Refueling Water Purification Pump to SFP Demin isolation).
    • 805A/B (Refueling Water Storage Tank to Refueling Water Purification Pump iolation).
  131. State the valves by number that isolate the SFP purification loop.

    A. ______

    B. ______
    • A. 798A
    • B. 798B
  132. The Spent Fuel Pool Cooling Loop - Flow Range is: __________ GPM to ______________ GPM
    2200+/-50 GPM to 2300+/-50 GPM
  133. The Spent Fuel Pool Purification Loop maximum allowable flow is __________________________.
    <100 gpm
  134. The Spent Fuel Pool Cooling Loop - CCW Flow Range is: __________ GPM to ______________ GPM
    1500 GPM to 1900 GPM
  135. What is the function of the Post Accident Containment Ventilation System?
    Provide a vent path from Containment to either the Waste Disposal System or Plant Vent (Stack) to prevent reaching explosive concentrations of oxygen and hydrogen in the containment.
  136. State the function of the Containment Pressure Monitor.
    Provide the Control Room Operator with continuous, redundant indication of containment pressure in both narrow and wide ranges
  137. List the four subsystems that makeup the Containment Post Accident Monitoring System (CPAMS).
    • 1. Post Accident Containment H2 Monitoring System
    • 2. containment water level monitors
    • 3. containment pressure monitors
    • 4. containment high range radiation monitors
  138. State the function of the Post Accident Hydrogen Monitoring System.
    Provides (redundant/primary-backup) indication, recording, and annunciation (in Auxiliary Building and Control Room) for H2 concentration in containment atmosphere
  139. State the function of the Containment Water Level Monitoring System
    Provides (redundant, remote) indication, recording and annunciation for containment sump (narrow range) and containment water level (wide range)(0.5).
  140. State the function of the Containment High Range Radiation Monitors.
    Provide (the control room operator) with continuous, redundant indication and historical record of containment radiation levels
  141. The Post Accident Sampling System is designed to enable sampling within (a) _________ hours of an accident without exceeding the (b)_________ Rem whole body or its equivalent to any part of the body for the (c)_________________ of the accident.
    • (a) 3 hours
    • (b) 5
    • (c) duration
  142. On a valid SI (Safety Injection), the Post Accident Hydrogen Monitors are required to be in service within ______________ minutes.
    30
  143. List four (4) of the six (6) analyses that the Post Accident Sampling System (P.A.S.S.) is capable of performing.
    • 1. Hydrogen
    • 2. pH
    • 3. Chlorides
    • 4. Oxygen
    • 5. Boron
    • 6. Isotopic Analysis
  144. State the reason that the lines carrying the Post Accident Sampling System AIR SAMPLES from containment are maintained between 300 øF and 340 øF.
    To prevent Iodine from plating out in the lines.
  145. What is the concern with excessive hydrogen concentrations in the post-LOCA containment atmosphere?
    Possibility of achieving an explosive atmosphere.
  146. What are three sources of hydrogen in the post accident containment atmosphere?
    • 1) Hydrogen off-gas of the RCS.
    • 2) Radiolytic decomposition of water
    • 3) Zirconium/water reaction
    • 4) Aluminum decomposition
  147. State the location of the Unit 3 Primary and Backup Post Accident Hydrogen Monitor Cabinets.
    Primary ______________________________
    Backup ______________________________
    • Primary - PASS Room
    • Backup - 4-foot elevation of auxiliary building
  148. Where are the hydrogen and oxygen bottles for the Post Accident Hydrogen Monitoring System located?
    • 1. Oxygen bottles near the PASS room and Chemistry Lab in the Auxiliary Building.
    • 2. Hydrogen bottles are located in the Auxiliary Building roof.
  149. How are the Post Accident Hydrogen Monitoring System and Post Accident Containment Ventilation System interconnected?
    Both the primary and backup PAHMS Monitors take suction between the Containment isolation valves for the PACVS.
  150. The Post Accident Hydrogen Monitoring System (PAHMS) will alarm when Hydrogen Concentration in Containment reaches ___% hydrogen.
    4
  151. State the reason for the alarm associated with the Containment Water Level Monitors.
    Indicates sufficient recirculation Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) for the Safeguard equipment. (RHR pumps)
Author
ereim
ID
60713
Card Set
SFP Cooling/Handling/Containment
Description
SFP Cooling/Handling/Containment
Updated

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