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Microbiology Dr. Guy's

  1. What year did von Leeuwenhoek discover the first microscope?
    1685
  2. What did von Leeuwenhoek do in 1685?
    Used first microscope to describe cork, microorganisms in pond water and human mouth
  3. What year was the smallpox vaccine introduced?
    1796
  4. What did Jenner do in 1796?
    Introduce the small pox vaccine
  5. What year did Semmelweis start washing hands before delivery of babies?
    1861
  6. What did Semmelweis do in 1861?
    Wash hands before delivery of babies
  7. What disease was semmelweis aiming to reduce?
    Puerperal fever
  8. Who is the Father of Bacteriology?
    Pasteur
  9. What did Pasteur do in 1861?
    Disproved spontaneous generation by identifying airborne bactria
  10. What did Pasteur do in 1881?
    Developed the anthrax vaccine
  11. What did Pasteur do in 1885?
    Developed Rabies vaccine
  12. When was antiseptic surgery invented? By who?
    1865, Lister
  13. What years did Koch propose Koch's postulates?
    1870 to 1908
  14. What year did Gram introduce Gram Staining?
    1884
  15. What year was acid-fast staining introduced? By who?
    1892, Ziehl and Nielsen
  16. What disease were acid-fast stains developed for?
    TB
  17. Who is the Father of Immunology?
    Ehrlich
  18. What did Ehrlich do? What years?
    1870 to 1915, devised the first drug against bacteria, Proposed the key-in-lock concept of immunology
  19. What did Fleming do? What year?
    1928, discovered Penicillin
  20. What did Salk do? What year?
    1953, developed killed polio vaccine
  21. What did Sabin do? What year?
    1956, developed live virus, oral polio vaccine
  22. What did Lansfield do?
    Classified Streptococcus
  23. What are Koch's Postulates (4)?
    • 1. The organism must be observed in every case of the disease
    • 2. The organism must be isolated and grown in pure culture
    • 3. The organism must cause the disease when injected into a susceptible animal
    • 4. The organism must be recovered from the experimental animal and it's identity confirmed
  24. Are bacteria Procaryotic or Eucaryotic?
    Procaryotic
  25. What is the difference between procaryotes and eukaryotes?
    Procaryotes have no definitive nucleus and no nuclear membrane. Eukaryotes have a true nucleus with a nuclear membrane.
  26. What is the smallest, free-living form of life?
    Bacteria
  27. What are obligate intracellular parasites that depend on the host for ATP production?
    Rickettsia
  28. What are obligate intracellular parasites that have both intracellular and extracellular forms during the life cycle?
    Chlamydia
  29. What is the smallest and simplest of the self-replicating procaryotes which requires cholesterol and resides in mucous membranes?
    Mycoplasm
  30. What are obligate intracellular parasites that contain either RNA or DNA but not both?
    Viruses
  31. What is another name for a virus with a bacterial host?
    Bacteriophage
  32. How do diplococci appear in a culture?
    In pairs
  33. How do tetracocci appear in a culture?
    Groups of 4
  34. How do sarcina appear in a culture?
    Groups of 8
  35. What shape are cocci?
    Round
  36. What shape are bacillus?
    Rod-like
  37. What shape are spirrila?
    Spiral
  38. What shape are vibrio?
    comma-shaped
  39. Do bacteria have a nuclear membrane?
    No
  40. What nucleic acids do bacteria contain?
    single-stranded DNA and small amounts of RNA and RNA polymerase
  41. What organelles does bacteria cytoplasm contain?
    None
  42. What is the cell wall of a Gram positive bacteria made from?
    Peptidoglycans (thick)
  43. What is the cell wall of a Gram negative bacteria made from?
    Peptidoglycan (thin) and Lipopolysaccharide (thick)
  44. What type of toxin are lipopolysaccharides? What is their toxicity associated with?
    Endotoxin, Lipid A
  45. What is the function of the capsule of a bacteria?
    Protects the bacteria from phagocytosis
  46. What is another name for Glycocalyx? What properties does it give to the cell?
    "slime layer", adhesive properties
  47. What are the two types of appendages of bacteria?
    Flagella and Fimbriae (pili)
  48. What does polar mean in reference to flagella?
    Located only in one area of the cell
  49. What does peritrichous mean in reference to flagella?
    Located over the entire cell surface
  50. What are pili? What are the two types of pili? What do they do?
    • Rigid appendages made of protein
    • Ordinary pili (help with adherance)
    • Sex pili (conjugation)
  51. What form of bacteria is resistant to desiccation, heat, and chemicals?
    Endospores
  52. How do bacteria replicate?
    Binary fusion
  53. What are the four stages of the growth cycle of bacteria?
    Lag (adaptation), Log (exponential growth), Stationary (exhaust nutrients, accumulate toxins), Death
  54. What type of microbes require oxygen for growth?
    Obligate aerobes
  55. What type of microbes require an environment lacking oxygen?
    Obligate anaerobes
  56. What type of microbe will grow with or without oxygen?
    Facultative anaerobe
  57. What type of bacteria is the most pathogenic?
    Facultative anaerobes
  58. What temp. do phychrophiles grow in?
    0 to 20 degrees C
  59. What temp. do Mesophiles grow in?
    20 to 45 degrees C
  60. What type of bacteria is the most important medically?
    Mesophiles
  61. What temp. do Thermophiles grow in?
    45 to 90 degrees C
  62. What are the nutritional requirements of heterotrophs?
    organic compounds
  63. What are the nutritional requirements of autotrophs?
    inorganic compounds
  64. What are the nutritional requirements of saprophyte?
    Lives on dead organic matter
  65. What growth media is used to grow streptococcus?
    Blood agar plate
  66. What growth media is used to grow staphylococcus?
    Mannitol salt agar
  67. What growth media is used to grow Neisseria?
    Thayer Martin (Chocolate) agar
  68. What growth media is used to grow Fungi?
    Sabourad agar
  69. What growth media is used to grow Escheria Coli?
    MacConkey's agar
  70. What stain is used for Streptococcus?
    Gram
  71. What stain is used for Staphylococcus?
    Gram
  72. What stain is used for Mycobacterium?
    Acid fast/Ziehl Nielson
  73. What stain is used for Escheria coli?
    Eosin Methylene Blue
  74. What stain is used for Protozoans?
    Gimesa
  75. What is the total absence of viable microorganisms as assessed by no growth on any medium?
    Sterility
  76. What inhibits the growth of bacteria?
    Baceteriocidal
  77. What is the removal or killing of all microorganisms? Example?
    Sterilization (autoclave 121 C, high pressure)
  78. What is the removal or killing of diseae-causing microorganisms? Example?
    Disinfection (pasteurization)
  79. What is sepsis?
    Infection
  80. What does aseptic mean?
    Without infection
  81. What is any procedure that inhibits the growth or multiplication of microorganisms?
    Antisepsis
  82. What are exotoxins? What are they made of? How potent are they? How sensitive to heat? How specific?
    Toxins released by the organism, made of protein, very potent but labile (sensitive to heat), high specificity
  83. What types of organisms produce exotoxins? Examples (3)?
    Both gram positive and negative. Clostridium tetani (tetanus), Clostridium botulinum (botulism), Corynebacterium diphtheriae (diphtheria)
  84. What are endotoxins? What are they made of? How potent are they? How sensitive to heat? How specific?
    Toxins that are not released until the cell dies made of lipopolysaccharides, less potent than exotoxins but stable to heat, low specificity
  85. What type of organisms produce endotoxins? Examples (3)?
    Only gram negative. Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae, Salmonella
  86. What are the three ways that new characteristics can arise in a bacterial group?
    Transformation, transduction, conjugation
  87. What is the direct uptake of naked DNA fragments through the cell wall? How often does this occur?
    Transformation, rare in nature, usually occurs only in a lab setting
  88. What is phage-mediated (bacterial virus) transfer of host DNA sequence?
    Transduction
  89. What is a one-way transfer of genetic material by means of physical contact?
    Conjugation
  90. What is the genetic material transmitted by conjugation called?
    Plasmids
  91. What does the term "conjugal relations" mean?
    Physical contact which leads to conjugation
  92. What are the 4 steps to gram staining?
    • Apply crystal violet
    • Add iodine
    • Add acetone or alcohol
    • Add safranin
  93. What is the primary stain in gram staining?
    Crystal violet
  94. What is the mordant in gram staining? What is another name for it?
    Iodine, fixer
  95. What is the counterstain in gram staining?
    Safranin
  96. What does the crystal violet do in gram staining?
    Stains all cells blue
  97. What does the iodine do in gram stain?
    Fixes the stain to the gram + bacteria (all cells remain blue at this step)
  98. What does the acetone or alcohol do in gram staining?
    Decolorizes the gram - bacteria
  99. What does safranin do in gram staining?
    stains the gram - bacteria red or pink
  100. What stain is used in Acid fast?
    Carbolfuchsin
  101. What Decolorizer is used in acid fast?
    Acid-alcohol
  102. What counterstain is used in acid fast?
    Loeffler's New Methylene Blue
  103. What colors does acid fast staining produce?
    • Acid fast = red
    • Non-acid fast = blue
  104. What two organisms is acid fast stain primarily used to identify?
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis (in sputum) and Mycobacterium leprae
  105. What does "My Ass is Fast and Red" mean?
    Mycobacterium is Acid Fast and the stain is Red
  106. Which cocci are gram +, which are gram -?
    • Streptococcus and staphyloccus are gram +
    • Neisseria is gram -
  107. What Bacilli are gram +?
    Mycobacteria, bacillus, Corynebacerium, Clostridium
  108. What major problem is caused by Staphylococci? Who does it target?
    Hospital Staph, targets comprimised patients
  109. Description of Staphylococci
    Gram + cocci, form grape-like clusters
  110. What two agars will Staphylococci grow on?
    Mannitol-Salt and Blood
  111. What three toxins does Staphylococci produce? What condition does each cause?
    • 1. Exfoliative --> Scaled-skin syndrome
    • 2. Enterotoxin --> Food poisoning
    • 3. Pyrogenic toxins --> Toxin Shock syndrome
  112. What is the most common of the Staphylococci?
    Staphy Aureus
  113. What age group is scalded skin syndrome prevalent in?
    Children under 4
  114. What does Staph epidermidis cause?
    UTI (primarily in elderly) and skin infections
  115. What does Staph saprophyticus cause?
    UTI (primarily in adolscent girls)
  116. Description of Staph aureus and colonies
    abscess with a central necrotic core of neutrophils, pus and bacteria, yellow colonies on blood agar
  117. What does Staph aureus cause in the skin?
    Conjuctivitis, styes
  118. What does Staph aureus cause in the lungs?
    pneumonia
  119. What does Staph aureus cause in the bones?
    Osteomyelitis
  120. What does Staph aureus cause in the heart?
    Acute bacterial endocarditis
  121. How long does food poisoning from Staph aureus last?
    24 hours
  122. What symptom is unique to food poisoning by Staph aureus?
    No fever
  123. Description of Streptococci
    single, paired or chain Gram + cocci
  124. What are the 3 classes of strep based on hemolysis? Examples (2)?
    • 1. alpha-hemolytic (incomplete lysis- green pigement surrounds colony) - ex. Strep viridans
    • 2. beta-hemolytic (complete lysis- clear area around colony) - ex. Strep Pyogenes
    • 3. Gamma-hemolytic - absence of lysis
  125. What group and class is Strep pyogenes?
    beta-hemolytic, group A
  126. What do Group A Streps contain? What do they produce? What does each product do?
    contain M protein (on fibriae, inhibit phagocytosis), produce Streptolysin S (responsible for beta hemolysis) and Streptolysin O (leukocidal)
  127. What is the ASO titre for rheumatic fever testing for?
    Presence of Streptolysin S and O (Group A Strep)
  128. What does Dick test detect?
    Erythrogenic exotoxin responsible for scarlet fever "scarlet red dick"
  129. What bacteria causes Pharyngitis?
    Group A strep
  130. What bacteria causes Scarlet fever?
    Group A strep
  131. What 2 bacteria can cause Impetigo?
    Group A strep and Staph aureus
  132. What is the difference between cellulitis and erysipelas? What bacteria causes them?
    Cellulitis is a local infxn, erysipelas spreads, they are caused by group A strep
  133. What bacteria causes rheumatic fever? What can rheumatic fever result in?
    Group A strep, mitral stenosis
  134. What are Jones criteria for mitral stenosis?
    SPECS: Syndenhams Chorea, Polyarthritis, Erythema Marginata, Carditis, Subcutaneous Nodules
  135. What is the main Group B Strep? Where is it normally found? What class are they?
    Strep agalactiae, normal in oral and vaginal flora, beta-hemolytic
  136. What are the 3 alpha-hemolytic ungrouped strep?
    Strep viridans, Strep salavarius and Strep mutans
  137. What bacteria can cause acute glomerular nephritis?
    Group A strep
  138. What two bacteria can cause Acute bacterial endocarditis?
    Group A strep and staph aureus
  139. What bacteria can cause Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?
    Strep viridans
  140. What bacteria can cause Dental caries?
    Strep mutans
  141. What class is Strep Pneumoniae? What is its former name? What two diseases can it cause?
    alpha-hemolytic, Diplococcus pneumoniae, Lobar pneumonia and otitis media
  142. What is responsible for Strep pneumoniae's virulence? What test can detect it?
    Capsule, Quellung reaction or test
  143. Description of Mycobacteria
    Acid-fast, slow growing
  144. What bacteria is found in the footpads of mice and armadillos?
    Mycobacteria Leprae
  145. What reaction does Mycobacteria stimulate in the body?
    cell-mediated or delayed hypersensitivity (type IV)
  146. What 2 Mycobacterium cause tuberculosis?
    M. tuberculosis and M. bovis
  147. How do you contract TB? What organ does it attack first?
    Droplet inhalation or contaminated food, attacks lungs first
  148. What is Ghon complex? What does it cause in a healthy individual? What does it cause in an unhealthy individual?
    • Ghon complex = lesions in lungs + lesions in regional lymph nodes
    • if healthy: --> fibrosis --> calcification --> heal
    • if unhealthy: --> spreads through blood --> military TB
  149. What are 4 ways TB can be diagnosed?
    Chest X-ray, cough, acid-fast stain of sputum, skin test
  150. What are 3 names for the skin test for TB?
    PPD (purified protein derivative), Tine, Mantoux
  151. What vaccine is ued for TB?
    BCG (Bacillus Calumete Guerin)
  152. What is another name for leprosy? What bacteria causes leprosy?
    Hansen's disease, Mycobacterium leprae
  153. What system does leprosy affect?
    nerve cells (PNS)
  154. What type of leprosy occurs in a healthy person?
    Tuberculoid leprosy (one to three cutaneous lesions containing few organisms)
  155. What type of leprosy occurs in an unhealthy person?
    Lepromatous leprosy (multiple nodular skin lesions loaded wiht organisms)
  156. How is leprosy diagnosed?
    Clinical symptoms, lepromin skin test, NOT by culture
  157. What type of diseases do bacillus cause? How is it transmitted?
    zoonotic diseases, transmitted via spores
  158. What are the two species of bacillus? What diseases do they cause?
    • Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax
    • Bacillus cereus causes gastroenteritis
  159. What does Bacillus anthracis do in the body?
    Produces a very potent exotoxin that causes CNS distress, respitory failure and anoxia
  160. What are the two manifestations of anthrax? How often does each occur? How does the spore enter? How fatal is each?
    • Cutaneous- 95%, enter cut in skin, fatal 10%
    • Pulmonary- 5%, breathe in, fatal 50%
  161. What is another name for Pulmonary anthrax? Why is it called this?
    Wool Sorters' disease, comes from making sheeps wool
  162. What does Bacillus cereus do in the body? (2 forms)
    Produces an enterotoxin which will cause either emetic (nausea/vomit) or diarrheal
  163. What disease does corynebacterium cause? What does it produce?
    Diphtheria, potent exotoxin
  164. What does the DPT vaccine contain (the D part)?
    toxoid (diptheria toxin inactivated)
  165. What age group does C. diphtheriae target?
    infants and young children
  166. What characteristics do C. diphtheriae show on gram stain (2)?
    "chinese-character", Babes-Ernst bodies --> "Corny Babes with Chinese faces
  167. What type of diphtheria is caused by C. diphtheriae? What forms in this disease?
    Pharyngeal diphtheria, forms pseudomembranes --> "bull neck"
  168. What tissues become damaged in diphtheria?
    heart and nervous system (paralysis of throat muscles and polyneuritis of lower extremeties)
  169. What test is used for diphtheria?
    Schick Test
  170. Description of Clostridium
    Anaerobe, spore-forming, ubiquitous soil organism (found everywhere)
  171. Description of Clostridium toxin
    Pre-formed toxins, released at site of infection, most potent of known toxins
  172. What does Clostridium perfinges cause?
    myonecrosis (gas gangrene)
  173. What are the two main treatments for gas gangrene?
    Antitoxin, hyperbaric oxygen therapy
  174. What does Clostridium botulium cause?
    Food poisoning and infant botulism
  175. What type of toxin does C. botulinum release?
    Pre-formed neurotoxin (exotoxin)
  176. What does the C. botulinum cause?
    Flaccid paralysis due to supression of ACH release
  177. What type of toxin is released by C. tetani? What does it do?
    Exotoxin, inhibits the release of acetylcholinesterase (the enzyme that breaks down ACH at the myoneural junction)
  178. What occurs in the body as a result of C. tetani?
    the exotoxin obliterates the inhibitory reflex response resulting in uncontrolled impulses --> Trimus (lockkjaw) and back arching, respiratory failure
  179. What is the primary treatment of tetanus?
    Antitoxin injection
  180. What does Clostridium difficile cause in the body?
    Severe gastroenteritis leading to circulatory collapse
  181. Description of Neisseria
    Gram - diplococci, pyogenic
  182. What does Neisseria gonorrheae cause? What is the primary age group?
    gonorrhea, 15 to 25
  183. Symptoms of gonorrhea?
    infection of mucous membrane in anterior urogenital tract --> urethritis, thick yellow purulent exudate
  184. Complications of gonorrhea? (3)
    Sterility, pharyngitis, Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  185. What does gonorrhea cause in newborns?
    ophthalmia neonatorum (conjunctivitis --> blindness)
  186. What does Neisseria meningtidis cause? What age group?
    meningococcemia, 6 months to 2 years
  187. What is waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome? (5)
    meningiococcemia with hemorrhage, circulatory failure, adrenal insufficiency
  188. What can N. meningitidis result in? (3)
    Waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome, CN VIII deafness and/or CNS damage
  189. What organisms are included in the enterobacteriaceae? (5)
    Escherichia, Klebsiella, Proteus, Shigella, Salmonella
  190. What are the two major pathologies of enterobacteriaceae?
    nosocomial (hospital acqired) and gastrolintestinal infection
  191. Description of enterobacteriaceae?
    gram - rods inhabit the large intestine
  192. What does Escherichia coli ferment?
    lactose
  193. What does Escherichia coli cause? (6)
    Traveler's diarrhea, UTI, gastroenteritis, aspiration, pneumonia, neonatal meningitis and septicemia
  194. What does Klebsiella cause? (2)
    pneumonia and UTI (red current jelly sputum)
  195. What does proteus cause? (3)
    pneumonia, UTI, bacteremia
  196. What is unique about proteus?
    Highly motile (numerous flagella)
  197. What 2 bacteria can cause shigellosis? Which is the most common? What is shigellosis?
    Shigella sonnei, Shigella dysenteriae, S. sonnei is the most common, bacillary dysentery
  198. What does Salmonella typhimurium cause?
    Gastroenteritis
  199. What does Salmonella enteritidis cause?
    Gastroenteritis
  200. What does Salmonells typhi cause?
    Typhoid fever
  201. What do many species of Salmonella cause?
    Septicemia
  202. What are the sources of S. enteridis or S. typhimurium?
    poultry, food handlers, exotic pets
  203. How long does gastroenteritis from Salmonella last?
    8 to 48 hours (self-limiting)
  204. Where does S. typhi come from?
    contaminated food or water
  205. How is Typhoid fever diagnosed?
    blood cultures, headaches and daily fever (102 to 105), "rose spots" (typhoid rosi)
  206. What percent of people who contract typhoid fever remain carriers? Where is the organism stored?
    3%, gall bladder and Peyer's patches
  207. Where does septicemia from Salmonella usually originate?
    nosocromial (hospitals)
  208. What is the mortality rate of septicemia from salmonella?
    30% to 50%
  209. What does vibrio cause? What type of toxin does it release?
    cholera, enterotoxin
  210. Where does cholera come from?
    contaminated water or food
  211. What are the symptoms of cholera?
    "rice-water" stools, intense vomiting
  212. What is a potential danger of cholera?
    Metabolic acidosis and hypovolemic shock caused by copious fluid loss
  213. Where is cholera a problem currently?
    India and Bangladesh
  214. What occurs after 2 or 3 days of cholera?
    remission or death
  215. What is the treatment for cholera?
    Fluids and electrolytes
  216. Description of Haemophilus
    pyogenic cocci
  217. What does Haemophilus influenzae cause? What can it become?
    upper respiratory tract infection --> acute bacteria meningitis
  218. What age is acute bacterial meningitis most prevalent in? What are the associated symptoms? (4)
    3 months to 6 years, hydrocephalus, mental retardation, otitis media, sinusitis
  219. What does H. aegyptius cause?
    Bacterial Conjunctivitis (pink eye, "Egyptian eyes")
  220. What are the symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis? How contagious is it?
    highly contagious, purulent discharge from eyes (note: viral conjunctivitis does not contain cause pus from eyes)
  221. What does H. ducreyi cause?
    Genital tract infections resulting in soft, painful chancres
  222. What does bordetella cuase? What is the predominant age group? What vaccine is it part of?
    Pertussis (whooping cough), under 1 year, DPT vaccine
  223. What are the symptoms of Pertussis?
    paroxysmal cough, anoxia, vomiting
  224. What are the possible results from Pertussis?
    • 1/3rd recover without issues
    • 1/3rd develop neurological issues
    • 1/3rd have servere coma, convulsions, blindness or paralysis
  225. Description of pseudomonas
    small, flagellated aerobic, gram - rod, opportunist
  226. What characteristic increases the virulence of Pseudomonas?
    slime layer, makes phagocytosis difficult
  227. In what conditions does Pseudomonas aeruginosa usually occur? (5)
    neutropenia, prolonged antibiotics, severe burns, cystic fibrosis, trauma
  228. What is P. aeruginosa a frequent contaminant of?
    respiratory therapy fluids in hospitals
  229. What color is the pus in P. aeruginosa?
    Blue-green
  230. What does P. aeruginosa cause in the elderly?
    chronic UTI's
  231. What does P. aeruginosa infections smell like?
    Sweet, grape-like
  232. Description of Legionella
    Gram - rod, facultative intracellular parasite
  233. What does legionella produce? What does this product do?
    beta-lactamase, inactivates penicillins and cephalosporins
  234. Where does legionella contaminate?
    air-conditioning cooling towers
  235. What does L. pneumophla cause?
    Legionnaire's disease
  236. How is Legionnaire's disease acquired?
    Inhalation
  237. Who is Legionnaire's disease most common in?
    smokers, transplant recipients, chronic lung disease
  238. Symptoms of legionnaire's disease
    fever and chills, cough, headaches, mental confusion --> severe pneumonia
  239. What type of disease does Brucella cause? Who often has it?
    Zoonotic disease, livestock farmers and meat processors "Bru-Moo-Zoo"
  240. What is the source of Brucella?
    contaminated milk and cheese (pasterization reduces)
  241. What symptoms does brucella cause in cattle? in humans?
    • cattle- abortions
    • human- undulent fever
  242. What 3 organisms cause Brucellosis?
    Brucella suis, Brucella melitensis, Brucella abortus
  243. How does the replication of Brucella occur?
    Intracellular multiplication in the marcrophages of the reticuloendothelial system
  244. Symptoms of Brucellosis?
    granulomas in RE system (spleen, liver, bone marrow and lymph nodes), relapses of fever (acute), muscle weakness, arthralgias (chronic - up to 12 months)
  245. What type of disease does Leptospira cause? How do you contract it?
    Zoonotic disease, urine of wild rodents or domestic animals enter through mucous membranes or broken skin
  246. What organs does Leptospira localize in?
    kidney, liver or CNS
  247. What 2 bacteria can cause Weil's disease?
    Leptospira interrogans and Leptospira ictohemorrhagica ("Spiral of Wheels")
  248. What are the two phases of Weil's disease?
    Acute icteric stage, chronic stage
  249. What 2 things can occur in chronic Weil's disease? What is the cause of death in Weil's disease?
    Jaundice and nephritis, cause of death is kidney failure
  250. What kind of disease does Yersinia cause? What is the source? (2)
    Zoonotic, infected fleas carried by rats (plague) or contaminated food/water (yersiniosis)
  251. Description of Plague
    Plague or Black death is rapidly progressive, very contagious and highly fatal
  252. What bacteria causes the plague?
    Yersinia pestis ("Pesty little plague from that irritating flea")
  253. What bacteria causes yersiniosis?(2)
    Yersinia pseudotuberculosis or Y. enterolitica
  254. Where do Yersinia organisms migrate in the Plague? (4) What symptoms do they cause? (3)
    Migrate to regional lymph nodes, spleen, liver, lungs, cause sudden fever, conjunctivitis and regional bubos (swollen lymph nodes)
  255. What is the difference between the Bubonic plague and Pneumonic Plague?
    • Bubonic (black death) results directly from a flea bite, fatal in 50 to 70%, death in 3 to 5 days
    • Pneumonic results from respiratory droplets transmitted human to human, death in 99% occurs in 2 days
  256. What is Yersiniosis? What is the treatment? How often is it fatal?
    Severe gastrointestinal disease, treat with fluids and electrolytes, fatal in 50%
  257. Description of Treponema
    cork-screw shaped, motile organism
  258. What does Treponema cause? What are the names of the diseases? (3) How long do they last?
    chronic, painless infections: syphilis (transmitted sexually), yaws and pinta (not sexually transmitted), may last 30 to 40 years
  259. What disease does each subspecies of Treponema pallidum cause?
    • pallidum - syphilis
    • pertenue - yaws
    • carateum - pinta
  260. What is the difference between the three subspecies of Treponema pallidum?
    None, only the clinical manifestations
  261. What test is used for T. pallidum infection?
    VDRL
  262. What are the symptoms of primary syphilis? (3)
    • hard, painless chancre
    • erythema
    • ulceration
  263. What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis? (2)
    • mucocutaneous rash
    • lesions in almost all tissues
  264. What are the symptoms of tertiary syphilis? (3) What does it lead to?
    CNS problems (tabes dorsalis, Argyll Robertson pupil), gumma aortitis (ascending aortic aneurysm) --> liquifaction necrosis (death)
  265. Does syphilis cross the placenta?
    Yes
  266. What does syphilis cause when it crosses the placenta?
    Abortion, stillbirth, birth defects
  267. What are the symptoms of yaws?
    localized, ulcerated red papules --> generalized spreading lesions (Frambesia)
  268. What are the symptoms of Pinta?
    epidermal or dermal infection --> depigmentation of the skin
  269. What type of disease does Francisella cause? what is the name of the disease? Who can it affect?
    Zoonotic, Tularemia (rabbit fever), affects humans, rabbits and rodents
  270. How is Tularemia contracted?
    Ingestion or handling of infected animals or bite of an insect (ticks, deer flies)
  271. What are the symptoms of tularemia? (6)
    fever, headache, painful adenopathy, back pain, chills, prostration
  272. What are the sites of entry? (4) Which is the most common?
    Skin (most common), eye, lung, GI (regional symptoms occur according to site of entry)
  273. Can relapses occur in tularemia?
    Yes because of intracellular residence
  274. What type of disease does Borrelia cause? How is it transmitted?
    Zoonotic, transmitted by ticks (lyme disease) or lice (relapsing fever), infect man accidentally
  275. What areas of the US have lyme disease?
    Minnesota, Wisconsin, NE seaboard
  276. When is the highest incidence of lyme disease?
    Summer months (tick season)
  277. How does lyme disease spread in the body?
    It is a blood infection, spreads to nerves, heart and joints
  278. What are the symptoms of stage 1 lyme disease? (7)
    erythema chronica migrans ("Bulls eye lesion"), malaise, fever, chills, stiff neck, aches and pains for several weeks
  279. What are the symptoms of stage 2 lyme disease? (2)
    neural and heart problems
  280. What are the symptoms of stage 3 lyme disease? (2)
    Joint problems (arthritis) and neural dysfunction
  281. What type of infection is relapsing fever? What are the symptoms? (4) How long do the symptoms last?
    Blood infection, high fever, chills, headache, drenching sweats, lasts for a few days, abates for several days or weeks, may return 4 to 10 times
  282. Description of Chlamydia
    Obligate intracellular parasite
  283. What does Chlamydia psittaci cause?
    Psittacosis (Parrot fever)
  284. What does Chlamydia trachomatis cause?
    Trachoma (chronic keratoconjunctivitis) and lymphogranuloma venerum
  285. What are the symptoms of psittacosis?
    respiratory disease, fatal pneumonia, begins as influenza
  286. What is the most common sexually transmitted disease?
    Chlamydia Trachoms
  287. What is the 2nd most common STD?
    Neisseria gonorrhea
  288. Is chlamydia always sexually transmitted?
    No
  289. What does sexually trasmitted C. Trachoma cause?
    Urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis and pelvic inflammatory disease
  290. What does C. Trachoma cause in infants?
    inclusion conjuctivitis
  291. What are the reservoirs for Rickettsia? What are the vectors?
    rats/rodents are the reservoirs, arthropods (ticks, fleas, mites, lice) are the vectors
  292. What disease does Rickettsia ricketsii cause? What are the symptoms? Vector?
    • Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
    • ticks
    • rash on wrist and ankles, fever, headache, myalgia
  293. What disease does Rickettsia Prowazeckii cause? What are the symptoms? Vector?
    • Epidemic Typhus
    • lice/louse
    • fever, headache, flu, maculopapular rash on trunk
  294. Brill-Zinsser results years after what infection?
    Rickettsia Prowazeckii
  295. What disease does Rickettsia Mooseri cause? What are the symptoms? Vector? What is another name for it?
    • Endemic typhus
    • fever and macular rash and lymphadenopathy, fleas
    • R. typhi
  296. What disease does Rickettsia Tsutsugamushi cause? What are the symptoms? Vector? What is another name for it?
    • Scrub typhus/tropical fever
    • fever, macular rash and lymphadenopathy
    • Mite/chigger
    • R. Orientalis
  297. What disease does Rickettsia Quintana cause? What are the symptoms? Vector? When was is prevalent?
    • Trench fever
    • fever, dizziness, severe back and leg pain, transient rash
    • louse
    • WWI and WWII
  298. What disease does Rickettsia burnetti cause? What are the symptoms? How is it contracted? What is another name for it?
    • Q fever
    • sudden fever, headache, malaise
    • transmitted by cattle, sheep, goats via inhalation of infected aerosals or infected milk
    • Coxiella burnetti
  299. What is the smallest and simplest of the bacteria?
    Mycoplasm
  300. Description of Mycoplasm
    lack a cell wall and require cholesterol, must live in mucous membranes
  301. What bacteria causes atypical pneumonia?
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  302. What is another name for primary atypical pneumonia? What are the symptoms? What can it develop into?
    • Walking pneumonia
    • Fever, headache, malaise, non-productive cough
    • lobar pneumonia
  303. What age group has the highest incidence of atypical pneumonia?
    children 5 to 15 (accounts for 1/3rd of all pneumonia in teenagers)
  304. Where do DNA viruses replicate?
    Nucleus
  305. Where do RNA viruses replicate?
    Cytoplasm
  306. Which of the viruses are DNA? (5)
    Hepadnaviruses, Herpesviruses, Papoviruses, Poxviruses, Adenoviruses
  307. What family does Hepatitis B virus (HBV) come from? What disease does it cause? What can is progress to?
    Hepadnaviruses family, causes Serum Hepatitis, can progress to a chronic carrier state
  308. What is characteristic of all Herpesviruses? Where do they sequester?
    Latency, sequester in the sensory genome
  309. What are the symptoms of Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1)?
    lip, skin or eye lesions, can progress to encephalitis
  310. Which Herpes virus is there no vaccine for?
    HSV-1
  311. What areas does HSV-2 affect? What can it progress to?
    genital or lips --> carcinoma (uterine cervical)
  312. What type of herpes is neonatal herpes?
    HSV-2
  313. What is another name for Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)? What does it cause? (2)
    Herpes Zoster, causes chicken pox and shingles (severe pain along course of a nerve usually intercostal), lies dormant in neurons
  314. How many people have Cytomegalovirus (CMV)? What family is it from? Who does it affect? (2)
    • 60-90% of adults
    • Herpesviruses
    • Immunocompromised patients and infants (acute infection)
  315. What family is Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) from? What does it cause? What are the sympotoms of this disease?
    • Herpesviruses
    • Infectious Mononucleosis
    • atypical lympocytes (Downey Cells), fever, enlarged lymph nodes
    • "Don't let Mono get you Down, Epstein"
  316. What test can diagnose infectious Mononucleosis? (2)
    Mono Spot Test, Paul Bunnell test
  317. What lymphoma is EBV associated with? What are the characteristics of this lymphoma?
    Burkitt's lymphoma - not limited to lymph nodes and RE system, starry sky appearance, rapidly expanding mass in jaw/cheek
  318. What virus is associated with Chronic Fatigue Syndrome?
    EBV
  319. What family is Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) part of? What does it cause? What is it associated with? How is it transferred?
    • Papovirus
    • Warts and laryngeal papillomas
    • Bengin cervical tumors and vulvar and penile carcinoma
    • Person to person
  320. What family is Variola virus from? What disease does it cause?
    • Poxviruses
    • Smallpox
  321. What do Adenoviruses cause?
    Common cold (most frequent along with Rhinoviruses), conjunctivitis
  322. What type of viruses are in the family Flaviviruses? What species of Flaviviruses are there? (4)
    • RNA
    • Dengue, St.Louis Encephalitis, Yellow Fever, Hepatitis C
  323. What type of virus is Dengue? How is it transmitted?
    Arbovirus transmitted by mosquitos "those Dang Mosquitos"
  324. What type of virus is St. Louis Encephalitis? How is it transmitted?
    Arbovirus transmitted from wild birds to humans via mosquitos
  325. What type of virus is Yellow Fever? How is it transmitted?
    Arbovirus, transmitted from monkeys to humans via aedes egypti mosquitos
  326. What type of virus is HCV? How is it transmitted?
    NOT an arbovirus, parental transmission (needles), often following a blood transfusion
  327. What does Dengue virus cause? What are the symptoms? (5)
    • Break Bone Fever
    • Skin lesions, fever, muscle pain, joint pain, death (often fatal)
  328. What does Yellow Fever Virus cause? Who discovered how it was transmitted?
    • Severe liver damage
    • Walter Reed
    • "the Reeds in Egypt are Yellow"
  329. What nucleic acids do Picornaviruses contain? What species are in this group? (3)
    RNA, Poliovirus, Hepatitis A (HAV), Rhinovirus
  330. What type of disease is Poliovirus usually? What can it cause? What are the symptoms?
    • Usually subclinical
    • If acute --> Poliomyelitis - anterior horn cells are killed resulting in flaccid paralysis (LMNL)
  331. What is another name for HAV? How is it transmitted? Onset? Severity
    • Infectious Hepatitis
    • Fecal-oral (often seafood)
    • Abrupt onset
    • Self-limiting (not severe)
  332. What does Rhinovirus cause?
    Along with Adenovirus, most frequent cause of common cold (URI) - note: cold is different from the flu
  333. What type of virus is Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)? What type of nucleic acid does it contain?
    Retrovirus, RNA
  334. What does HIV do in the body? What enzyme does it contain?
    • Kills helper T-cells (CD4) --> depresses both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
    • Reverse transcriptase
  335. How is HIV diagnosed?
    • ELISA - screening
    • Western Blot - confirmatory
  336. What does HIV result in? Symptoms?
    • AIDS related complex (ARC) then AIDS
    • unusual cancers (Kaposi's sarcoma), severe opportunistic infections (Pneumocystis carinii, symptomatic CMV), AIDS dementia complex
  337. What nucleic acids do Togaviruses contain? What species are in this group? (3)
    RNA, Eastern and Western Equine Encephalitis (EEE and WEE) and Rubella Virus
  338. What type of viruses are EEE and WEE? How are they transmitted? What is the difference between them?
    • Arbovirus
    • Mosquito
    • EEE --> severe encephalopathy
    • WEE --> subclinical
  339. What does Rubella virus cause? When is it dangerous? Why? What vaccine is used?
    • German Measles
    • First 10 weeks of pregnancy
    • Crosses placenta --> Patent Ductus Arteriosis
    • Live Virus
  340. What type of viruses are Influenza? What nucleic acids do they contain?
    Orthomyxoviruses, RNA
  341. Why is Influenza recurrent?
    Antigenic variation (segmental RNA genome)
  342. What types of influenza is Guillian-Barre Syndrome associated with? What is Guillian-Barre? When does it occur?
    • A and B
    • progressive, inflammatory polyneuropathy
    • 3 to 5 weeks after flu or immunization
  343. What is Reye's syndrome associated with? (3) What is it?
    • Follows mild flu (type B), chickenpox (Varicella) or taking asprin
    • Actue encephalopathy
  344. What nucleic acids do Paramyxoviruses contain? What species are in this group? (3)
    • RNA
    • Parainfluenza, Mumps, Rubeola
  345. What is another name for Parainfluenza virus? What does it cause?
    • Sendai virus
    • Croup in infants
  346. What does Mumps cause? What type of vaccine is used?
    • enlargement of one or both parotid glands, painful swelling of testes or ovaries (orchitis)
    • Live virus
  347. What does Rubeola virus cause? Symptoms?
    • Measles
    • Maculopapular rash, fever and respiratory distress, Koplik's Spots on buccal mucosa
  348. What type of virus is Rabies virus? What nucleic acids does it contain?
    Rhabdovirus, RNA
  349. What does Rabies produce in infected cells? Where does it target? How is it transmitted? Unique symptom?
    • Negri bodies (cytoplasmic inclusion bodies)
    • Hippocampus via nerve cells
    • Bite or in rare cases inhalation
    • Fear of water
  350. What does Ebola virus cause? What nucleic acid does it contain?
    • African Hemorrhagic Fever
    • RNA
  351. Are fungi procaryotic or eukaryotic?
    eucaryotic
  352. How do fungi reproduce?
    • Conidia reproduce sexually
    • Spores reproduce asexually
  353. How do yeast reproduce?
    budding
  354. What is another name for filamentous fungi?
    Hyphae
  355. What are dimorphic fungi?
    Exist as filamentous fungi in the environment and yeast in the body
  356. What is Mycotoxicosis? Examples? (2)
    • ingestion of mold containing foods
    • ergot and aflatoxin - grow on grains or peanuts, can be serious
    • aflatoxin - carcinogenic
    • ergot - hallucinogenic
  357. How can fungi be diagnosed?
    Woods Lamp identifies fungi by florescence
  358. What organ do fungi affect first?
    Lungs
  359. What parts of the body do superficial mycoses? What type of symptoms do they have?
    • skin or hair
    • primarily cosmetic symptoms
  360. What does Pityriasis versicolo cause? Where? What is another name for it?
    • hypo- or hyper-pigmented skin
    • usually on trunk
    • Malassesia fur fur
  361. Where does Tinea nigra infect?
    Superficial infection of palmar surfaces
  362. Where does Piedra infect? What are the two forms?
    • hair shaft resulting in breakage
    • white and black - caused by different organsims
  363. Where does cutaneous mycoses infect? What are they called? What are the three types?
    • skin, hair, nails
    • dermatophytes
    • trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton
  364. What is another name for Tinea capitis? Where does it affect? Who does it usually occur in? How is it spread?
    • "Ringworm of the scalp"
    • skin or hair of the head --> hair loss
    • children
    • contagious via hats
  365. Where does Tinea barbae affect? What does it cause?
    • beard, neck, face
    • folliculitis (pustular or dry, scaly lesions)
  366. What is another name for Tinea corporis? Where does it infect?
    • "Classic Ringworm"
    • glabrous (smooth) skin
  367. Where does Tinea cruris affect? What is another name for it?
    • groin
    • "Jock Itch"
  368. What is another name for Tinea pedis? Where does it affect?
    • "Athlete's foot"
    • 3rd and 4th inderdigital space
  369. What is the most common fungal infection?
    Tinea pedis
  370. What is another name for Tinea unguium?
    "Ringworm of the Nails"
  371. How do subcutaneous mycoses usually begin? Are they common? What are the two types?
    • traumatic implantation
    • fairly common in US
    • Sporotrichosis, Chromoblastomycoses
  372. What is sporotrichosis caused by? What type of fungi is it? Where is it found?
    • Sporotherix schenckii
    • dimorphic
    • plants
  373. What are the symptoms? (2)
    • chain of nodules along the lymphatic drainage of an extremity (sometimes called a cigar shaped lesion)
    • pulmonary infection resembling TB
  374. How does Chromoblastomycoses begin? Who is it often seen with?
    • traumatic implantation in a limb or shoulder
    • lumberjacks and landscapers
  375. What are the two types of systemic mycoses?
    Pathogenic and opportunistic
  376. What organ do Pathogenic mycoses affect first? What is another name for them? What organs do they affect? What type of fungi are they? Who do they affect?
    • lungs
    • Deep mycoses
    • internal organs, may disseminate to multiple sites
    • dimorphic
    • people exposed to large amounts of airborne dust or sand
  377. What causes Histoplasmosis? How common is it? What does is leave?
    • Histoplasma capsulatum
    • one of the most common diseases in the US
    • 95% do not know they have it
    • residual calcification in the lungs
  378. What is Blastomycosis? How is it contracted? How does it affect the lungs?
    • pulmonary disease, often misdiagnosed as carcinoma
    • usually inhaled, associated with rotting wood and beaver dams
    • does not calcify in the lungs
  379. What causes coccidioidomycosis? What is another name for it? (2) Where is it found?
    • Coccidioides immitis
    • Valley Fever, San Joaquin Valley Fever
    • San Joaquin Valley and SW US in the sand (inhaled)
    • "Valley girls suck Cock"
  380. What can cause an infection from an opportunistic mycoses? What are the types? (3)
    • may be caused by any fungus if immunocompromised
    • Candidiases, Crypotococcus, Aspergillosis
  381. What causes Candidiases? Where is it normally found? What does it cause?
    • Candida albicans
    • oral, mucous membrane, gastrointestinal flora
    • Oral Thrush (Moniliasis) and Vulvovaginitis (Vaginal Thrush)
  382. Who gets oral thrush? What are the symptoms?
    • premature infants, infants with antibiotics, AIDS
    • white curd-like patches in the oral cavity
  383. Who is predisposed to Vulvovaginitis?
    diabetics, antibiotic use, oral contraceptives, pregnancy
  384. What is Cryptococcus neoformans? Where is in found? How does it present?
    • true yeast
    • fruit, milk, vegetation, soil
    • meningitis (often in AIDS patients)
  385. What are the two types of diseases aspergillosis causes? What is it caused by? How does each type present?
    • allergic --> brochopulmonary disease ("Fungus balls")
    • infectious --> recurrent hemoptysis
    • caused by airborne spores which are ubiquitous
  386. What are organisms that live in or on another and derive nourishment from them, often hurting them?
    Parasites
  387. What term means that an organism and their host are mutually dependent upon one another?
    Symbiotic
  388. What term means that an organism derives a benefit from their host and the host remains unharmed?
    Commensal
  389. What are vectors?
    living transmitters of disease
  390. What are formites?
    inanimate transmitters of disease
  391. What are facultative parasites?
    free-living parasites that associate with a host by choice
  392. What are the top two causes of death worldwide?
    • 1. malnutrition
    • 2. parasites
  393. What is a definitive host?
    the host where the parasite reaches sexual maturity
  394. What is an intermediate host?
    the host where the larval or intermediate stages develop
  395. What is a reservoir host?
    a host that is essential for survival, used to spread to other hosts
  396. What are the four types of parasites?
    Protozoa (amoebas, flagellates, ciliates), Cestodes (Tapeworms), Nematodes (Roundworms), Trematodes (Flukes)
  397. What are the three types of protozoas?
    intestinal, blood and tissue, free-living
  398. What type of parasite is Entamoeba histolytica? How is it transmitted? What does it cause? What is its infective state? What is another name for it?
    • Intestinal Protozoa
    • Fecal-oral
    • Amebiasis (amoebic dysentery)
    • Cyst
    • Montezuma's Revenge
  399. What type of parasite is Giardia lambia? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause? What is its infective state?
    • Intestinal Protozoa
    • Fecal, Water, Oral or anal sex
    • Giardiasis (camping diarrhea, AIDS)
    • Cyst
  400. What type of parasite is Cryptosporidium? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Intestinal Protozoa
    • Undercooked meat, fecal
    • Cryptosporidiosis (transient diarrhea in healthy person, severe illness in immunocompromised)
  401. What type of parasite is Trichomonas vaginalis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Intestinal Protozoa
    • Sex
    • Trichomoniasis (Green frothy discharge)
    • "Tricks for Green money"
  402. What type of parasite is Plasmodium (malaria)? How is it transmitted? Who is the intermediate host? Who is the defenitive host? What disease does it cause? What is its infective stage?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • female Anopheles mosquito
    • Humans
    • Mosquitos
    • Malaria
    • Sporozoite (called merozoite in RBC)
  403. What are the symptoms of malaria? What type does P. falciparum cause? What type does P. vivax cause? What type does P. ovale cause?
    • cyclic paroxysms (chills, fever, rigors) and splenomegaly
    • fatal
    • benign (Vietnam vets)
    • benign
  404. What type of parasite is toxoplams gondii? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause? What does it cause in an immunocompromised person? Healthy person? Who is it seen with? Why is it dangerous?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Cat feces, raw meat
    • toxoplasmosis
    • severe illness
    • mononucleosis-like disease
    • AIDS patients
    • crosses the placenta causing congenital infection --> pregnant women should never be around a litter box!
  405. What type of parasite is Pneumocystis carinii? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Direct transmission or aerosols
    • Pneumocystis pneumonia
  406. What is the most common infection in AIDS patients?
    Pneumocystis carinii
  407. What type of parasite is Trypanosoma cruzi? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Feces of Reduviid (Kissing) bug in it's bite wound
    • Chaga's disease (affects heart, liver, brain)
    • Romana's sign - unilateral eye swelling
    • "Cruz on down to Chagas pad and Kiss the Red wine"
  408. What type of parasite is Trypanosoma gambiense? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Tstse fly
    • African sleeping sickness
  409. What type of parasite is Trypanosoma rhodesiense? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Tstse fly
    • African Sleeping sickness
  410. What type of parasite is Leishmania Donovani? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Sand fly bite
    • Visceral Leishmaniasis, Kala Azar, Dumdum fever
  411. What type of parasite is Leishmania tropica? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Sand fly bite
    • Dermal Leishmaniasis
  412. What type of parasite is Leishmania braziliensis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Blood and Tissue Protozoa
    • Sand fly bite
    • Dermal Leishmaniasis
  413. What are cestodes?
    have a scolex (head) and neck (produces the proglottids which are hermaphroditic), do not cause symptoms usually but can cause nutritional deficiencies
  414. What type of parasite is Taenia saginata? How is it transmitted?
    • Cestode
    • Beef tapeworm
    • Cystercercosus in uncooked beef
    • "sagging beef"
  415. What type of parasite is Taenia solium? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Cestode, Pig Tapeworm
    • infected pork or tapeworm eggs
    • cysticercosis - larvae containing cysts in the eye or brain, lead to calcification when die
    • "Porks got Soul"
  416. What type of parasite is Diphyllobothrium laturn? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Cestode, Fish Tapeworm (up to 10 meters)
    • Fish flesh (raw)
    • B12 deficiency (pernicious anemia)
  417. What type of parasite is Hymenolepsis nana?
    • Cestode, Dwarf tapeworm of rodents and man
    • "Your Nana is a Dwarf"
  418. What type of parasite is Echinococcus granulosus? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Cestode, Dog tapeworm
    • Eggs from canine feces
    • Hydatid disease (enters blood and goes to liver or lung, cysts containing brood capsules)
  419. How are Nematodes (roundworms) transmitted? (4)
    • eggs
    • direct invasion by larvae
    • ingestion of larvae
    • larval transmission by an insect
  420. What type of parasite is Enterobius vermicularis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematodes (roundworm), pinworm
    • Eggs via fecal-oral
    • Enterobiasis (nocturnal anal itching
    • "Vermin in the Anus"
  421. What is the most common helminth in the US? Where is it found? How is it diagnosed?
    • Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
    • sandboxes
    • scotch tape test
  422. What type of parasite is Trichuris trichiura? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm), whipworm
    • Eggs from human fertilizer, contaminated food or water
    • Trichuriasis (appendicitis or rectal prolapse or infection of the small intestine)
    • "do Tricks with Whips"
  423. What type of parasite is Ascaris lumbricoides? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm)
    • eggs from human fertilizer, contaminated food or water
    • Ascariasis (infection and obstruction of the small intestine)
  424. What type of parasite is Necator americanus? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm), New World hookworm
    • Skin of feet by larvae, travel in blood to lungs, cough then swallowed
    • Hookworm infection (infection of the small intestines)
    • "get your Hooks in an American man and Bleed him dry"
  425. What type of parasite is Ancylostoma duodenale? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm), Old world Hookworm
    • Feet --> blood --> lungs --> cough then swallow
    • hookworm infection (infection of small intestine)
  426. What type of parasite is Strongyloides stercoralis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • nematode (roundworm), threadworm
    • Directly through skin by larvae
    • Strongyloidiasis (infection of the small intestine)
  427. What type of parasite is Trichinella spiralis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm)
    • Ingestion of encysted larvae in undercooked meat (pork)
    • Trichinosis (larvae --> adults in small intestine --> blood --> muscle tissue --> encyst --> muscle pain, fever, eosinophilia)
  428. What type of parasite is Wucheria bancrofti? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (roundworm)
    • Mosquito bite
    • Filariasis of lymphatics (larvae migrate to lymph nodes, often inguinal, obstruct lymph as grow to adult causing elephantiasis
  429. What type of parasite is Loa Loa? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (round worm), African eye worm
    • Chrysops (mango fly)
    • Filariasis of the eye (larvae migrate through subcutaneous tissue and into eye)
  430. What type of parasite is Onchocerca volvulus? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Nematode (round worm)
    • Black fly
    • River Blindness (onchocerciasis) - fibrous nodules in skin and subcutaneous tissues, often ocular leading to blindness
  431. What are trematodes? Who are their intermediate hosts? What form are they in water?
    • Flukes, flatworms
    • Snail or other mollusk
    • miricidium - free-swimming form when first hatch
  432. What type of parasite is Schistosoma? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Trematode, blood fluke
    • direct penetration via contact wiht infected water
    • Schistosomiasis (bilharziasis - worms lodge in venules of bladder or intestine)
    • Also can cause Swimmer's itch
  433. What type of parasite is Clonorchis sinensis? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Trematode, Chinese Liver Fluke
    • Ingestion of contaminated raw fish
    • Clonorchiasis (adults live in liver, release eggs into bile)
  434. What type of parasite is Fasciolopsis helpatica? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Trematode, buski, liver fluke
    • Ingestion of contaminated aquatic plants (water chestnuts)
    • Fasciolopsias (adults live in liver, release eggs into bile)
  435. What type of parasite is Paragonimus westermani? How is it transmitted? What disease does it cause?
    • Trematodes, lung fluke
    • Ingestion of contaminated raw crabs or crayfish
    • Paragonimiasis (start in stomach and migrate to the lung)
  436. Is immunity inherited?
    No
  437. What is immunity?
    "enhanced state" of responsiveness to a specific substance, induced by prior contact with that substance
  438. What is Non-specific resistance?
    • Innate immunity
    • present from birth, non-specific
    • Barriers to external insults
  439. What are 6 examples of innate immunity?
    skin, mucous membranes, macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, lymphocytes
  440. What is Specific resistance?
    • Acquired immunity
    • expressed after exposure and is specific
    • Humoral (antibodies) and Cell-mediated (lymphocytes)
  441. Types of immunity? (4)
    • Natural active - your response to an infection
    • Natural passive - mother to child antibodies
    • Acquired active - immunization with attenuated virus
    • Acquired passive - you are given antibodies
  442. What immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? How much is baby born with?
    IgG, baby is born with adult levels
  443. What is the most abundant antibody in normal serum?
    IgG
  444. What is the primary antibody in anamnestic response?
    IgG
  445. What is anamnestic response?
    memory - upon second exposure to an antigen, IgG is first to appear and in greater amounts
  446. Where is IgA found? (5)
    • tears
    • saliva
    • respiratory
    • intestinal mucosa (mucous membranes)
    • Mothers milk
  447. What is the first immunoglobulin to appear after the first exposure to an antigen?
    IgM
  448. What is the first antibody to appear in the fetus?
    IgM
  449. What is the largest antibody?
    IgM
  450. What antibody serves as receptors on B cells?
    IgD
  451. What is IgE involved in? Where is it secreted?
    • allergic and parasitic responses
    • lumen of intestine and stomach
  452. What is interferon produced by? Why?
    virus-infected lymphocytes (T cells and NK cells) in order to protect uninfected cells
  453. What are haptens?
    partial antigens, incapable of creating an antibody response
  454. What are opsonins?
    substances that enhance phagocytosis
  455. What vaccine is given for Poliomyelitis? What does it contain?
    OPV, live polio virus
  456. What is MMR vaccine for? What does it contain?
    • Measles/Mumps/Rubella
    • Live virus
  457. What vaccine is given for Hepatitis B? What does it contain?
    • HB
    • Inactive viral antigen
  458. What vaccine is given for the flu? What does it contain?
    • Influenza A
    • Inactivated virus (new every year)
  459. Who is the Hepatitis B vaccine recommended for?
    People at high risk (hospital workers, persons on hemodialysis, IV drug users, ect.)
  460. Who is the Influenza A vaccine recommended for?
    The elderly and the immunocompromised
  461. What is type 1 hypersensitivity? What triggers it? What occurs in this hypersensitivity?
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Environment antigens --> allergies, asthma, anaphylaxis
    • IgE response - mast cells or basophils release histamine, prostagladins and chemotatic factors (to alert phagocytic cells)
  462. What is type 2 hypersenitivity? What does it activate? What are 3 examples?
    • Cytotoxic - antibody-antigen reactions activate the complement system and cause cell lysis
    • transfusion reactions, Rh incompatibility, Hemolytic anemia
  463. What is type 3 hypersensitivity? What cell does it involve? Example?
    • Delayed (cell-mediated)
    • sensitized T-cells contain a specific antigen
    • tuberculin skin test (PPD) - injected subcutaneously and reaction is judged 24 hours later
Author
runner0369
ID
59497
Card Set
Microbiology Dr. Guy's
Description
Microbiology flashcards based on Dr. Guy's notes for NBCE study
Updated

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