Gerry; Study guide; 12/14/10

These persons should be educated about the effects of the static magnetic field, especially in high field superconducting magnets.
a. the nursing staff and the code team
b. the house keeping staff and the fire department
c. the anesthesiology and respiratory therapy department
d. a,b, and c

Family members and ancillary personnel accompanying the patient into the scan room __________________
a. need not be screened as they are not to undergo MR imaging
b. can enter the scan room to check on the patient but cannot stay for the procedure
c. should be screened as if they are having the procedure themselves
d. must wear a lead apron during the procedure

The following items are usually allowed to enter the scan room in high magnetic field systems.
a. surgical stainless steel hemostats
b. surgical stainless steel scissors
c. Bronze tools
d. all of the above

It is good practice for all patients that undergo MRI to be ___ monitored
a. visually and/or verbally
b. ECG
c. Respiratory
d. Not

Patients who may require additional monitoring during an MRI procedure include
a. Unresponsive and uncommunicative patients
b. Sedated, psychiatric and pediatric
c. Patients who have weak voices and/or impaired hearing
d. A and b
e. A, b, and C

Absolute contraindications for MRI include________________.
a. Cardiac pacemaker
b. Pregnancy
c. Ferrous intravascular aneurysm clips
d. A, & C

Before a patient enters the MRI environment they should be screened for
a. Prior injuries
b. Prior surgical implants
c. Pregnancy
d. All of the above

When used for MR imaging, cables from RF coils and ECG leads should be _________________.
a. Thermally and electrically isolated
b. laying along the patients right arm along the bore
c. formed into loops within the imager
d. neatly coiled and ready for use

Passive magnetic shielding can be achieved by lining the MR room with _________________.
a. Copper
b. Steel
c. Lead
d. None of the above

Contraindications for using gadolinium include
a. Sickle cell crisis and hypertension
b. Anorexia and pregnancy
c. High BUN and low creatinine
d. Hemalytic anomalies and lactating mothers
e. None known

Precautions for the use of gadolinium include:
a. Sickle cell crisis and hypertension
b. Pregnancy
c. Low GFR
d. Hemalytic anomalies and lactating mothers
e. Prior contrast reactions
f. Patient’s with a history of asthma or allergies
i. A, and B
ii. C, and E
iii. B, C, E, F
iv. All of the above

During a quench, patients and operators should be evacuated from the room to avoid ________________.
a. asphyxiation and frostbite
b. sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
c. ruptured tympanic membranes
d. a and c
e. e. all of the above

The predominant biological effect of radiofrequency fields is ______.
a. induced voltages
b. tissue heating
c. hypothermia
d. All of the above

In the United States the FDA limits the allowable amount of radiofrequency absorption to _________________.
a. 0.4 w/kg
b. 4 w/kg
c. 2 w/kg
d. there is no FDA limit

RF heating is more of a concern in ____________ imaging sequences
a. Gradient Echo
b. Echo planar imaging
c. Spin Echo
d. Fast Spin Echo

The unit of measure of radiofrequency absorption is known as the:
a. Sensitive Acquisition Range (SAR)
b. Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
c. Susceptibility Attack Region (SAR)
d. none of the above

The unit of measure of radiofrequency absorption is measured in _____________.
a. watts per pound
b. volts per pound
c. watts per kilogram
d. volts per kilogram

The FDA limits the effect of RF absorption as an increase in core body temperature to _________.
a. 0.1⁰C
b. 1⁰C
c. 10⁰F
d. there is no limit

Radio Frequency energy is
a. High energy ionizing radiation
b. High energy non-ionizing radiation
c. Low energy non-ionizing radiation
d. Low energy ionizing radiation

As the flip angle is doubled RF deposition increases by a factor of
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

The field strength at isocenter is measured in units of _________.
a. Gauss
b. Tesla
c. Watts
d. SAR

Magnetic field strength outside the imager is usually measured in
a. Gauss
b. Tesla
c. Watts
d. SAR

The force that a projectile will be attracted to the isocenter of the system is dependent upon
a. The ferromagnetic properties of the object
b. The mass of the object
c. The field strength of the MRI unit
d. All of the above

Imagers with less of a concern for fringe fields are
a. Mid-field superconducting imagers
b. Low field resistive imagers
c. High field superconducting imagers that are shielded
d. Low field permanent imagers

A magnetic field strength of 1 Tesla is equal to
a. 1000 G
b. 10,000 G
c. 100,000 G
d. 1 G

A method that is acceptable for the detection of intra-ocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Plain film
d. Visual examination

A method that is more accurate in the detection of small intra-ocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Plain film
d. Visual examination

The following statements are all true concerning T1 recovery except
a. T1 recovery may also be called spin lattice recovery
b. T1 recovery happens from nuclei giving up its energy to the surrounding tissue.
c. T1 recovery is the result of nuclei interacting with each other causing dephasing.
d. Results from nuclei re-growing longitudinal magnetization.

Intravenous injections of Gadolinium contrast agents are considered an indication in MRI for
a. Pediatric imaging
b. Abdominal imaging
c. The Central Nervous System
d. A, b, and C

The percentage of patients reported to have reactions to gadolinium contrast agents are:
a. Less than 1%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 20 %

Patients who are at an increased risk of mild reactions to gadolinium are patients with
a. A history of asthma and or allergies
b. Prior contrast reactions
c. No known medical history
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C

For optimum operation of the MRI systems, the ambient temperature and relative humidity should remain between
a. 30⁰F and 50⁰F/30% and 50%
b. 65⁰F and 75⁰F/30% and 50%
c. 70⁰F and 50⁰F/90% and 50%
d. None specified

The FDA limit for the static field is____. (For clinical imaging for patients to include: babies over one month of age, children and adults.)
a. 2.0 T
b. 3.0 T
c. 4.0 T
d. 8.0 T

Patient screening in MRI should be performed____________________.
a. Once (complete the form only)
b. Once by anyone
c. More than once, by anyone
d. More than once, by trained professional

It is _____ for all patients to be provided with hearing protection in the form of _______.
a. Required / headphones or earplugs
b. Recommended / headphones or earplugs
c. Required / head coil
d. Recommended / helmet

The general public is limited to a magnetic field of
a. 5 gauss
b. 10 gauss
c. 15 gauss
d. There is not limit

The gradient magnetic fields
a. produce heat in the gradient coils during the scan
b. can produce noise to cause temporary hearing loss
c. change rapidly during the scanning process
d. all of the above

Increasing the number of signal average (NSA)
a. Increases SNR by the square root of the increase
b. Decreases the SNR by the square root of the decrease
c. Not affect the SNR
d. Increase the scan time

When a patient is placed within the bore of a magnetic resonance imager, there can be an effect noted on the ECG whereby there is an elevated “T” wave. This “effect” has several names and can be known as all EXCEPT
a. Magnetohydrodynamic effect
b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
d. Magnetophosphenes

The “effect” whereby the patient experiences a visual stimulation, that gives the impression as if they are seeing “stars in their eyes”, is known as ____________.
a. Magnetohydrodynamic effect
b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
d. Magnetophosphenes

The FDA limit on time varying magnetic fields is __________.
a. 10 G/cm
b. 6T / sec.
c. 1G/cm
d. Until the patient experiences peripheral nerve stimulation.

(TVMF) time varied magnetic field effects include all of the following EXCEPT

The following scan sequences are of greater concern for TVMF effects ___________________.
a. FSE
b. EPI
c. GE
d. SE

RF shielding can be achieved by lining the scanner room walls with
a. Copper
b. Steal
c. Lead
d. None of the above

The strength of the gradient magnetic fields are measured in
a. Millitesla per metre
b. Watts per kilogram
c. Gauss per centimeter
d. A and C

The gradient rise time is defined as
a. The time it takes for the gradient to reach it’s full amplitude
b. The time to takes for one TR to occur
c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period
d. How much the gradient changes the magnetic field over a specific distance

The duty cycle is
a. The time it takes for the gradient to reach it’s full amplitude
b. The time to takes for one TR to occur
c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period
d. How much the gradient changes the magnetic field over a specific distance

Magnetic field inhomogenity is expressed in
a. Parts per million
b. Watts per kilogram
c. Rise time
d. Gauss per centimeter

Areas of the body that do not dissipate heat from SAR efficiently are
a. Face and neck
b. Brain and abdomen
c. Eyes and testicles
d. None of the above

Of the following implants which would be considered acceptable to scan by MRI
a. Ferrous aneurysms clips
b. Neurostimulators
c. Cardiac pacemakers
d. Heart valves

Which chamber of the heart does the pulmonary vein rise from?
a. Left ventricle
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Ventricle

The most anterior chamber of the heart is the
a. Left ventricle
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Ventricle

The most posterior chamber of the heart is the
a. Left ventricle
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Ventricle

The chamber of the heart with the thickest myocardium is the
a. Left ventricle
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Ventricle

The _____ is the valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium from the left ventricle
a. Tricuspid valve
b. Bicuspid valve
c. Semilunar valves
d. Your Momma

What vessels are demonstrated on a midline Sagittal view of the heart and chest?
a. Ascending aorta and the pulmonary vein
b. Ascending and descending aorta
c. Descending aorta and the pulmonary vein
d. Ascending aorta and the carotid artery

What is the best view to demonstrate the median nerve of the wrist?
a. Axial
b. Coronal Oblique
c. Sagittal Oblique
d. Oblique

Which arteries join together to form the basilar artery?
a. The internal carotid arteries
b. The common carotid arteries
c. The vertebral arteries
d. Posterior cerebral arteries

The pituitary stalk may also be called
a. Infidibulum
b. Optic nerve
c. Thalmus
d. None of the above

In which vessel is the blood flow the fastest?
a. Ascending aorta
b. Descending aorta
c. Common carotid
d. IVC

Compared to CT which is limited in MR imaging?
a. Cortical bone
b. Flowing blood
c. Recurrent tumors
d. Soft tissue structures

The prostate is located _____ and _____ to the bladder.
a. Superior, anterior
b. Inferior, anterior
c. Superior, posterior
d. Inferior, posterior

What is the best view to demonstrate the Achilles tendon?
a. Coronal Oblique
b. Sagittal
c. Coronal
d. Axial

What is the best view to demonstrate the hippocampus region?
a. Sagittal
b. Axial
c. Coronal
d. Sagittal oblique

What is the best view to demonstrate the carotid bifurcation?
a. Axial
b. Sagittal
c. Coronal
d. Oblique

What muscle is mostly associated with rotator cuff injury?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supscapularis
d. Teres minus

Structures seen in Cholangiopancreatography include?
a. Bile duct, pancreatic duct, gallbladder
b. Kidney, adrenal gland. Gallbladder
c. gallbladder, bile duct, liver
d. Bile duct, kidney, pancreatic duct

The portal vein is a combination of three vessels which are
a. IVC
b. Splenic vein
c. Superior mesenteric vein
d. Inferior mesenteric vein
i. A only
ii. B and C
iii. A, B, and C
iv. B, C, and D

Where does avascular necrosis mostly occur?
a. Femoral head
b. Femoral neck
c. Greater trochanter
d. Lesser trochanter

Where do the coronary arteries originated from?
a. The aortic root
b. Left ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Aortic arch

The pituitary gland lies in the
a. Pituitary stalk
b. Sella tursica
c. Cavernous sinus
d. Spenoid sinus

What dural sinus runs from occipital tubercle to mastoid air-cell?
a. Inferior sagittal sinus
b. Confluence of sinus
c. Sigmoid sinus
d. Transverse Sinus

What structure is adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus
a. Thalmus
b. Anterior horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Pons
d. Posterior horn of the lateral ventricle

What is the most inner lining of the uterus?
a. Perimetrium
b. Myometrium
c. Endometrium
d. cervix

Which is the largest tendon in the body?
a. Biceps Tendon
b. Achilles tendon
c. The extensor tendon of the third digit of the hand.
d. The deltoid tendon.

Where would center for an islet cell tumor?
a. Kidney’s
b. Liver
c. Bladder
d. Pancreas

Where would you center for a Wilms Tumor?
a. Kidney’s
b. Liver
c. Bladder
d. Pancreas

In the Temporal Mandibular Joint, the articular disc is between which two structures?
a. Glenoid fossa and the madibular condyle
b. Mandibular condyle and the mandibular fossa.
c. Coronoid process and the mandibular condyle.
d. Corocoid process and the mandibular condyle.

Which nerve is responsible for carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Cranial nerve V.
b. The median nerve.
c. The ulnar nerve.
d. The radial nerve.

The Insula is responsible for
a. Personality
b. Peripheral sensations
c. Vision
d. Motory and sensory functions

What cranial nerve is responsible for Bells palsy (shaking)?
a. CN VII (facial nerve)
b. CN VIII (vistibulocochlear nerve)
c. CN VI (Abducens nerve)
d. None of the above

To best visualize the internal auditory canal (IAC’s) high resolution images should be acquired in the
a. Sagittal and coronal planes
b. Axial and coronal planes
c. Axial and sagittal planes
d. Sagittal, axial, and coronal planes

Where would you center to image the 7th and 8th cranial nerves
a. Glabella
b. Nasion
c. External auditory meatus
d. Acanthion

The sinuses that drain into the internal jugular vein are the
a. Superior sagittal sinus
b. Inferior sagittal sinus
c. Transverse sinuses
d. Sigmoid sinus

What structures make up the brain stem?
1. Cerebellar tonsils
2. Thalmus
3. Midbrain
4. Pons
5. Medulla oblongata
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 4, and 5
C. 4 and 5
D. 3, 4, and 5

In the neck the carotid arteries bifurcate at what level
a. C1 to C3
b. C3 to C5
c. T1 to T3
d. T3 to T5

What are three vessels that arise from the aorta?
1) Brachiocephalic artery
2) Left common carotid artery
3) Left Subclavian artery
4) Right Vertebral artery
a. 1 and 2
b. 4 only
c. 1, 2, and 4
d. 1, 2, and 3

Abdominal organs that lie in the retroperitoneum include
a. Kidneys and adrenals
b. Liver and spleen
c. Pancreas and gall bladder
d. None of the above

Where would you center for a patient with incontinence?
a. Cervical spine
b. Thoracic spine
c. Thoraco lumbar region
d. External auditory meatus

Structures that will always appear black on an MR image include
i. Air
ii. Enhancing lesions
iii. CSF
iv. Cortical bone
v. Tendons and ligaments
vi. Metallic artifacts
a. i only
b. i and v only
c. I, ii, iv, and vi
d. i, iv, v, and vi

In order to acquire a coronal oblique view of the shoulder, slices should be prescribed parallel to
a. Glenal humeral joint
b. Coracoid process
c. Surpaspinatus Muscle
d. Both a and c

To center for a shoulder MRI the patient should be land marked at
a. Coronoid process
b. The corocoid process
c. The humeral head
d. Glenoid labrum

In a routine brain MRI examination the technologist should center at the
a. Glabella
b. Nasion
c. Midbrain
d. VII cranial nerve

After the injection of gadolinium in the lumbar spine what will enhance with contrast first
a. The lamina
b. The thecal sac
c. Recurrent disc
d. Scar tissue

Arnold Chiari malformation is when
a. The cerebellar tonsils protrude through the foramen magnum.
b. The pons protrudes through the foramen magnum
c. The cerebellar tonsils do not protrude through the foramen magnum.
d. The conus does not detach from the sacrum.

When the third ventricle is dilated and the fourth ventricle is not, there is a pathology associated with
a. Lateral ventricles
b. Aqueduct of sylvius
c. The foramen magnum
d. The fourth ventricle

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Spleen
b. Pancreas
c. Liver
d. Right Kidney

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. ascending aorta
b. inferior vena cava
c. abdominal aorta
d. thoracic aorta

The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. ascending aorta
b. inferior vena cava
c. abdominal aorta
d. thoracic aorta

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Pubic symphasis
b. bladder
c. prostate gland
d. rectum

The physical gradient used to acquire this slice was the
a. X gradient
b. Y gradient
c. Z gradient
d. A combination of the Y and Z gradient

Tthe structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Ischium
b. Gluteus muscles
c. Psosas muscles
d. Sacrum

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Greater trochanter
b. Ischium
c. Sacrum
d. Lesser trochanter

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Distal Femur
d. Lateral mallelous

The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus
c. Anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
d. Anterior horn of the medial meniscus

The structure that the arrow labeled “C” is pointing to is the
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Patellar tendon
d. Quadreceps tendon

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Anterior cruciate ligament
d. Posterior cruciate ligament

The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Anterior cruciate ligament
d. Posterior cruciate ligament

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Talur tendon
b. Subtalor joint
c. Lateral collateral ligament
d. Achilles tendon

Tthe structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. Talur tendon
b. Subtalar joint
c. Calcaneous
d. Talus

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Corocoid process
b. Coronoid process
c. Olecrenon process
d. Radial head

The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. Corocoid process
b. Coronoid process
c. Olecrenon process
d. Radial head

The structure that the arrow labeled “C” is pointing to is the
a. Corocoid process
b. Coronoid process
c. Olecrenon process
d. Troclea

The structure that the arrow labeled “D” is pointing to is the
a. Triceps muscle
b. Triceps tendon
c. Brachialis muscle
d. Biceps muscle

The structure that the arrow labeled “E” is pointing to is the
a. Triceps muscle
b. Triceps tendon
c. Brachialis muscle
d. Biceps muscle

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Sacrum
b. Coccyx
c. Prostate
d. Bladder

The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
a. Navicular
b. Scaphoid
c. Hammate
d. Pisiform

The arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
a. Navicular
b. Scaphoid
c. Carpal tunnel
d. Pisiform