Unit Review

  1. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?



    A. Pathogen
  2. Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?



    C. Sporozoa
  3. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?



    D. Incubation
  4. The mucous membranes filters and traps foreign bodies through



    A. cilia
  5. Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution



    A. Enteric
  6. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?



    C. Airborne
  7. What is the most serious type of meningitis?



    A. Bacterial
  8. One of the most common and serious complications a female may dvelop form gonorrhea is



    A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
  9. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms?



    A. Surgical asepsis
  10. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?



    D. Antiseptic
  11. What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?



    B. Reverse
  12. What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?



    C. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport.
  13. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is



    B. an isolation cart
  14. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on



    A. before entering, and take it off before leaving.
  15. What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization



    A. cleaning
  16. How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?



    D. 12 minutes
  17. Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?



    A. Hydrochloric acid
  18. How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?



    C. daily and weekly
  19. Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every



    B. 24 hours
  20. How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers



    C. at least once per day
  21. Which basic human need category is rest included in?



    C. Physiological
  22. Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?



    B. B-complex vitamins
  23. What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?



    B. Iron
  24. Plasma lipids include what three substances?



    B. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
  25. What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?



    A. Pain free and rest
  26. What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to a sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?



    A. Moro
  27. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age:



    C. 24 months
  28. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?



    B. Blood pressure screenings
  29. What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?



    D. Intrinsic factor
  30. B12 deficiency are first noted by :



    C. Pernicious anemia
  31. Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through:



    B. Freezing
  32. Large doses of Vitamin C cause all of the following except:



    C. Constipation
  33. Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except:



    A. Calcium
  34. A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of:



    B. Prolonged clotting times
  35. Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?



    C. Heparin Overdose
  36. Which of the following vitamins is not fat soluble?



    B. Vitamin C
  37. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen:



    D. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
  38. Half-normal saline solution is represented by:



    B. 0.45%
  39. Potassium helps to maintain:



    C. Heartbeat Regulation
  40. Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except:



    B. Diabetes
  41. Oral Iron supplements should not be taken with:



    A. Tea, Milk, or Coffee
  42. Which route is injectable iron administered?



    B. Intra Muscular
  43. When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as:



    D. anabolism
  44. Cellular Metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of:



    C. Enzyme
  45. Electrolytes that release ions in water are called:



    A. acids
  46. When excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by:



    D. acetone in the breath and urine
  47. Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes:



    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level.
  48. The two main categories of leukocytes are:



    C. granulocytes and agranulocytes
  49. Neutrophils are also known as:



    A. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
  50. The life span of lymphocytes is



    A. years
  51. What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?



    B. lymphocytes and macrophages
  52. When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?



    C. Supratrochlear
  53. Children who recieve routine childhood immunizations are protected by



    A. artificially acquired active immunity
  54. The body's first step in the healing process is:



    C. inflammation
  55. During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?



    D. Inflammation
  56. The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?



    A. Reconstruction
  57. Full maturation of a wound is evident when



    B. the scaring is white and glossy
  58. For many patients who suffer form severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is?



    A. shock and disorientation
  59. What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?



    D. Hyperkalemia
  60. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning, or ingested too many antacids?



    A. Metabolic alkalosis
  61. Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?



    D. Respiratory alkalosis
  62. Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregualr shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called:



    B. Respiratory acidosis
  63. To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperlimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than:



    D. 8 hours
  64. When selecting an intravenous(IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic cnetimeters(cc) would you possibly be able to select from?



    B. 100 to 2000 cc
  65. Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous(IV) solution bag?



    C. 24 to 36 inches
  66. If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous(IV) solution, what should you do?



    B. slow the infusion
  67. How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?



    A. 2 tablespoons
  68. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for:



    B. 2 to 3 minutes
  69. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?



    C. It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
  70. What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?



    C. Read the operating instructions
  71. The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is?



    D. 70 to 115 mg/dl
  72. In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's:



    B. complaint of a headache
  73. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the:



    A. rectum
  74. What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?



    C. Sims
  75. When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae(PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving:



    D. in the direction of hair growth
  76. How do you measure the visual field?



    D. Determine degrees away from fixation
  77. When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patients response will determine:



    B. sequence of test performance
  78. How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester(OVT)?



    D. seven
  79. How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the psuedoisochromatic plate set(PIP) test?



    A. 30
  80. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second(FEV1)or forced vital capacity(FVC) percentage is less than:



    A. 80
  81. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are:



    B. 2:3
  82. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?



    C. Sinoatrial node
  83. Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?



    A. left ventricle
  84. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called:



    C. artifacts
  85. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the:



    B. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
  86. For orthostatic vital sign measurments, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse;and what is the correct time interval between readings?



    B. Lying, sitting, standing;3 minutes
  87. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below:



    D. 97%
  88. When checking the eyes during a nuerological exam, the pupils should:



    C. constrict quickly and simultaneously
  89. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?



    C. after the consent form is signed
  90. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?



    C. flush the wound
  91. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?



    D. assess sensory awareness
  92. In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?



    D. daily
  93. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?



    B. 300 mmHg
  94. Which emergency response refers to and emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?



    D. code 3;hot
  95. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?



    D. name
  96. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only:



    D. when local protocol authorizes it
  97. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the EMT is called:



    D. scene sizeup
  98. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than 8 breaths per minute, provide:



    A. ventilations with a BVM and high flow oxygen
  99. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with:



    B. a significant MOI, and focuses on the are of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
  100. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about:



    A. onset
  101. While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?



    A. time
  102. When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?



    B. ensure all straps are secured on the patient
  103. If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should:



    C. not block the fluid from draining
  104. While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?



    D. basal skull fracture
  105. Which acronym is used by EMT's in the field to describe a possible fracture?



    C. Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)
  106. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?



    A. If the patient is wearing contacts and which type
  107. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?



    A. right atrium
  108. When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is?



    A. electrocardiogram date and time
Author
yamadog327
ID
54736
Card Set
Unit Review
Description
Verbatum
Updated