EMT quiz5

  1. An EMT is permitted to adminster or assist the patient in administering all of hte following medications EXCEPT
    tylenol
  2. The medication that an EMT may administer when a poison has been swallowed is:
    activated charcoal
  3. A severe allergive reaction to a bee sting would be treated by administering:
    epinephrine
  4. Crushing chest pain in a patient with a known history of heart problems would be treated by administering:
    nitroglycerine
  5. Specific signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate to adminster a drug is known as:
    contraindications
  6. All of the following are signs of inadequate breathing EXCEPT:
    present and equal breath sounds
  7. In an infant or a child, bradycardia is a sign of:
    repiratory failure
  8. A harsh, high-pitched sound during breathing is called:
    stridor
  9. A condition in infants and small children in which the movement of the diaphragm causes the chest and abdomen to move in opposite directions is
    seesaw breathing
  10. all of the folowing are examples of chronic obstructive respiratory disease except:
    asthma
  11. An active process in which the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract, causing air to flow into the lungs is known as:
    inspiration
  12. Sporadic, irregular breaths that are usually seen just before respiratory arrest are called:
    agonal respirations
  13. The best known symptom of a heart problem is
    crushing chest pain
  14. If a patient meets nitroglycerine criteria, the maximum number of doses that can be administered is:
    3 or 0.3 mg
  15. Which of the following is a sign of congestive heart failure?
    tachycardia
  16. Fluid buildup in the lungs caused by inadequate pumping of the heart is known as:
    pulmanary edema
  17. When AED's deliver shocks inappropriately, the least common cause is:
    mechanical error
  18. The primary electrical disturbance resulting in cardiac arrest is:
    ventricula fibrillation
  19. The first step in assessing a patient in cardiac arrest is to:
    verify pulselessness and apnea
  20. Quality compressions when doing CPR include all of the following EXCEPT:
    pause every cycle for a pulse check
  21. Pain that originates int he walls of the hollow organs is called:
    visceral
  22. Pain that is felt in a place other than where it originates is called:
    referred
  23. The retroperitoneal space contains which of the following organs?
    Kidney
  24. A patient with pain in the right lower quadrant is most likely suffering from which of the following?
    appendicitis
  25. The best position to place a conscious patient with acute abdominal pain is:
    position of comfort
  26. Which of the following signs indicates internal bleeding?
    coffee-ground-like substance in vomit
  27. The preferred method of providing artificial ventilation is:
    two person bag-valve-mask with supplemental oxygen
  28. If a patient is experiencing breathing difficulty but is breathing adequately, he or she should be placed in a:
    position of comfort
  29. An adequate rate of breathing or breaths per minute for most adults is:
    12-20
  30. A possible side effect from a prescribed inhaler is:
    increased pulse rate
  31. Insulin can best be described as a(n):
    hormone
  32. The organ(s) responsible for the production of insulin is (are):
    pancreas
  33. All of the following are signs or symptoms commonly associated with a diabetic emergency EXCEPT:
    hot, dry skin
  34. The mneumonic used to assess the mental status of a diabetic patient is:
    • SAMPLE
    • signs and symptoms
    • allergies
    • medications
    • past history
    • last oral intake
    • events leading
  35. Glucose is administered in the form of a:
    gel
  36. The route by which glucose is administered is
    orally
  37. The type of diabetes that requires a patient to inject supplemental doses of insulin is:
    type 1
  38. If a patient drinks large amounts of water, has acetone breath, and has warm skin, you would suspect:
    hyperglycemia
  39. The most common cause of seizures in infants and children 6 months to 3 years of age is:
    fever
  40. In cases of convulsive seizures, an EMT should take all of the following actions EXCEPT:
    try to hold the patient still
  41. The type of seizure characterized by unconsciousness and major motor activity is called:
    tonic-clonic seizure
  42. The phase of a tonic-clonic seizure in which the body jerks violently is the:
    clonic phase
  43. The condition in which a stroke severely limits a patient's ability to use words is called:
    aphasia
  44. If a patient exhibits impaired speech, numbness on one side of the body, and sagging facial muscles, you would suspect:
    a stroke
  45. An unconscious patient suffering from a stroke should be transported:
    on his or her side
  46. All of the following are common examples of prescribed bronchodilators EXCEPT:
    nitrostat
  47. Medications administered sublingually are:
    dissolved under the tongue
  48. Prescribed inhalers and epinephrine auto-injectors have a similar effect on patients in that they can:
    increase heart rates
  49. Which is the most appropriate immediate action to take for a patient who is reported to have been in cardiopulmanary arrest for 5 minutes?
    5 cycles of CPR
  50. Ideally, an EMT team responding to a cardiac arrest should contact an ALS team:
    before arrival on the scene
Author
rebellious
ID
54656
Card Set
EMT quiz5
Description
EMT
Updated