Systems 1

  1. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?
    rudder trim tab position
  2. True or false? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller
    • True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by
    • the propeller.
  3. Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?
    The generator function of the starter/generator.
  4. Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component?
  5. True or false? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability.
    False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability
  6. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?
  7. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?
    The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass
  8. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
    Rocket motor
  9. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
    24 volt battery
  10. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
  11. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
  12. True or false?Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically
    energized and de-energized by the PMU.
    False. the igniters are energized by the ignition exciters
  13. The PMU is located ______.
    underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
  14. The PMU performs what functions?
    • maintains operating limits
    • processes power requests
    • determines available power
  15. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU ______.
    needs maintenance
  16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, ______ will be illuminated
    both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
  17. The phase shift torque probe monitors __.
    propeller speed
  18. The PIU ______.
    regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  19. The PMU ______.
    keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
  20. The phase shift torque probe is located ______.
    in the reduction gearbox
  21. The EDM is located ______.
    in the left avionics bay
  22. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by
    changing color
  23. The engine/systems/NACWS displays provide ______.
    oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, NACWS traffic alerts, DC volts and DC amps
  24. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if ______ and the aural tone sounds.
    the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
  25. The primary engine data display system ______.
    provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations
  26. The primary engine data display provides ______.
    torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
  27. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do?
    Begin abort start procedure
  28. What are the indications of a hot start?
    High/rapidly rising ITT, lower, N1, lower NP
  29. What are the indications of a hung start?
    Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower, NP
  30. What are the indications of PMU failure?
    Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone
  31. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather?
    Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise
  32. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in-flight?
    smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or roughness
  33. The power turbine is driven by ______.
    Expanding gases
  34. What does FEVER stand for?
    • Fluctuating oil or hyd pressure, & oil temp
    • Excessive turbine temp
    • Visual indications (smoke)
    • Erratic engine operation
    • Roughness or vibration
  35. What are the three engine sections?
    Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section
  36. What functions are performed by the PMU?
    Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide near linear power response.
  37. What is the purpose of the PIU?
    Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  38. What are some possible causes of engine failure in-flight?
    Fuel starvation, mechanical failure, compressor stall
  39. What are the engine fire warning indicators?
    FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone
  40. What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?
    Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
  41. What are some possible indications of engine fire in-flight that may be seen on the engine displays?
    High ITT; Fluctuating: oil temperature and pressure, hydraulic pressure
  42. Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit ______.
    battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
  43. A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the ______.
    rear cockpit battery bus
  44. Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the ______ in each cockpit.
    trim control panel
  45. The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the ______.
    engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
  46. The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps?
    Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
  47. The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used AFTER engine start?
    Primary jet pump
  48. During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the ______.
    collector tank
  49. True or false. Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low pressure switch.
  50. The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within ______ pounds of the other wing.
  51. What is the aircraft limitation for negative-G flight?
    15 sec
  52. Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
    Transfer (solenoid) valve
  53. The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by ______.
    venturi flow
  54. Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
    motive flow line
  55. The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below ______.
    150 lbs
  56. During normal operation, while the bus tie is closed, which electrical buses does the generator supply?
    Both generator and battery buses are powered by the generator
  57. Power for aircraft avionics is supplied by which bus?
    Both generator and battery buses supply power to avionics and radios.
  58. Control of battery power is transferable between cockpits using what?
    the battery switch.
  59. True or false? The auxiliary battery will activate automatically upon failure of the primary battery
    False. It must be activated by the auxiliary battery switch
  60. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are operated by what means?
    by venturi flow generated by fuel flowing in the motive flow line.
  61. What is indicated if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted?
    The fuel balance switch on the right forward switch panel has been set to MAN/RESET
  62. True or false? The weight of fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the
    True. Collector tank fuel is split between the left and right fuel quantity indications.
  63. Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank?
    Float valve
  64. If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops flow to which tank?
    Motive flow is halted to the light tank.
  65. The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate if the fuel weight difference between the left and right tanks exceeds what figure for more than two minutes?
    30 pounds
  66. The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what?
    Low fuel pressure
  67. Gravity refueling adds how many total pounds to the T-6A normal capacity?
    100 lbs
  68. Which annunciator illuminates if the autobalance system has failed or if the difference in weight between the left and right tanks exceeds 30 pounds for more than two minutes?
    The FUEL BAL annunciator
  69. Which flight control electromechanical trim system(s) utilize movement of the actual primary control
  70. A primary purpose of the TAD system is to ______.
    assist the pilot in maintaining directional trim
  71. The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on ______.
    engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
  72. In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the ______ annunciator light.
  73. Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
    Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
  74. What is included in the rudder control system?
    • Centering springs
    • Cables
    • Bellcrank
  75. The emergency package’s manifold contains which of the following?
    2 emergency extension selector valves
  76. What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system?
    To automatically release pressure should it reach 3500 psi
  77. When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it means that emergency accumulator hydraulic pressure is below ______ ± 150 psi.
  78. A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching IDLE, with the gear handle up, or which of the following?
    The landing gear doors are not closed.
  79. The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
    3000 +- 120 psi
  80. What is true about the power package reservoir?
    A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
  81. The primary hydraulic system’s selector manifold contains which of the following?
    Electrical selector valves
  82. The emergency package receives its pressure from which of the following?
    From the emergency accumulator
  83. The amber EHYD PX LO annunciator light means which of the following?
    Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2400 psi ± 150
  84. The HYDR FL LO annunciator means which of the following?
    Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt
  85. When the power package slide valve closes, the hydraulic pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the ______.
    nose wheel steering actuator
  86. True or false. The nose wheel steering system separate from the selector manifold
  87. True or false. Emergency flap operation IS NOT available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
  88. The _____is (are) interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch trim to compensate for pitch effects as it is operated.
    speed brake
  89. What are the aileron trailing edge traveling limits?
    • 20º up
    • 11º down
  90. How are the ailerons mass balanced and what function does this perform?
    Small weights placed along the leading edge at the point where the ailerons pivot. These weights ensure the center of gravity for each aileron is at the pivot point.
  91. What are the indications the trim disconnect switch has been selected?
  92. How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system?
    Through a circuit breaker placarded AIL/EL TRIM located on the battery bus
  93. If the gust lock is installed properly, how will the control surfaces appear when they are visually
    The ailerons and rudder will be in a neutral position and the elevator will be in a nose-down position.
  94. What component is the source of pressure for the primary hydraulic system?
    The engine driven pump
  95. What is the purpose of the emergency hydraulic system?
    It provides a one-time lowering of the landing gear, main gear inboard doors and flaps.
  96. What are the normal operating ranges for the hydraulic system pressure and fluid quantity?
    • Pressure at 2880-3120 psi on the Engine/Systems/NACWS display
    • FULL AC or FULL AD displayed on the green indicating rod in the reservoir level window
  97. Can the flaps be operated in the event the primary hydraulic system fails?
    Yes, after the landing gear has been lowered.
  98. What are the indications of abnormal primary flight control operations?
    Uncommanded pitch, roll or yaw movements, sluggish response to control inputs
  99. What is the corrective action to take in the case of runaway trim?
    Perform checklist
  100. What are some indications of unsafe landing gear?
    • Indicator lights
    • Lack of noticeable drag
    • Lack of noticeable noise
    • AOA indexer not active
    • Inability to turn on landing or taxi lights
    • Tendency to roll (main gear)
  101. What indicator lights would illuminate with the main landing gear full down, the nose gear still fully retracted, and the PCL above IDLE?
    Two green mains, two red mains, red gear handle light
  102. When lowering flaps using the emergency system, what two conditions might result?
    The flaps might extend only partially and they can take longer to extend
  103. What are the indications of wheel brake failure?
    • Inability to maintain directional control
    • Inability to decelerate
    • “Spongy” or soft brake pedal
    • The aircraft pulls to one side
  104. A “ground-adjustable” trim tab is found on ______.
  105. What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
    The gear doors are not closed, or the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
  106. When completing a sharp turn, how should nose wheel steering be used?
    Nose wheel steering should be turned off prior to the turn since the NWS will try to limit the nose wheel castor
Card Set
Systems 1
Systems 1