Final Review Microbiology Lab

The organism which is considered pathogenic if found in the throat is:
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Enterococcus faecalis
C) viridans groups Streptococcus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes

The most common organism found as normal flora of the skin is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylcoccus epidermidis
C) Staphylcoccus aureus
D) Escherichia coli

Several cases of bacterial meningitis occur in a college dorm. Neisseria meningitidis grows on culture. What is the most likely route of transmission?
A) bloody, body fluids, and sexual
B) indirect contact
C) respiratory droplets
D) fecal/oral

All of the following bacteria produce a capsule with the exception of
A) Staphyloccucs aureus
B) Haemphilus influenzae type B
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Streptococcus agalactiae is the most common cause of:
A) endocarditis
B) respiratory tract infection
C) sepsis and menigitis in newborn
D) menigitis in the elderly

Hemoptysis is a common sign of:
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Bordetella pertussis

Leprosy is also referred to as:
A) consumption
B) impetigo
C) TB
D) Hansen's disease

Which species of Mycobacterium causes tuberculosis of the digestive tract from drinking unpasteurized milk from infected cows?
A) M. leprae
B) M. avium-intracellulare
C) M. bovis
D) M. tuberculosis

An AIDS patient has a reaction to PPD with a diameter of 5 mm. How would this test be interpreted?
a) negative
b) positive

Which statement is not true of M. tuberculosis?
A) the organism can remain viable in dried sputum for 6-8 months
B) treatment regiments usually extend up to one year
C) a positive skin test always indicates active disease
D) AIDS patients have a higher risk of getting TB

Which antibiotic group has the highest rate of allergic reactions?
A) sulfonamide
B) cephalosporin
C) tetracycline
D) penicillin

Kirby Bauer testing is useful for determining
A) which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection
B) the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic
C) whether side effects will result from use of an antibiotic
D) synergistic effect of antibiotics

A patient is currently receiving ampicillin for an infection. The culture report comes back to the floor, and states that Staphylococcus aureus is in the culture site. The antibiotic sensitivity report will be available the next day. The antibiotic:
a) will probably work and shouldn't be changed
b) the doctor should be contacted immediately to change the antibiotic

Vancomycin is used to treat infections caused by:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Methicillin resistant Staph aureus
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) enteric gram negative rods

Which of these bacteria are resistant to many antibiotics?
A) Proteus and E.coli
B) Pseudomonas and Klebsiella
C) Serratia and Pseudomonas
D) Klebsiella and Serratia

Two bacteria are commonly seen together in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG), a serious periodontal disease. Fusobacterium or other anaerobic Gram negative rods are usually seen with the primary organism, which is:
A) Treponema vincenti
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Streptococcus mutans
D) Borrelia burgdorferi

Peptostreptococcus are an anaerobic
A) Gram negative rod
B) Gram negative cocci
C) Streptococcus
D) Staphylcoccus

An intestinal normal flora bacteria that can overgrow and cause pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotics wipe out its competing flora is
A) Clostridum difficile
B) Clostridium botulism
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Clostridium tetani

The physician suspects that his patient has diphtheria. Which of the following symptoms were observed?
A) earache with lethargy and vertigo
B) stiff neck and petechiae
C) chest pain with productive coughing
D) pseudomembrane covering the pharynx causing difficulty breathing

A patient develops foul-smelling gaseous discharge following surgery for a perforated appendix. Culture of the discharge will most likely grow:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium perfringens

A chemical agent which halts bacterial growth but does not kill the cells would be termed:
A) bacteriostatic
B) disinfectant
C) chemisterilant
D) bactericidal

Which of the following agents kills bacterial spores relatively quickly and is used in many hospitals?
A) pasteurization
B) alcohols
C) iodine
D) Ethylene Trioxide Chamber (ETO)

This halogen class of agent is commonly used in the hospital as a skin antiseptic before starting an IV or drawing a blood culture.
A) iodophor (Betadine)
B) glutaraldehyde
C) propyl alcohol
D) hexachlorophene (Phisohex)

Commonly used antiseptics include all except:
A) Hibiclens (chlorhexidine)
B) formalin
C) Betadine (iodophor)
D) 70% alcohol

Sporicidal soaks used for delicate instruments that cannot be autoclaved contain:
A) glutaraldehyde
B) quaternary ammonium
C) chlorhexidine
D) cationic detergents

Which of the following is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
A) E. coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Two food-borne pathogens commonly found in undercooked poultry are:
A) E. coli 0157:H7 and Yersinia
B) Shigella and Salmonella
C) Salmonella and Campylobacter
D) Yersinia and Shigella

This gram negative rod is a common water inhabitant often found among the flora of the intestinal tract. It has a green pigment, and commonly causes pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients and infection in burn wounds.
A) E. coli
B) Pseudomonas
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Serratia

This food-borne illness is so highly infective that as few as 10 ingested organisms can cause disease. It is commonly associated with seafood.
A) Salmonella species
B) E. coli
C) Shigella species
D) Staphylococcus aureus

The lab tech is performing a colony count from a patient's midstream urine specimen. She used a .001 ml calibrated loop to inoculate the blood and EMB agar plates. She observes over 100 colonies on both the blood agar and the EMB agar. The report will read:
A) 1,000 colonies/mL of probable skin contaminant
B) >100,000 colonies/mL of a probable gram negative rod
C) >100,000 colonies/mL of a probable gram positive bacteria
D) 100,000 colonies/mL of a probable gram negative rod